2A652 (Age Journeyman) Volume 3, Edit Code 6

123 Questions | Total Attempts: 819

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2A652 (Age Journeyman) Volume 3, Edit Code 6

2A652 vol 3 Ed. 6


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (401) To change electrical energy to mechanical energy is the purpose of a
    • A. 

      Generator.

    • B. 

      Converter.

    • C. 

      Inverter.

    • D. 

      Motor.

  • 2. 
    (401) When a motor continues turning after reaching its limit, this is known as
    • A. 

      Inertia.

    • B. 

      Impedance.

    • C. 

      Inductance.

    • D. 

      Eddy currents.

  • 3. 
    (402) Torque is defined as
    • A. 

      Wattage.

    • B. 

      Horsepower.

    • C. 

      Rotational force.

    • D. 

      Opposition to applied voltage.

  • 4. 
    (403) In order to operate, a single-phase induction motor requires
    • A. 

      Brushes.

    • B. 

      Slip rings.

    • C. 

      A commutator.

    • D. 

      A starting system.

  • 5. 
    (403) The difference in the rotor’s speed of rotation and the stator magnetic field is known as
    • A. 

      Differential.

    • B. 

      Torque.

    • C. 

      Slip.

    • D. 

      Drag.

  • 6. 
    (403) Which induction motor has the highest starting torque?
    • A. 

      Capacitive start.

    • B. 

      Squirrel cage.

    • C. 

      Shaded pole.

    • D. 

      Split phase

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Slip.

    • B. 

      A rotor.

    • C. 

      A stator.

    • D. 

      A starting device.

  • 8. 
    (405) The stator windings of a synchronous motor are spaced
    • A. 

      20 degrees apart.

    • B. 

      30 degrees apart.

    • C. 

      90 degrees apart.

    • D. 

      120 degrees apart.

  • 9. 
    (406) During an inspection of a direct current (DC) motor, check the brushes for
    • A. 

      Pitting.

    • B. 

      Seating.

    • C. 

      Coloration.

    • D. 

      Brittleness.

  • 10. 
    (407) The first thing you should do when troubleshooting a motor is perform a
    • A. 

      Voltage check.

    • B. 

      Continuity test.

    • C. 

      Visual inspection.

    • D. 

      Current measurement.

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Resolder them until they have been bench checked.

    • B. 

      Cut them, but remove the wiring completely intact.

    • C. 

      Resolder them until all wiring has been replaced with new wires.

    • D. 

      Cut them unless there is sufficient length remaining for resoldering.

  • 12. 
    (408) Perform an operational check of the unit
    • A. 

      At the last minute.

    • B. 

      With the defective part removed.

    • C. 

      Before final reassembly of the enclosure.

    • D. 

      As soon as you replace the defective part.

  • 13. 
    (409) What controls the amount of fuel injected when constant-stroke fuel injection pumps are used?
    • A. 

      Injectors.

    • B. 

      Control rack.

    • C. 

      Delivery valve.

    • D. 

      Revolving disk.

  • 14. 
    (409) The constant-stroke pump plunger determines the amount of fuel delivered by the position of a
    • A. 

      Bypass port.

    • B. 

      Vertical slot.

    • C. 

      Helical groove.

    • D. 

      Delivery valve.

  • 15. 
    (409) What provides the pressure to operate a pressure injector?
    • A. 

      Fuel from the fuel system.

    • B. 

      Air from the induction system.

    • C. 

      Water from the cooling system.

    • D. 

      Oil from the lubricating system.

  • 16. 
    (409) Aside from idle speed, the limiting speed governor through the use of flyweights and spring tension controls
    • A. 

      Load speed.

    • B. 

      Minimum speed.

    • C. 

      Maximum speed.

    • D. 

      Intermediate speed.

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Dirt and metal particles.

    • B. 

      Heat, wear, and resistance.

    • C. 

      Blow-by and loss of power.

    • D. 

      Dilution and increases cohesion.

  • 18. 
    (410) Which function of a lubricant compensates for microscopic irregularities in the cylinder wall?
    • A. 

      Cooling.

    • B. 

      Sealing.

    • C. 

      Cleaning.

    • D. 

      Reducing friction.

  • 19. 
    (411) What component holds a large amount of coolant in close contact with a large volume of air?
    • A. 

      Radiator cap.

