2A652 (Age Journeyman) Volume 1, Edit Code 6

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2A652 Quizzes & Trivia

2A652 Vol 1 Ed. 6


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Risk management principles should be applied to

    • A.

      Only duty-related activities to enhance the safety and wellbeing of yourself and others.

    • B.

      On- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and wellbeing of yourself and others.

    • C.

      Only duty-related activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.

    • D.

      On- and off-duty activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.

    Correct Answer
    B. On- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and wellbeing of yourself and others.
    Explanation
    Risk management principles should be applied to on- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and wellbeing of yourself and others. This means that individuals should assess and mitigate risks not only in their work-related tasks but also in their personal lives. By applying risk management principles to both duty-related and off-duty activities, individuals can identify potential hazards, make informed decisions, and take necessary precautions to prevent harm and promote safety for themselves and others. This approach ensures a comprehensive and proactive approach to risk management, promoting a culture of safety and wellbeing in all aspects of life.

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  • 2. 

    (001) What situation does not warrant prompt reporting to your supervisor?

    • A.

      Using personal protective equipment.

    • B.

      Unsafe working conditions.

    • C.

      Known pregnancies.

    • D.

      Personal injury.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using personal protective equipment.
    Explanation
    Using personal protective equipment does not warrant prompt reporting to your supervisor because it is a standard safety practice that should be followed by all employees. It is not an exceptional situation that requires immediate attention or intervention from the supervisor. Unsafe working conditions, known pregnancies, and personal injury, on the other hand, are situations that pose risks to the employee's well-being or may have legal implications, hence requiring prompt reporting to the supervisor.

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  • 3. 

    (002) The effect of noise on your hearing depends on the

    • A.

      Frequency, deflection, and duration of exposure.

    • B.

      Frequency, volume, and duration of exposure.

    • C.

      Deflection, volume, and duration of exposure.

    • D.

      Deflection, frequency, and volume.

    Correct Answer
    B. Frequency, volume, and duration of exposure.
    Explanation
    The effect of noise on your hearing depends on the frequency, volume, and duration of exposure. Frequency refers to the pitch or tone of the sound, with high frequencies being more damaging to hearing. Volume refers to the intensity or loudness of the sound, with louder sounds causing more damage. Duration of exposure refers to the length of time you are exposed to the noise, with longer durations increasing the risk of hearing damage. Therefore, all three factors - frequency, volume, and duration of exposure - contribute to the effect of noise on your hearing.

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  • 4. 

    (002) The frame of an electrical motor should always be grounded to prevent

    • A.

      The energized windings from touching the frame.

    • B.

      Current from following the path of least resistance.

    • C.

      You from receiving an electrical shock if the energized motor windings touch the frame.

    • D.

      Current from flowing directly to ground if the energized motor windings touch the frame.

    Correct Answer
    C. You from receiving an electrical shock if the energized motor windings touch the frame.
    Explanation
    The frame of an electrical motor should always be grounded to prevent you from receiving an electrical shock if the energized motor windings touch the frame. When the windings become energized, there is a risk of electrical current flowing through the frame. By grounding the frame, any stray current will be safely directed away from you, reducing the risk of electric shock.

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  • 5. 

    (002) Before removing a component from an air compressor, you must ensure

    • A.

      The air compressor is grounded.

    • B.

      The battery is disconnected.

    • C.

      The air strainer is in place.

    • D.

      All air pressure is drained.

    Correct Answer
    D. All air pressure is drained.
    Explanation
    Before removing a component from an air compressor, it is crucial to ensure that all air pressure is drained. This is important for safety reasons as it prevents any accidental release of stored pressure, which could potentially cause injury or damage. By draining the air pressure, the risk of sudden release or unexpected movement of components is minimized, making the task of removing the component safer and easier.

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  • 6. 

    (003) The primary cause of foreign object damage (FOD) is

    • A.

      Aircraft malfunctions.

    • B.

      Naturally occurring phenomena.

    • C.

      People failing to police their work areas.

    • D.

      Poorly maintained aerospace ground equipment (AGE).

