2A652 Volume 1 CDC Pretest

87 Questions | Total Attempts: 1671

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2a652 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The effect of noise depends on the
    • A. 

      Deflection, frequency, and volume

    • B. 

      Frequency, volume, and duration of exposure

    • C. 

      Deflection, volume, and duration of exposure

    • D. 

      Deflection, frequency, and duration of exposure

  • 2. 
    Before removing a component from and air compressor for safety you must ensure
    • A. 

      The air compressor is grounded

    • B. 

      The air strainer is in place

    • C. 

      The battery is disconnected

    • D. 

      All air pressure is drained

  • 3. 
    The size of screwdriver is determined by the shank
    • A. 

      Length

    • B. 

      Weight

    • C. 

      Temper

    • D. 

      Width

  • 4. 
    Which type of screwdriver is used in tight places where there isn't enough room to use a standard screwdriver?
    • A. 

      Cross-point

    • B. 

      Flat-blade

    • C. 

      Phillips

    • D. 

      Offset

  • 5. 
    Pliers are properly used to
    • A. 

      Loosen a nut

    • B. 

      Hold material

    • C. 

      Replace a wrench

    • D. 

      Hammer a cotter pin

  • 6. 
    Which pliers have a locking device to hold materials securely?
    • A. 

      Dikes

    • B. 

      Vice grip

    • C. 

      Snap ring

    • D. 

      Water pump

  • 7. 
    Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut
    • A. 

      Bolts

    • B. 

      Rivets

    • C. 

      Small wire

    • D. 

      Hard steel

  • 8. 
    If you must push a wrench rather than pull it, how should you do it?
    • A. 

      Grasp the handle near the socket

    • B. 

      Grip the wrench tightly near the center

    • C. 

      Grip the wrench tightly with both hands

    • D. 

      Use the base of your palm and hold your hand open

  • 9. 
    An adjustable wrench is used best by
    • A. 

      Pulling toward the adjustable jaw and using an extension

    • B. 

      Tightening the jaws around the nut and using an extension

    • C. 

      Pulling toward the adjustable jaw and tightening the jaws around the nut

    • D. 

      Pulling toward the stationary jaw and tightening the jaws around the nut

  • 10. 
    The size of a flat, cold chisel is determined by the
    • A. 

      Length of the cutting edge

    • B. 

      Width of the cutting edge

    • C. 

      Length of the handle

    • D. 

      Length of the chisel

  • 11. 
    Before operating the pnewmatic impact wrench you must
    • A. 

      Inspect it

    • B. 

      Lubricate it

    • C. 

      Blow out the airhose

    • D. 

      Ensure that its use is necessary

  • 12. 
    Which part of the torque wrench scale is normally not used?
    • A. 

      Lower 10%

    • B. 

      Lower 20%

    • C. 

      Upper 20%

    • D. 

      Upper 10%

  • 13. 
    Replacement hardware decisions are based on
    • A. 

      Supervisor's preference

    • B. 

      Serviceability criteria

    • C. 

      Availability

    • D. 

      Cost

  • 14. 
    What portion of the bolt identifies the type and material of the bold?
    • A. 

      Nut

    • B. 

      Grip

    • C. 

      Head

    • D. 

      Shank

  • 15. 
    What type of bolt is typically used to connect accessories to an engine?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Fine thread bolt

    • C. 

      Coarse thread bolt

    • D. 

      General purpose bolt

  • 16. 
    The primary function of a nut is to
    • A. 

      Prevent vibration

    • B. 

      Provide an adjustment mechanism

    • C. 

      Provide an auxiliary locking or safety device

    • D. 

      Trasmit the full design load to the adjoined members

  • 17. 
    What type of nut should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees Farhrenheit?
    • A. 

      Self-locking nut

    • B. 

      Castellated nut

    • C. 

      Metallic nut

    • D. 

      Plain nuts

  • 18. 
    What type of washer is used to shim?
    • A. 

      Spieral lock washers

    • B. 

      Plain washers

    • C. 

      Crush washers

    • D. 

      Lock washers

  • 19. 
    What type of screw has the same shear strength as an equivalent size bolt?
    • A. 

      Setscrews

    • B. 

      Machine screws

    • C. 

      Structural screws

    • D. 

      Self-tapping screws

  • 20. 
    What color code is given to pre-insulated terminals that can be used to terminate wire sizes 18 through 22?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 21. 
    What does the "-4" identify in fitting part numbers MS20822-4D?
    • A. 

      Military specification

    • B. 

      Type of fitting

    • C. 

      Air Force/Navy

    • D. 