    • B. 

      Thermostat.

    • C. 

      Water pump.

    • D. 

      Radiator.

  • 20. 
    (411) Which liquid cooling system component maintains positive pressure within the cooling system, causes the boiling point of the coolant to be higher, and permits the engine to operate at higher temperature without the coolant boiling?
    • A. 

      Thermostat.

    • B. 

      Water pump.

    • C. 

      Radiator cap.

    • D. 

      Vacuum valve.

  • 21. 
    (411) The purpose of the cooling system thermostat is to maintain correct engine
    • A. 

      Operating temperature.

    • B. 

      Coolant temperature.

    • C. 

      System pressure.

    • D. 

      Coolant flow.

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are not open at the same time.

    • B. 

      Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are open at the same time.

    • C. 

      Advance exhaust valve opening time.

    • D. 

      Retard intake valve opening time.

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Decreased because of the increased internal operating temperature of the engine.

    • B. 

      Increased because of the better mixing of the fuel with the air charge.

    • C. 

      Used more efficiently and horsepower is increased.

    • D. 

      Used more efficiently and horsepower is decreased.

  • 24. 
    (413) The maintenance procedure that is considered to be the cheapest and most effective means of reducing injection equipment problems and maintenance costs is
    • A. 

      Correct defective components only.

    • B. 

      Rigid maintenance schedules.

    • C. 

      Periodic overhaul schedule.

    • D. 

      Preventive maintenance.

  • 25. 
    (413) The filtration step protects the diesel engine fuel system from
    • A. 

      Blockage of airflow.

    • B. 

      Lube system malfunctions.

    • C. 

      Slipping belts on the blower.

    • D. 

      Abrasion by foreign particles.

  • 26. 
    (414) The first thing you should do when operating a diesel engine is to
    • A. 

      Retorque the engine-mount bolts.

    • B. 

      Drain moisture from fuel system.

    • C. 

      Perform a preoperational check.

    • D. 

      Perform a periodic inspection.

  • 27. 
    (415) To locate a misfiring cylinder in the diesel engine, use a screw driver to
    • A. 

      Hold the injector follower up or open.

    • B. 

      Hold the injector follower down or closed.

    • C. 

      Isolate the cylinder from the fuel manifold.

    • D. 

      Remove the valve cover and align the piston ring slots.

  • 28. 
    (416) The component that reduces the turbine engine speed for accessories is the
    • A. 

      Gear case.

    • B. 

      Starter motor.

    • C. 

      Tachometer generator.

    • D. 

      Multiple centrifugal switch assembly.

  • 29. 
    (416) During starting, the turbine engine is rotated up to 20 percent by the
    • A. 

      Alternating current (AC) generator.

    • B. 

      Fuel pump and control unit.

    • C. 

      Tachometer generator.

    • D. 

      Starter motor.

  • 30. 
    (416) If the drive shaft for the oil pump assembly in a gas turbine engine becomes sheared, what other component is rendered inoperative?
    • A. 

      Alternating current (AC) generator.

    • B. 

      Tachometer generator.

    • C. 

      Starter motor.

    • D. 

      Cooling fan.

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Diffusers.

    • B. 

      Exducers.

    • C. 

      Impellers.

    • D. 

      Deswirl ring.

  • 32. 
    (417) The component of the gas turbine engine that causes the air velocity to be reduced, resulting in an increase in pressure, is the
    • A. 

      Nozzle ring.

    • B. 

      Turbine wheel.

    • C. 

      Torus assembly.

    • D. 

      Divergent diffuser.

  • 33. 
    (417) During operation of a turbine engine, fuel and air are mixed and ignited in the
    • A. 

      Fuel atomizer.

    • B. 

      Combustor can.

    • C. 

      Mixer assembly.

    • D. 

      Plenum chamber.

  • 34. 
    (418) The boost pump on the gas turbine engine provides fuel to the
    • A. 

      Fuel atomizer.

    • B. 

      Main fuel pump.

    • C. 

      Combustion chamber.

    • D. 

      Fuel air mixture valve.

  • 35. 
    (418) The two pressure controls in the fuel pump and control unit of the turbine engine are the
    • A. 

      Governor and pneumatic control device.

    • B. 

      Acceleration limiter valve and governor.

    • C. 

      Fuel solenoid valve and pneumatic control device.