    Correct Answer
    C. People failing to police their work areas.
    Explanation
    The primary cause of foreign object damage (FOD) is people failing to police their work areas. This means that individuals are not properly inspecting and cleaning their work areas, leading to the presence of foreign objects that can cause damage to aircraft. Aircraft malfunctions, naturally occurring phenomena, and poorly maintained aerospace ground equipment (AGE) are not mentioned as causes of FOD in the given options.

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  • 7. 

    (003) How can people best prevent foreign object damage (FOD)?

    • A.

      Learn the basic classes of FOD, and recognize its causes.

    • B.

      Periodically participate in “FOD walks” on taxiways and runways.

    • C.

      Look for loose objects discarded on the flightline during maintenance activities.

    • D.

      Look for loose objects (stone, paper, or trash), pick them up when discovered, and encourage others to do the same.

    Correct Answer
    A. Learn the basic classes of FOD, and recognize its causes.
    Explanation
    The best way to prevent foreign object damage (FOD) is to learn about the different classes of FOD and understand what causes it. By having knowledge about FOD, individuals can be more aware of potential hazards and take proactive measures to prevent them. This includes participating in "FOD walks" on taxiways and runways to identify and remove any loose objects. Additionally, being vigilant about loose objects on the flightline during maintenance activities and picking them up, while encouraging others to do the same, can help prevent FOD incidents.

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  • 8. 

    (004) Which type of hammer should you use to avoid damaging driving materials?

    • A.

      Claw.

    • B.

      Sledge.

    • C.

      Soft-face.

    • D.

      Ball-peen.

    Correct Answer
    C. Soft-face.
    Explanation
    Soft-face hammers are designed with non-marring faces, such as rubber or plastic, which help to prevent damage to the driving materials. This type of hammer is commonly used in woodworking or when working with delicate materials that can easily be dented or scratched. The soft-face hammer provides a cushioning effect and absorbs the impact, reducing the risk of damage to the surface being struck.

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  • 9. 

    (004) What is the proper way to grip a ball-peen hammer?

    • A.

      It depends on the object you are striking.

    • B.

      Close to the end; not near the head nor the middle.

    • C.

      Next to the head; not near the middle nor close to the end.

    • D.

      Close to the middle; not near the end nor close to the head.

    Correct Answer
    B. Close to the end; not near the head nor the middle.
    Explanation
    The proper way to grip a ball-peen hammer is close to the end, not near the head nor the middle. This allows for better control and accuracy when striking objects. Placing the hand near the head or the middle may result in less control and potentially cause injury.

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  • 10. 

    (004) The size of screwdriver is determined by the shank

    • A.

      Temper.

    • B.

      Weight.

    • C.

      Length.

    • D.

      Width.

    Correct Answer
    C. Length.
    Explanation
    The size of a screwdriver is determined by its length. The length of a screwdriver is an important factor as it determines the reach and accessibility of the tool. A longer screwdriver can reach screws in deep or narrow spaces, while a shorter screwdriver is more suitable for smaller or delicate tasks. The shank, temper, weight, and width of a screwdriver may vary, but they do not directly determine its size. Therefore, the correct answer is length.

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  • 11. 

    (004) Which type of screwdriver is used in tight places when there isn’t enough room to use astandard screwdriver?

    • A.

      Cross-point.

    • B.

      Flat-blade.

    • C.

      Phillips.

    • D.

      Offset.

    Correct Answer
    D. Offset.
    Explanation
    An offset screwdriver is used in tight places when there isn't enough room to use a standard screwdriver because it has a bent or angled shaft that allows for better access and maneuverability in confined spaces. The offset design helps to reach screws that are located at awkward angles or in hard-to-reach areas, making it a practical choice for these situations.

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  • 12. 

    (004) Which pliers have a locking device to hold materials securely?

    • A.

      Snap ring.

    • B.

      Vice grips.

    • C.

      Water pump.

    • D.

      Diagonal cutters.

    Correct Answer
    B. Vice grips.
    Explanation
    Vice grips have a locking device that allows them to securely hold materials in place. This locking mechanism, often referred to as a "quick-release" or "locking pliers" feature, enables the user to adjust the grip and then lock it into position, providing a firm hold on the material being worked on. This feature is particularly useful when working with materials that require a strong and secure grip to prevent slipping or movement. Snap ring pliers, water pump pliers, and diagonal cutters do not have this locking device, making vice grips the correct answer.