      Fitting size

  • 22. 
    Which types of fitting are designed for pressure systems below 3000 psi?
    • A. 

      Flared fittings

    • B. 

      Standard fittings

    • C. 

      Flareless fittings

    • D. 

      Precision-type flared fittings

  • 23. 
    What is the most commonly used type of tubing in AGE applications?
    • A. 

      Pipe

    • B. 

      Copper

    • C. 

      Pressure

    • D. 

      Mechanical

  • 24. 
    The primary cause of foreign object damage (FOD) is
    • A. 

      Aircraft

    • B. 

      Nature

    • C. 

      People

    • D. 

      AGE

  • 25. 
    What type of index is used to order TO?
    • A. 

      TO catalog

    • B. 

      Alphabetical index

    • C. 

      Cross-reference table

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications

  • 26. 
    What type of indes lists TO for only one item of equipment?
    • A. 

      TO index

    • B. 

      Alphabetical index

    • C. 

      Cross-reference table

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications

  • 27. 
    Which TO gives information of preparing equipment for shipment?
    • A. 

      Factory manuals

    • B. 

      -3 technical manuals

    • C. 

      -4 technical manuals

    • D. 

      -1 technical manuals

  • 28. 
    Which section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Section I, Introduction

    • B. 

      Section III, Numerical index

    • C. 

      Section II, Group assembly parts list

    • D. 

      Section IV, Reference designation index

  • 29. 
    Which TCTO are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Immediate

  • 30. 
    Which TCTO has circled red X's with alternately spaced red diagonals bordering the first page?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Safety

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Immediate

  • 31. 
    Which of these covers the concept and management of the USAF TO systems?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-15

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-2

  • 32. 
    Which Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) series contains miscellaneous information such as static grounding?
    • A. 

      00-5 series

    • B. 

      00-20 series

    • C. 

      00-25 series

    • D. 

      00-35 series

  • 33. 
    Periodic inspection workcards are divided into three sections that cover the requirements for
    • A. 

      Periodic inspection, lubrication, and special inspection

    • B. 

      Periodic inspection, special inspection, and safety

    • C. 

      Periodic inspection, lubrication, and safety

    • D. 

      Special inspection, lubrication, and safety

  • 34. 
    Which type of TO is normally used only to maintain test or early production model equipment?
    • A. 

      Prototype

    • B. 

      Automation

    • C. 

      Preliminary

    • D. 

      Abbreviated

  • 35. 
    When selecting a TO, the first part of the number identifies the
    • A. 

      Selectionalization of the TO

    • B. 

      Type of equipment in the TO

    • C. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 36. 
    When selecting a TO, the second part of the number identifies the
    • A. 

      Category number of the TO

    • B. 

      Selectionalization of the TO

    • C. 

      Type of instructions in the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 37. 
    When selecting a TO, the last part of the TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Category number of the TO

    • B. 

      Selectionalization of the TO

    • C. 

      Type of instructions of the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 38. 
    An example of a TO deficiency is
    • A. 

      Insufficient information

    • B. 

      Improper page sequences

    • C. 

      Typographical errors

    • D. 

      Misspelled words

  • 39. 
    In addition to Air Force Material Command (AFMC), who approves the AFTO Form 22?
    • A. 

      Supervisor and QA

    • B. 

      Supervisor and the DCM

    • C. 

      QA and AFSC

    • D. 

      QA and the DCM

  • 40. 
    What are the two classses of Air Force publications?
    • A. 

      Pamphlets and manuals

    • B. 

      Field and depatmental

    • C. 

      Regulations and manuals

    • D. 

      Supplements and regulations

  • 41. 
    Which AFI serves the purpose of identifying basing Air Force subjects and assigned publication numbers?
    • A. 

      AFI 33-36

    • B. 

      AFI 33-360

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2903

    • D. 

      AFI 36-2604

  • 42. 
    The purpose of the first number of the publication number is to represent the
    • A. 

      Basic subject

    • B. 

      Specific area covered

    • C. 

      Specific title of the publication

    • D. 

      Specific military personnel affected

  • 43. 
    What is the primary focus of the entire maintenance process?
    • A. 

      Preventive

    • B. 

      Corrective

    • C. 

      Inductive

    • D. 

      Conducive

  • 44. 
    What type of maintenance is performed in a repair shop on components removed form equipment?
    • A. 

      Off-equipment

    • B. 

      On-equipment

    • C. 

      Preliminary

    • D. 

      Corrective

  • 45. 
    Which maintenance levels are referred to as field maintenance?
    • A. 

      Centralized and depot

    • B. 