    • D. 

      Acceleration limiter valve and fuel solenoid valve.

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Air pressure that is required to overcome fuel pressure.

    • B. 

      Air pressure that is required to overcome spring tension.

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure that is required to overcome spring tension.

    • D. 

      Fuel pressure that is required to overcome air and spring pressure.

  • 37. 
    (418) Which turbine engine fuel system component is normally closed and is energized open when the engine builds up sufficient oil?
    • A. 

      Governor.

    • B. 

      Oil shutoff valve.

    • C. 

      Boost pump valve.

    • D. 

      Fuel shutoff solenoid valve.

  • 38. 
    (418) What types of inputs are used to control the fuel solenoid for the delivery of fuel to the atomizer within the turbine engine fuel system?
    • A. 

      Oil pressure and electrical.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure and cooling.

    • C. 

      Air and electrical.

    • D. 

      Air and cooling.

  • 39. 
    (418) The turbine engine component that prevents fuel from accumulating in the plenum is the
    • A. 

      Atomizer.

    • B. 

      Drain valve.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic control device.

    • D. 

      Acceleration limiter valve.

  • 40. 
    (419) Lubrication system pressure in the turbine engine is regulated through a
    • A. 

      Flow check valve.

    • B. 

      Filter bypass valve.

    • C. 

      Pressure relief valve.

    • D. 

      Temperature regulator.

  • 41. 
    (419) Gas turbine compressor (GTC) operation with insufficient oil pressure is prevented by the
    • A. 

      Oil pressure solenoid.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch.

    • C. 

      Oil drain switch.

    • D. 

      Ignition coil.

  • 42. 
    (420) The load section of the load control valve consists of chambers
    • A. 

      1 and 2.

    • B. 

      1 and 4.

    • C. 

      2 and 3.

    • D. 

      3 and 4.

  • 43. 
    (420) The time required to open the load control valve on the turbine engine is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Mechanical linkage.

    • B. 

      Actuator diaphragm.

    • C. 

      Rate adjustment screw.

    • D. 

      Actuator return spring.

  • 44. 
    (420) If the gas turbine compressor (GTC) load control butterfly valve opens too slowly or too quickly, what is the most probable cause of the malfunction?
    • A. 

      Excessive exhaust gas temperature.

    • B. 

      Maladjusted rate adjustment screw.

    • C. 

      Ruptured actuator diaphragm.

    • D. 

      Defective relief valve.

  • 45. 
    (420) In the turbine engine, what prevents rupture of the rate diaphragm?
    • A. 

      Adjustment screw.

    • B. 

      A actuator regulator.

    • C. 

      Rate metering valve.

    • D. 

      Rate diaphragm return spring.

  • 46. 
    (421) During a preoperational inspection of a gas turbine engine, you check the intake and exhaust for
    • A. 

      Leakage.

    • B. 

      Excess heat.

    • C. 

      Hairline cracks.

    • D. 

      Foreign objects.

  • 47. 
    (422) Normal acceleration characteristics of the gas turbine compressor (GTC) include
    • A. 

      Sudden rumbling noises after 35 percent.

    • B. 

      A decrease in vibration after 35 percent.

    • C. 

      Smooth and quiet acceleration.

    • D. 

      Burping.

  • 48. 
    (423) Common or frequently occurring troubles in a unit, their cause, and remedies may be found in the
    • A. 

      Historical record.

    • B. 

      Maintenance record.

    • C. 

      Troubleshooting chart.

    • D. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown.

  • 49. 
    (424) If no oil pressure is available from the main oil pump assembly on the gas turbine compressor (GTC), what should you replace?
    • A. 

      Oil pump.

    • B. 

      Entire assembly.

    • C. 

      Flow check valve.

    • D. 

      Filter bypass relief valve.

  • 50. 
    (424) Which causes gray or white smoke to pour from the exhaust stack on the gas turbine compressor (GTC)?
    • A. 

      Excessive engine revolutions per minute (rpm).

    • B. 

      Excessive engine exhaust temperature.

    • C. 

      Oil that enters the airflow system.

    • D. 

      Fuel mixing with the airflow.

  • 51. 
    (425) Which could cause the butterfly valve to oscillate (continually open and close)?
    • A. 

      Load valve.

    • B. 

      Hose relief valve.