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  • 13. 

    (004) Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut

    • A.

      Bolts.

    • B.

      Rivets.

    • C.

      Hard steel.

    • D.

      Small wire.

    Correct Answer
    D. Small wire.
    Explanation
    Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut small wire because they have sharp, angled blades that allow for clean and precise cuts. These pliers are commonly used in electrical work and other applications where small wires need to be cut. They are not suitable for cutting bolts, rivets, or hard steel, as these materials require stronger and more specialized tools.

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  • 14. 

    (004) If you must push a wrench rather than pull it, how should you do it?

    • A.

      Grasp the handle near the socket.

    • B.

      Grip the wrench tightly near the center.

    • C.

      Use the base of your hand and hold your hand open.

    • D.

      Use the base of your palm, and clutch the wrench tightly.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use the base of your hand and hold your hand open.
    Explanation
    When pushing a wrench instead of pulling it, it is recommended to use the base of your hand and hold your hand open. This technique allows for better control and leverage while pushing, as the base of the hand provides a stable surface to push against. Holding the hand open also ensures that the force is distributed evenly across the hand, reducing the risk of injury or strain.

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  • 15. 

    (004) “Pinning” of a file results when

    • A.

      Inadequate pressure is applied to a new file.

    • B.

      Excessive pressure is applied to a new file.

    • C.

      The file gets caught or stuck in the metal.

    • D.

      Metal particles are clogged in its teeth.

    Correct Answer
    D. Metal particles are clogged in its teeth.
    Explanation
    When metal particles get clogged in the teeth of a file, it results in "pinning" of the file. This means that the file becomes stuck or caught, making it difficult to use effectively. The clogged particles prevent the file from properly cutting or smoothing the surface it is being used on. This can lead to frustration and inefficiency when trying to complete a task that requires the use of the file.

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  • 16. 

    (005) Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, you must

    • A.

      Carefully inspect it and ensure it is properly lubricated.

    • B.

      Ensure no flammable vapors that could ignite are present.

    • C.

      Tighten all parts of the tool and replace any worn brushes.

    • D.

      Blow out the air hose to remove any matter that has collected in it.

    Correct Answer
    D. Blow out the air hose to remove any matter that has collected in it.
    Explanation
    Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, it is important to blow out the air hose to remove any matter that has collected in it. This is necessary to ensure that there are no obstructions or debris that could potentially affect the performance of the tool. By removing any collected matter, the air hose will be clear and allow for proper airflow, which is essential for the efficient operation of the pneumatic impact wrench.

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  • 17. 

    (005) A cracked wheel on a bench grinder is identified by

    • A.

      Its inability to properly sharpening tools.

    • B.

      A ringing sound when tapped lightly with a plastic mallet.

    • C.

      Its inability to remove excess metal or to smooth metal surfaces.

    • D.

      A dull-thudding sound when tapped lightly with a rubber hammer.

    Correct Answer
    D. A dull-thudding sound when tapped lightly with a rubber hammer.
    Explanation
    A cracked wheel on a bench grinder is identified by a dull-thudding sound when tapped lightly with a rubber hammer. This is because a crack in the wheel causes it to lose its structural integrity, resulting in a decrease in its ability to remove excess metal or to smooth metal surfaces. When the cracked wheel is tapped with a rubber hammer, the sound produced is dull and thudding instead of a clear ringing sound, indicating the presence of a crack.

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  • 18. 

    (005) Which part of the torque wrench scale is normally not used?

    • A.

      Lower 10 percent.

    • B.

      Lower 20 percent.

    • C.

      Upper 20 percent.

    • D.

      Upper 10 percent.

    Correct Answer
    B. Lower 20 percent.
    Explanation
    The lower 20 percent of the torque wrench scale is normally not used because it represents the lower range of torque values that are typically not required for most applications. Torque wrenches are designed to provide accurate and precise torque measurements within a specific range, and the lower 20 percent of the scale is usually not necessary for the majority of tasks. It is more common to use the upper 80 percent of the scale, which covers the torque values needed for most applications.