      Depot and provisional

    • C. 

      Provisional and centralized

    • D. 

      Organizational and intermediate

  • 46. 
    Which inspection may be either scheduled or unscheduled?
    • A. 

      Service

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Periodic

    • D. 

      Operator's

  • 47. 
    The symbol that represents the most serious maintenance condition is a
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red -

    • C. 

      Red \

    • D. 

      Circled red X

  • 48. 
    Two signatures are required to clear discrepancies that carry the maintenance symbol(s)
    • A. 

      Red X only

    • B. 

      Red - only

    • C. 

      Red X or red \

    • D. 

      Red - or red \

  • 49. 
    Which symbol indicates an operational check is overdue?
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red -

    • C. 

      Red \

    • D. 

      Circled red X

  • 50. 
    Which inspection is recorded in Part II, Non-Scheduled Inspection, of the AFTO Form 244?
    • A. 

      Periodic

    • B. 

      Operator

    • C. 

      Service

    • D. 

      Special

  • 51. 
    Which section of the AFTO From 244 is used to record a forms review?
    • A. 

      Part V, Maintenace/delayed discrepancy

    • B. 

      Part II, Non-scheduled inspection

    • C. 

      Part III, Scheduled inspection

    • D. 

      Part IV, Supervisory review

  • 52. 
    AFTO Form 350 serves as
    • A. 

      A marking and processing tag

    • B. 

      A status and processing label

    • C. 

      An identification and status tag

    • D. 

      An identification and processing tag

  • 53. 
    Part II of the AFTO Form 350 is used
    • A. 

      To accound for the time spent performing maintenance on an item

    • B. 

      To ensure maintenance is performed in a timely manner

    • C. 

      To identify the origin of an item

    • D. 

      As an inventory aid

  • 54. 
    What color is the tag that is normally attached to items recieved from supply?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Brown

    • C. 

      White

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 55. 
    What is the condition of a component bearing a red tag?
    • A. 

      Condemned

    • B. 

      Repairable

    • C. 

      Suspended

    • D. 

      Serviceable

  • 56. 
    A material deficiency exhibit tag can be identified by its
    • A. 

      Brown color

    • B. 

      Green color

    • C. 

      White color

    • D. 

      Yellow color

  • 57. 
    What is the most widely used status tag?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 1574, Serviceable Tag

    • C. 

      AFTO From 350, Reparable Processing Tag

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag

  • 58. 
    What Maintenance Data Documentation (MDD) code identifies the system that was worked?
    • A. 

      Type maintenace code

    • B. 

      Work unit code

    • C. 

      Category labor

    • D. 

      Units

  • 59. 
    When entering Maintenance Data Documentation (MDD) what should be a short but accurate description of the problem?
    • A. 

      How malfunction code

    • B. 

      Action take code

    • C. 

      Corrective action

    • D. 

      Discrepancy

  • 60. 
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) concept of using predefined screes to request input is known as
    • A. 

      Footer bar

    • B. 

      Desired screen

    • C. 

      Screen processing

    • D. 

      Menu processing

  • 61. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen in used to create, add, and schedule events for equipment?
    • A. 

      051

    • B. 

      073

    • C. 

      122

    • D. 

      914

  • 62. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen is used to access all maintenance historical data against a particular JCN?
    • A. 

      122

    • B. 

      129

    • C. 

      907

    • D. 

      914

  • 63. 
    What is "After the fact reporting"?
    • A. 

      Creating the narrative description of SRD codes

    • B. 

      Requesting information on parts via stock number

    • C. 

      Creating the job and immediately entering the corrective action

    • D. 

      Requesting a detailed repair history for a specific piece of equipment

  • 64. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen offers a quick online view of open discrepancies for a workcenter?
    • A. 

      347

    • B. 

      380

    • C. 

      914

    • D. 

      907

  • 65. 
    Which step in utilizing the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) prevents unauthorized access to the database?
    • A. 

      LOGON

    • B. 

      LOGOFF

    • C. 

      Data entry

    • D. 

      Online Processing

  • 66. 
    What Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) inquiry locates information such as quantity and location of a stock number part?
    • A. 

      Part number

    • B. 

      Item record

    • C. 

      Detail record

    • D. 

      Other records

  • 67. 
    What Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) ordering priority is used for red "X" conditions?
    • A. 

      03

    • B. 

      04

    • C. 

      05

    • D. 

      06

  • 68. 
    Which of these is the best example of supply conservation?
    • A. 

      Not keeping commonly used supplies on hand

    • B. 

      Ordering twice the supplies needed to do a job

    • C. 