    • C. 

      Rate adjustment screw.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic load thermostat.

  • 52. 
    (426) Which three things are necessary to produce an electromotive force (EMF) mechanically?
    • A. 

      EMF, relative motion, and magnetic field.

    • B. 

      Magnet, lines of force, and relative motion.

    • C. 

      Magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion.

    • D. 

      Counter-electromotive force (CEMF), a conductor, and magnetic field.

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Resistance of the conductor.

    • C. 

      Strength of the magnetic field.

    • D. 

      Counter-electromotive force (CEMF).

  • 54. 
    (426) The internal current produced by all electromechanical generators is
    • A. 

      Alternating current (AC).

    • B. 

      Direct current (DC).

    • C. 

      Pulsating AC.

    • D. 

      Pulsating DC.

  • 55. 
    (427) A commutator changes alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC)
    • A. 

      Chemically.

    • B. 

      Inductively.

    • C. 

      Magnetically.

    • D. 

      Mechanically.

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      Increased output and almost constant alternating current (AC).

    • B. 

      Increased output and almost constant DC.

    • C. 

      Decreased current and constant AC.

    • D. 

      Decreased current and constant DC.

  • 57. 
    (428) Control of the output voltage of an alternating current (AC) generator is accomplished by varying the
    • A. 

      Speed of rotation.

    • B. 

      Size of the armature.

    • C. 

      Amount of field current.

    • D. 

      Size of the field windings.

  • 58. 
    (429) In a three-phase alternating current (AC) generator, direct current (DC) is applied to the field windings through the brushes and
    • A. 

      Diodes.

    • B. 

      Rectifier.

    • C. 

      Slip rings.

    • D. 

      Commutator.

  • 59. 
    (429) Three different loads can be supported at the same time by a
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC) generator.

    • B. 

      Single-phase generator.

    • C. 

      Two-phase generator.

    • D. 

      Three-phase generator.

  • 60. 
    (429) The self-excited alternating current (AC) generator provides its own field current from a built-in
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC) generator.

    • B. 

      Selenium rectifier.

    • C. 

      Battery source.

    • D. 

      Regulator.

  • 61. 
    (429) In the brushless alternating current (AC) generator, what provides necessary excitation current?
    • A. 

      Main generator.

    • B. 

      Exciter generator.

    • C. 

      Armature windings.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet generator.

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Permanent magnet generator.

    • B. 

      Exciter generator.

    • C. 

      Main generator.

    • D. 

      Battery.

  • 63. 
    (429) In a brushless alternating current (AC) generator, the exciter armature and field windings are coupled by
    • A. 

      Brushes.

    • B. 

      Slip rings.

    • C. 

      A commutator.

    • D. 

      A magnetic field.

  • 64. 
    (429) How does rectification take place in a brushless alternating current (AC) generator?
    • A. 

      Mechanically.

    • B. 

      Magnetically.

    • C. 

      Electrically.

    • D. 

      Chemically.

  • 65. 
    (430) The A/M24T–16 electrical test set is capable of testing
    • A. 

      Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) generator sets only.

    • B. 

      Alternating current (AC) power supplies only.

    • C. 

      Direct current (DC) power supplies only.

    • D. 

      AC and DC power supplies.

  • 66. 
    (430) What provides power for operating the load bank control circuits?
    • A. 

      Unit under test (UUT).

    • B. 

      Load bank generators.

    • C. 

      External batteries.

    • D. 

      Facility power.

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      DO Isolation and Power Tap Selection Board (E4754A).

    • B. 

      Analog Signal Conditioning Board (E414A).

    • C. 

      Micro-Controller Board (E416A).

    • D. 

      Signal Junction Board (E434A).

  • 68. 
    (431) How many panel assemblies are the electrical and unit under test (UUT) interconnection panel assemblies divided into?
    • A. 

      Seven.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Five.

    • D. 

      Six.

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      The load is automatically removed and the cooling cycle begins.

    • B. 

      The load bank will start the load test over again.

    • C. 

      The load bank will automatically shuts down.

    • D. 

      The display will show results of the load test.

  • 70. 
    (433) The A/M24T–16 load bank equipped is equipped with how many diagnostic features?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 71. 
    (433) When would you perform current or voltage calibrations on the A/M24T–16 load bank?
    • A. 