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  • 19. 

    (006) What does the “–4” identify in fitting part number MS20822–4D?

    • A.

      Military specification.

    • B.

      Air Force/Navy.

    • C.

      Type of fitting.

    • D.

      Fitting size.

    Correct Answer
    D. Fitting size.
    Explanation
    The "-4" in fitting part number MS20822-4D identifies the fitting size. The number indicates the size of the fitting, which in this case is a size 4 fitting.

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  • 20. 

    (006) Which types of fitting are designed for pressure systems up to 3,000 pounds per square inch(psi)?

    • A.

      Flared fittings.

    • B.

      Standard fittings.

    • C.

      Flareless fittings.

    • D.

      Precision-type flared fittings.

    Correct Answer
    C. Flareless fittings.
    Explanation
    Flareless fittings are designed for pressure systems up to 3,000 psi. These fittings provide a secure and leak-free connection without the need for flaring or soldering. They use a compression mechanism to create a tight seal between the fitting and the tubing, making them suitable for high-pressure applications. Standard fittings may not be able to withstand the same level of pressure, while precision-type flared fittings are designed for more specialized applications. Therefore, flareless fittings are the correct choice for pressure systems up to 3,000 psi.

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  • 21. 

    (006) When installing a flexible hose, you must provide slack or bend in the hose to

    • A.

      Prevent twisting of the hose.

    • B.

      Compensate for change in length.

    • C.

      Place a mechanical load on the hose.

    • D.

      Protect it from a hot pipe or manifold. Please

    Correct Answer
    B. Compensate for change in length.
    Explanation
    When installing a flexible hose, it is necessary to provide slack or bend in the hose to compensate for any change in length that may occur. This is because flexible hoses can expand or contract due to temperature changes or pressure fluctuations. By allowing for slack or bend in the hose, it can accommodate these changes in length without causing any damage or strain on the hose.

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  • 22. 

    (007) Prior to restoring a piece of equipment to operation that has been in storage, what sectionwithin the operations and service instructions technical order (TO) would you consult to findinstructions to do so safely and properly?

    • A.

      Section II, Special Service Tools.

    • B.

      Section III, Preparation for Use, Storage or Shipment.

    • C.

      Section IV, Operating Instructions.

    • D.

      Section V, Periodic Inspection, maintenance and lubrication.

    Correct Answer
    B. Section III, Preparation for Use, Storage or Shipment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Section III, Preparation for Use, Storage or Shipment. This section of the operations and service instructions technical order (TO) would provide instructions on how to safely and properly restore a piece of equipment to operation after it has been in storage. It would include guidelines on any necessary preparations, inspections, and maintenance procedures that need to be done before using the equipment again.

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  • 23. 

    (007) Which section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) contains an explanation of thecoding used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Section I, Introduction.

    • B.

      Section II, Repair parts list.

    • C.

      Section III, Reference designator index.

    • D.

      Section IV, National stock number and reference number index.

    Correct Answer
    A. Section I, Introduction.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Section I, Introduction. This section of the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) typically contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. It provides information on how to interpret the various symbols, abbreviations, and codes used throughout the IPB, ensuring that users can understand and navigate the document effectively.

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  • 24. 

    (007) You need to find the part number for an item prior to ordering it from supply. You’veobtained the appropriate illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) manual for the end-item. Whichsection of the IPB should you use to find the major assembly to which the desired item belongs?

    • A.

      Table of contents.

    • B.

      Reference designator index.

    • C.

      Appropriate figure/illustration.

    • D.

      National stock number and reference number index.

    Correct Answer
    A. Table of contents.
    Explanation
    The table of contents in the illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) manual provides a comprehensive list of all the sections and major assemblies included in the manual. By referring to the table of contents, you can easily locate the section that corresponds to the desired item. This section will contain detailed information about the major assembly to which the item belongs, allowing you to find the part number for ordering it from supply.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued to correct unsafe conditions that,if not corrected, could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Urgent action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is immediate action. Immediate action time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are issued to address unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause serious or fatal injury to personnel if not corrected promptly. These TCTOs require urgent attention and immediate implementation to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any potential harm.