      Ordering the minimum supplies necessary to do a job

    • D. 

      Replacing all hardware on equipment at every inspection

  • 69. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that property records are kept accurately?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Person who signed for an account

    • D. 

      Person who has possession of the property

  • 70. 
    To be held responsible for property, you must
    • A. 

      Posses it

    • B. 

      Sign for it

    • C. 

      Be a 5 level

    • D. 

      Be a supervisor

  • 71. 
    After depot has repaired an item, they send copies of the AFTO Form 375, Selected Support Equipment Repair Cost Estimate, to whom?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Originating unit

    • C. 

      Inventory manager

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 72. 
    Items for which accountability is dropped from all records when they are issed are considered
    • A. 

      DIFM

    • B. 

      Excess

    • C. 

      Expendable

    • D. 

      Nonexpendable

  • 73. 
    An expected usage level is established for all bench items except
    • A. 

      Repairable items

    • B. 

      Single issue items

    • C. 

      Unit package items

    • D. 

      Special requisition items

  • 74. 
    When bench stock levels fall below 50%, you should
    • A. 

      Post a due-out list

    • B. 

      Place a red tag on the bin

    • C. 

      Notify supply that stock level is low

    • D. 

      Initial the initial supply stock listing

  • 75. 
    The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage of government property cause by misuse or neglect is what kind of liability?
    • A. 

      Poperty

    • B. 

      Personal

    • C. 

      Pecuniary

    • D. 

      Command

  • 76. 
    How can a person be relieved from property responsibility other than by pecuniary liability?
    • A. 

      Turn-in only

    • B. 

      Transfer only

    • C. 

      Turn-in or transfer

    • D. 

      Cash collection voucher or statemnt of charges

  • 77. 
    A statement of charges would be prepared under which of these circumstances?
    • A. 

      If a lost item is not expendable

    • B. 

      If you make a sach payment for a lost item

    • C. 

      If you signed a hand receipt for a lost item

    • D. 

      If you want the cost of a lost item to be taken out of your paycheck

  • 78. 
    After discovery of a deficiency, a Category I Product Quality Deficency Report (PQDR) must be submitted to the screening point within
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      2 calendar days

    • C. 

      5 calendar days

    • D. 

      10 calendar days

  • 79. 
    Preventive maintenance for corrosion includes
    • A. 

      Cleaning, inspecting, and painting

    • B. 

      Cleaning, inspecting, and marking

    • C. 

      Inspecting, marking, and painting

    • D. 

      Cleaning, marking, and painting

  • 80. 
    What marking is applied to AGE to tell of possible personal injury?
    • A. 

      Safety/Danger

    • B. 

      Informational

    • C. 

      Caution/Warning

    • D. 

      Reflectorization

  • 81. 
    What marking is applied to AGE for night safety
    • A. 

      Safety/Danger

    • B. 

      Informational

    • C. 

      Caution/Warning

    • D. 

      Reflectorization

  • 82. 
    Which of these items must be removed from test equipment before storage?
    • A. 

      Wet and Dry cell batteries

    • B. 

      Dry charge batteries

    • C. 

      Battery compartment

    • D. 

      Battery holder

  • 83. 
    When preparing AGE for mobility, what two porblem areas should you watch for?
    • A. 

      Cleanliness and leaks

    • B. 

      AFTO Forms 244s and 95s

    • C. 

      Readiness and responsiveness

    • D. 

      Flight kit inventories and personnel status

  • 84. 
    During a battery condition check, what is a normal voltage reading for a 12-volt battery?
    • A. 

      8-2 volts

    • B. 

      10-12 volts

    • C. 

      12.4 volts or lower

    • D. 

      12.7 volts or higher

  • 85. 
    While you're operating a battery charger, you notice that the ammeter reading was initially high, but has gradually decreased. Is it malfunctioning?
    • A. 

      Yes. The charger is improperly connected

    • B. 

      Yes. Stop charging and troubleshoot

    • C. 

      No. This is a normal condition

    • D. 

      Yes. The voltage is set to high

  • 86. 
    What should you do if your vehicle meets a moving aircraft at night?
    • A. 

      Turn off your headlights and leave your parking lights on

    • B. 

      Dim your headlights and continue on

    • C. 

      Stop and change directions

    • D. 

      Turn all lights off

  • 87. 
    Why should you apply silicone sealant to the valve stem area of a wheel?
    • A. 

      To keep rims from flying apart

    • B. 

      To keep water from entering rims

    • C. 

      As a treatment for weather cracks

    • D. 

      As a treatment for severe corrosion