      Never, the load bank automatically performs calibrations.

    • B. 

      When input values are outside acceptable tolerances.

    • C. 

      Prior to placing the load on test unit.

    • D. 

      After load test is complete.

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Cooling fans blowing into prevailing wind.

    • B. 

      Cooling fans blowing not into prevailing wind.

    • C. 

      Load bank close to generator to eliminate line drop.

    • D. 

      Load bank as far as possible from generator for cooling.

  • 73. 
    (435) The resistive elements on the A/M24T–8 test set are best cleaned by
    • A. 

      Blowing off with 5 pounds per square inch (psi) uncontaminated air.

    • B. 

      Blowing off with 15 psi uncontaminated air.

    • C. 

      Scrubbing with soap and water.

    • D. 

      Steam cleaning.

  • 74. 
    (437) What component charges the batteries on the A/M32A–60A generator set?
    • A. 

      Alternating current (AC) generator.

    • B. 

      Direct current (DC) zenor diode.

    • C. 

      AC-powered battery charger.

    • D. 

      Transformer rectifier.

  • 75. 
    (437) To use the fuel from all of its tanks, the A/M32A–60A has a
    • A. 

      Fuel gravity system.

    • B. 

      Fuel transfer system.

    • C. 

      Low fuel level safety circuit.

    • D. 

      Manually operated switch to change tanks.

  • 76. 
    (437) What is used as a reference for controlling A/M32A–60A engine speed?
    • A. 

      Fuel pressure.

    • B. 

      Control air pressure.

    • C. 

      Governor flyweight pressure.

    • D. 

      Alternating current (AC) generator output frequency.

  • 77. 
    (437) If the oil pressure switch opens during operation of A/M32A–60A, during which period does it stop operation?
    • A. 

      From 0 to 35 percent.

    • B. 

      From 35 to 95 percent.

    • C. 

      From 95 to 100 percent.

    • D. 

      Anytime during operation.

  • 78. 
    (437) On the A/M32A–60A, which chambers of the load control valve work together to ensure the butterfly valve opens smoothly?
    • A. 

      1 and 2.

    • B. 

      2 and 3.

    • C. 

      1 and 3.

    • D. 

      2 and 4.

  • 79. 
    (437) On the A/M32A–60A, the speed at which the butterfly valve opens is determined by
    • A. 

      Chamber 2 pressure.

    • B. 

      Chamber 4 pressure.

    • C. 

      The rate adjustment screw.

    • D. 

      The dual-ball selector valve.

  • 80. 
    (438) The control components of the turbine start circuit on the A/M32A–60A are energized by the
    • A. 

      Start switch, S7.

    • B. 

      Starter relay, K8.

    • C. 

      Master switch, S5.

    • D. 

      Control relay, K17.

  • 81. 
    (438) On the A/M32A–60A generator, the starter motor relay is de-energized when the
    • A. 

      Start switch opens.

    • B. 

      Start switch closes.

    • C. 

      35 percent switch opens.

    • D. 

      35 percent switch closes.

  • 82. 
    (438) In the event of an overspeed condition, what component of the A/M32A–60A generator electrical system stops the engine?
    • A. 

      Overspeed actuator.

    • B. 

      Fuel shutoff switch.

    • C. 

      35 percent centrifugal switch.

    • D. 

      110 percent centrifugal switch.

  • 83. 
    (438) The A/M32A–60A generator set cannot be loaded either electrically or pneumatically until after the
    • A. 

      35 percent switch has closed.

    • B. 

      95 percent switch has closed.

    • C. 

      110 percent switch has opened.

    • D. 

      BLEED AIR ON switch is closed.

  • 84. 
    (438) What component of the A/M32A–60A generator must be energized to begin movement of the dual-ball selector valve?
    • A. 

      Bleed air switch, S10.

    • B. 

      95 percent switch, S14.

    • C. 

      Bleed air solenoid valve, L2.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic control device, L5.

  • 85. 
    (438) The component of the A/M32A–60A that opens and closes the fuel transfer line is the fuel
    • A. 

      Level switch, S20.

    • B. 

      Solenoid valve, L1.

    • C. 

      Level control relay, K26.

    • D. 

      Level solenoid valve, L4.

  • 86. 
    (438) The component of the A/M32A–60A that stops the engine when the fuel supply gets low is the fuel
    • A. 