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  • 26. 

    (008) Which type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is often accomplished bycontractors, modification centers, or specific Air Force activities higher thanorganizational\intermediate-level maintenance due to the complexity involved?

    • A.

      Abbreviated TCTO.

    • B.

      Inspection TCTO.

    • C.

      Record TCTO.

    • D.

      Interim TCTO.

    Correct Answer
    C. Record TCTO.
    Explanation
    Record TCTOs are often accomplished by contractors, modification centers, or specific Air Force activities higher than organizational/intermediate-level maintenance due to the complexity involved. This type of TCTO typically involves extensive modifications or changes to the aircraft or equipment, and therefore requires specialized expertise and resources that may not be available at lower maintenance levels. The purpose of a Record TCTO is to document and track the changes made to the aircraft or equipment for future reference and maintenance.

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  • 27. 

    (009) The main advantage of using abbreviated technical orders (TO) is they

    • A.

      Cover safety in more detail.

    • B.

      Serve as supplemental material.

    • C.

      Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic TOs.

    • D.

      Organize and simplify instructions in a condensed version.

    Correct Answer
    D. Organize and simplify instructions in a condensed version.
    Explanation
    Abbreviated technical orders (TO) are advantageous because they organize and simplify instructions in a condensed version. This means that the information is presented in a concise and easy-to-understand manner, making it more accessible and user-friendly. By condensing the instructions, the TO allows for quicker reference and implementation, saving time and effort. Additionally, the organization of the instructions makes it easier to locate specific information and follow the necessary steps. Therefore, the main advantage of using abbreviated TOs is that they simplify and streamline the instructions, making them more efficient and effective.

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  • 28. 

    (009) Which abbreviated technical order (TO) provides guidance for checking the generalserviceability of a piece of equipment including applicable safety warnings, cautions, and notes?

    • A.

      Lubrication charts.

    • B.

      Illustrated parts breakdown.

    • C.

      Service inspection workcards.

    • D.

      Periodic inspection workcards.

    Correct Answer
    C. Service inspection workcards.
    Explanation
    Service inspection workcards provide guidance for checking the general serviceability of a piece of equipment, including applicable safety warnings, cautions, and notes. These workcards outline the specific steps and procedures to be followed during the inspection process, ensuring that all necessary checks are completed and any potential issues are identified. Lubrication charts provide information about the lubrication requirements of equipment, illustrated parts breakdowns provide a visual representation of the parts and components of equipment, and periodic inspection workcards outline the procedures for conducting regular inspections at specific intervals.

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  • 29. 

    (010) An example of a technical order (TO) deficiency is

    • A.

      Improper sequencing of pages.

    • B.

      Insufficient information.

    • C.

      Typographical errors.

    • D.

      Misspelled words.

    Correct Answer
    B. Insufficient information.
    Explanation
    A technical order (TO) deficiency refers to a flaw or error in a technical order document. In this case, the correct answer is "insufficient information." This means that the technical order does not provide enough details or instructions, which can hinder the user's ability to understand and carry out a task effectively. It is important for a technical order to be comprehensive and provide all the necessary information to ensure proper execution.

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  • 30. 

    (010) Which form should you submit to correct a technical order (TO) deficiency?

    • A.

      AF Form 1000, Idea Application.

    • B.

      AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.
    Explanation
    The correct form to submit to correct a technical order (TO) deficiency is AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply. This form is used to recommend changes to the technical manual and to provide feedback on previous recommendations. It allows individuals to identify deficiencies in the TO and propose necessary changes or updates to improve the manual's accuracy and effectiveness. By using this form, the appropriate personnel can address and correct any technical order deficiencies in a systematic and organized manner.

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  • 31. 

    (011) What are the two general classes of Air Force publications?

    • A.

      Supplements and instructions.

    • B.

      Instructions and manuals.

    • C.

      Pamphlets and manuals.

    • D.

      Departmental and field.

    Correct Answer
    D. Departmental and field.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is departmental and field. Departmental publications are issued by the Air Force headquarters or major commands and provide guidance on policies, procedures, and organizational structure. Field publications are issued by lower-level units and provide guidance on specific tasks and operations. This classification helps to ensure that information is disseminated in a structured and organized manner throughout the Air Force.

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  • 32. 

    (011) Which type of standard publication is used by lower headquarters to implement, amplify,interpret, or clarify a higher level publication?

    • A.

      Supplements.

    • B.

      Visual aids.

    • C.

      Bulletins.

    • D.

      Manuals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supplements.
    Explanation
    Supplements are a type of standard publication used by lower headquarters to implement, amplify, interpret, or clarify a higher level publication. These supplements provide additional information or instructions that are specific to the lower headquarters and help in the effective implementation of the higher level publication. They serve as a supporting document and ensure that the policies and procedures outlined in the higher level publication are properly understood and followed at the lower level.

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  • 33. 

    (012) Which Air Force instruction (AFI) discusses the process of assigning publication numbersto broach topical areas?

    • A.

      AFI 33–36, Forms Management.

    • B.

      AFI 33–360, Publications and Forms Management.

    • C.

      AFI 36–2604, Publication Numbers.

    • D.

      AFI 36–2903, Personnel Listings.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 33–360, Publications and Forms Management.
    Explanation
    AFI 33–360, Publications and Forms Management, is the correct answer because it specifically discusses the process of assigning publication numbers to broach topical areas. This instruction provides guidance on the management and control of Air Force publications and forms, including the assignment of publication numbers to ensure proper organization and categorization of topics. AFI 33–36, Forms Management, may be related to the overall management of forms but does not specifically address publication numbers. AFI 36–2604, Publication Numbers, and AFI 36–2903, Personnel Listings, are unrelated to the topic of assigning publication numbers.

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  • 34. 

    (012) The first number of a standard Air Force publication number is referred to as the “series”and represents the

    • A.

      Broad area covered.

    • B.

      Specific area covered.

    • C.

      Title of the publication.

    • D.

      Specific military personnel affected.

    Correct Answer
    A. Broad area covered.
    Explanation
    The first number of a standard Air Force publication number is referred to as the "series" and represents the broad area covered. This means that the first number indicates the general subject or topic of the publication. It helps to categorize and organize the publications based on their content. The series number gives a broad overview of the subject matter, allowing users to quickly identify the general area of interest without going into specific details.

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  • 35. 

    (012) Where do you access standard Air Force publications?

    • A.

      List of applicable publications (LOAP).

    • B.

      Base-level functional publication library.

    • C.

      The Air Force Website www.e-publishing.af.mil.

    • D.

      AFI 33–360, Publications and Forms Management.

    Correct Answer
    C. The Air Force Website www.e-publishing.af.mil.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Air Force Website www.e-publishing.af.mil. This is where standard Air Force publications can be accessed. The website serves as a centralized platform for accessing and managing publications and forms related to the Air Force. It provides a comprehensive collection of official publications, including the List of Applicable Publications (LOAP) and AFI 33–360, which outlines the guidelines for publications and forms management in the Air Force.

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  • 36. 

    (013) What is the primary focus of the entire maintenance process?

    • A.

      Corrective rather than preventive.

    • B.

      Corrective rather than conducive.

    • C.

      Preventive rather than corrective.

    • D.

      Preventive rather than inductive.

    Correct Answer
    C. Preventive rather than corrective.
    Explanation
    The primary focus of the entire maintenance process is on preventive measures rather than corrective actions. This means that the main goal is to prevent equipment or system failures from occurring in the first place, rather than waiting for something to break and then fixing it. Preventive maintenance involves regularly scheduled inspections, maintenance, and repairs to ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and to prevent any potential issues from arising. This approach helps to minimize downtime, increase efficiency, and extend the lifespan of equipment.

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  • 37. 

    (013) What impact is made on the maintenance organization by ensuring availability of adequateparts, equipment, and training?

    • A.

      Increasing bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.

    • B.

      Increasing bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.

    • C.

      Eliminating bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.

    • D.

      Eliminating bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.