      Level relay, K4.

    • B. 

      Level switch, S20.

    • C. 

      Level control relay, K26.

    • D. 

      Low-level lockout switch, S18.

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Turning the start switch OFF, then ON.

    • B. 

      Turning the master switch OFF, then ON.

    • C. 

      De-energizing the low-level lockout relay.

    • D. 

      De-energizing the low-level warning switch.

  • 88. 
    (439) On the A/M32A–60A, the short-circuit relay
    • A. 

      Connects the batteries together.

    • B. 

      Protects the exciter field circuit.

    • C. 

      Allows two generators to be paralleled.

    • D. 

      Allows for quick warm-up of the batteries.

  • 89. 
    (439) The static frequency control of the A/M32A–60A controls engine speed by sensing
    • A. 

      A phase frequency.

    • B. 

      C phase frequency.

    • C. 

      E and F pin frequency.

    • D. 

      Trim control motor frequency.

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Check operation of frequency meter network unit (MT2).

    • B. 

      Replace both the meter M2 and MT2 unit as a set.

    • C. 

      Deadline the equipment until the cause is found.

    • D. 

      Repair or replace the frequency motor.

  • 91. 
    (439) To complete the exciter field circuit of the A/M32A–60A generator, the operator must
    • A. 

      Reset the alternating current (AC) contactor switch.

    • B. 

      Depress the AC contactor “closed” indicator.

    • C. 

      Reset the output field circuit.

    • D. 

      Open the load control relay.

  • 92. 
    (439) How is the A/M32A–60A generator output provided to the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Alternating current (AC) output cable.

    • B. 

      Direct current (DC) output cable.

    • C. 

      Single-phase utility outlet.

    • D. 

      3-phase utility outlet.

  • 93. 
    (439) When is 28 volts direct current (VDC) applied to the E pin of the alternating current (AC) cable?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      At all times.

    • C. 

      When the AC cable switch is in the GEN position.

    • D. 

      When the AC cable switch is in the ACFT position.

  • 94. 
    (440) To charge the batteries of the A/M32A–60A generator set, the operator must
    • A. 

      Reset the alternating current (AC) system.

    • B. 

      Reset the direct current (DC) system.

    • C. 

      Connect an external source.

    • D. 

      Turn on the battery charger.

  • 95. 
    (440) On the A/M32A–60A generator, what stops battery charging when the batteries are fully charged and prevents discharge when the unit is shut down?
    • A. 

      Battery charging resistor.

    • B. 

      Battery charging diode.

    • C. 

      Voltage regulator.

    • D. 

      Charging shunt.

  • 96. 
    (441) How often are service inspections required?
    • A. 

      After equipment is placed on the ready line.

    • B. 

      After maintenance.

    • C. 

      Once a week.

    • D. 

      Once a day.

  • 97. 
    (442) Before the A/M32A–60A generator set is started, the operator must perform
    • A. 

      Only minor repairs.

    • B. 

      Any needed repairs.

    • C. 

      A periodic inspection.

    • D. 

      An operation inspection.

  • 98. 
    (442) The health hazards associated with the gas turbine generator set include
    • A. 

      Its operating 5 times faster than a car engine.

    • B. 

      Noise, intense heat, and electrical shock.

    • C. 

      Excessive carbon monoxide buildup.

    • D. 

      Turbine wheel disintegration.

  • 99. 
    (443) When troubleshooting, the actual location of a terminal connection on the unit can best be found by using
    • A. 

      The wiring diagram.

    • B. 

      Your past experience.

    • C. 

      The schematic diagram.

    • D. 

      The reference designation.

  • 100. 
    (443) To find out where a wire is connected, you should consult the
    • A. 

      Flow chart.

    • B. 

      Wiring diagram.

    • C. 

      Schematic diagram.

    • D. 

      Reference designation list.

  • 101. 
    (444) What component of the A/M32A–86D deactivates the time delay switch, S55?
    • A. 

      Oil pressure switch, S46.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch, S53.

    • C. 

      Fuel oil pressure switch, S48.

    • D. 

      Engine high temperature switch, S49.

  • 102. 
    (444) To stop the A/M32A–86D engine, the engine stop control
    • A. 

      Opens the magneto circuit.

    • B. 

      Energizes the shutdown solenoid.