    Correct Answer
    C. Eliminating bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.
    Explanation
    Ensuring availability of adequate parts, equipment, and training helps in eliminating bottlenecks in the maintenance organization. This means that there will be no delays or obstacles in the maintenance process, leading to smoother operations. Additionally, it also helps in minimizing repair cycle time, as all the necessary resources are readily available. This ensures that repairs can be carried out quickly and efficiently, reducing downtime and improving overall productivity.

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  • 38. 

    (014) Organizational maintenance consists of

    • A.

      On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location.

    • B.

      On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of a supporting command or intermediate repair facility.

    • C.

      Off-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location or intermediate repair facility.

    • D.

      Off- or on-equipment tasks that require highly specialized skills, sophisticated shop equipment, and/or special facilities of a supporting command.

    Correct Answer
    A. On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "on-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location." This means that organizational maintenance refers to tasks that are performed on the equipment using the resources available at the operating command's location. These tasks are typically carried out by the personnel and equipment of the operating command rather than a supporting command or intermediate repair facility.

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  • 39. 

    (014) Which maintenance levels are considered together as “field maintenance?”

    • A.

      Centralized and depot.

    • B.

      Depot and provisional.

    • C.

      Provisional and centralized.

    • D.

      Organizational and intermediate.

    Correct Answer
    D. Organizational and intermediate.
    Explanation
    The maintenance levels that are considered together as "field maintenance" are organizational and intermediate. Field maintenance refers to the maintenance activities that are performed closer to the operational units or in the field. Organizational maintenance is carried out by the unit itself, while intermediate maintenance is performed by specialized units that provide support to multiple operational units. These two levels work together to ensure that maintenance tasks are completed efficiently and effectively in the field.

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  • 40. 

    (015) The main purpose of the inspection system is to

    • A.

      Get ahead on unscheduled maintenance.

    • B.

      Keep the mechanic working on minor problems.

    • C.

      Ensure equipment continues operating and looks good.

    • D.

      Locate problems and repair faulty equipment before total failure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Locate problems and repair faulty equipment before total failure.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of the inspection system is to locate problems and repair faulty equipment before total failure. This is important because identifying and addressing issues early on can prevent more serious damage or breakdowns, saving time and money in the long run. By regularly inspecting equipment, potential problems can be identified and fixed in a timely manner, ensuring that the equipment remains in good working condition and minimizing any disruptions to operations.

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  • 41. 

    (015) What type of inspection consists of two phases (Phase 1 and Phase 2)?

    • A.

      Service.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Periodic.

    • D.

      Acceptance.

    Correct Answer
    C. Periodic.
    Explanation
    Periodic inspection consists of two phases, Phase 1 and Phase 2. This type of inspection is conducted at regular intervals to ensure that a service or system is functioning properly and meets the required standards. Phase 1 involves a thorough examination and evaluation of the service or system, while Phase 2 focuses on any necessary corrective actions or maintenance. This two-phase approach allows for a comprehensive assessment and ensures that any issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 42. 

    (015) Which inspection may be either scheduled or unscheduled?

    • A.

      Service.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Periodic.

    • D.

      Operator.

    Correct Answer
    B. Special.
    Explanation
    The inspection that may be either scheduled or unscheduled is a special inspection. This type of inspection is typically conducted in response to a specific event or condition and is not part of the regular routine inspections. It is often done to address a particular concern or to verify compliance with specific regulations or standards. The timing of a special inspection can vary depending on the circumstances and may be planned in advance or conducted on short notice.

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  • 43. 

    (016) Nuclear certified equipment (NCE) is any equipment used for

    • A.

      Air transport.

    • B.

      Manufacturing munitions used in war time.

    • C.

      Handling, storage, shipping or ground transport of non-nuclear weapons.

    • D.

      Handling, storage, shipping or ground transportation of nuclear weapons.

    Correct Answer
    D. Handling, storage, shipping or ground transportation of nuclear weapons.
    Explanation
    Nuclear certified equipment (NCE) refers to equipment that is specifically designed and approved for the handling, storage, shipping, or ground transportation of nuclear weapons. This means that the equipment has undergone rigorous testing and meets the necessary safety and security standards to ensure the proper handling and transportation of these highly sensitive and dangerous weapons. The other options, such as air transport, manufacturing munitions, or handling non-nuclear weapons, are not applicable to NCE.

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  • 44. 

    (016) Who is responsible for making positive identification of all unit nuclear certified equipment(NCE)?

    • A.

      Every squadron member.

    • B.

      NCE commandant.

    • C.

      Unit commander.

    • D.

      NCE monitor.

    Correct Answer
    D. NCE monitor.
    Explanation
    The NCE monitor is responsible for making positive identification of all unit nuclear certified equipment. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that all equipment used by the squadron is properly certified and meets the necessary nuclear safety standards. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and security of nuclear equipment within the unit.

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  • 45. 

    (016) Although decertification of nuclear certified equipment (NCE) can be recommended by anyAir Force agency to another agency, which agency can formally decertify the equipment?

    • A.

      AFSC/SEW.

    • B.

      AFSC/AMU.

    • C.

      AETC/TRR.

    • D.

      AMC/A3A4.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFSC/SEW.
    Explanation
    AFSC/SEW is the agency that can formally decertify nuclear certified equipment (NCE). While any Air Force agency can recommend decertification to another agency, AFSC/SEW has the authority to make the final decision and formally decertify the equipment. The other agencies listed, AFSC/AMU, AETC/TRR, and AMC/A3A4, do not have the authority to formally decertify NCE.

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  • 46. 

    (017) When new nuclear certified equipment (NCE) items are added, they are consideredserviceable

    • A.

      Upon obtaining Higher Headquarter approval.

    • B.

      Once all technical order requirements are met.

    • C.

      Upon obtaining Wing commander approval.

    • D.

      Once all items are accounted for.

    Correct Answer
    B. Once all technical order requirements are met.
    Explanation
    When new nuclear certified equipment (NCE) items are added, they are considered serviceable once all technical order requirements are met. This means that the equipment must meet all the specifications and guidelines outlined in the technical order before it can be deemed serviceable. This ensures that the equipment is safe and ready to be used effectively. Higher Headquarter approval, Wing commander approval, and accounting for all items may be necessary steps in the process, but the primary factor in determining the serviceability of the equipment is meeting the technical order requirements.

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  • 47. 

    (018) What is the purpose of the Dull Sword program?

    • A.

      Identify possible trends to prevent incidents.

    • B.

      Certify Nuclear Certified Equipment (NCE).

    • C.

      Approve modifications to NCE.

    • D.

      Update weapons status.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify possible trends to prevent incidents.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Dull Sword program is to identify possible trends to prevent incidents. This suggests that the program is designed to analyze data and patterns in order to identify potential issues or risks that could lead to incidents. By recognizing these trends, the program can help to implement preventive measures and strategies to mitigate or avoid such incidents in the future.

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  • 48. 

    (019) Which symbol indicates an operational check is overdue?

    • A.

      Red X.

    • B.

      Red dash.

    • C.

      Red diagonal.

    • D.

      Circled red X.

    Correct Answer
    B. Red dash.
    Explanation
    The red dash symbol indicates that an operational check is overdue. This symbol is used to visually represent a task or check that should have been completed but has not been done within the required timeframe. Unlike the red X, which indicates a discrepancy or failure, the red dash specifically signifies that an operational check is overdue. The circled red X is typically used to indicate a task or check that has been completed and found to be unsatisfactory.

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  • 49. 

    (019) If you discover that a scheduled inspection goes overdue two inspection cycles, whatmaintenance symbol should you then enter on the forms?

    • A.

      Circled red X.

    • B.

      Red diagonal.

    • C.

      Red dash.

    • D.

      Red X.

    Correct Answer
    D. Red X.
    Explanation
    If a scheduled inspection goes overdue two inspection cycles, the maintenance symbol that should be entered on the forms is a red X. This symbol indicates that the inspection was not completed as scheduled.

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  • 50. 

    (020) Which inspection is recorded in Part II, Non-scheduled Inspection, of the Air ForceTechnical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record?

    • A.

      Operator.

    • B.

      Periodic.

    • C.

      Service.

    • D.

      Special.

    Correct Answer
    C. Service.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Service." The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, records non-scheduled inspections in Part II. These inspections are typically performed for maintenance or repair purposes, and they are categorized as "service" inspections.

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