    • C. 

      De-energizes the engine run/idle circuit.

    • D. 

      Puts the fuel rack in the NO-FUEL position.

  • 103. 
    (444) When the "flag" of the air service indicator is locked into the top of the viewing chamber, what does this mean?
    • A. 

      Pressure sufficient for bleed operations.

    • B. 

      Air filter sufficient for operations.

    • C. 

      Pressure sufficient for operations.

    • D. 

      Air filter needs to be changed.

  • 104. 
    (445) What type of current transformers are T4, T5, and T6 on the A/M32A–86D generator set?
    • A. 

      Generator overload.

    • B. 

      Generator field.

    • C. 

      Line drop.

    • D. 

      Ammeter.

  • 105. 
    (445) In what position must the A/M32A–86D line-drop compensation switch be in when adjusting voltage regulation?
    • A. 

      ON.

    • B. 

      OFF.

    • C. 

      ADJUST.

    • D. 

      REGULATOR.

  • 106. 
    (445) What is the purpose of the protective circuits of the A/M32A–86D?
    • A. 

      Protects the generator electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

    • B. 

      Protects the aircraft electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

    • C. 

      Senses fault conditions, stopping the generator.

    • D. 

      Senses fault conditions, stopping the engine.

  • 107. 
    (445) In order for the A/M32A–86D to host a transformer rectifier, it must have a
    • A. 

      JHAR100B model voltage regulator.

    • B. 

      JHAR100C model voltage regulator.

    • C. 

      Larger capacity radiator.

    • D. 

      K7 contactor installed.

  • 108. 
    • A. 

      Allow the engine to idle for 10 minutes before loading.

    • B. 

      Set the meter selector switch on the ammeter and then check the oil pressure.

    • C. 

      Ensure the protective circuit indicating light is ON and check the oil pressure.

    • D. 

      Press the protective system test switch, then the protective system reset switch.

  • 109. 
    (447) To test the load contactor relay K1, using test probes, in what position must the automatic-manual voltage control switch be placed?
    • A. 

      AUTOMATIC.

    • B. 

      MANUAL.

    • C. 

      TEST.

    • D. 

      OFF.

  • 110. 
    (448) What position must the alarm switch on the EPU–6/E frequency converter be placed prior to operation?
    • A. 

      ON.

    • B. 

      OFF.

    • C. 

      ACTIVATE.

    • D. 

      INACTIVE.

  • 111. 
    (448) What component provides 525 volts alternating current (VAC) to the control transformer of the EPU–6/E frequency converter?
    • A. 

      Input auto transformer.

    • B. 

      Output auto transformer.

    • C. 

      Input phase sequence transformer.

    • D. 

      Output phase sequence transformer.

  • 112. 
    (448) What indicator on the EPU–6/E frequency converter indicates an undervoltage condition?
    • A. 

      Overvoltage.

    • B. 

      Out-of-phase.

    • C. 

      Undervoltage.

    • D. 

      Fault.

  • 113. 
    (449) What component on the EPU–6/E frequency converter controls the timing and firing of the silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
    • A. 

      Analog board.

    • B. 

      Control transformer.

    • C. 

      SCR voltage regulator.

    • D. 

      Phase sequence transformer.

  • 114. 
    (449) What component on the EPU–6/E frequency converter stops input voltage if the bottom door is open?
    • A. 

      Safety interlock.

    • B. 

      EF line fuse.

    • C. 

      Start switch.

    • D. 

      Stop switch.

  • 115. 
    (450) Before using the EPU–6/E frequency converter, you must inspect the
    • A. 

      Air inlets for blockage.

    • B. 

      Wiring for secure mounting.

    • C. 

      Maintenance panels for corrosion.

    • D. 

      Interior air vents for secure mounting.

  • 116. 
    (451) What problem is indicated by a flashing red over/undervoltage indicator light on the EPU–6/E frequency converter?
    • A. 

      Out-of-phase relationship.

    • B. 

      Output overvoltage.

    • C. 

      Loss-of-input phase.

    • D. 

      Input undervoltage.

  • 117. 
    • A. 

      Malfunctioning transistor.

    • B. 

      Burnt control transformer fuse.

    • C. 

      Loose push-on connector on the output filter capacitor.

    • D. 

      Improper silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) firing adjustment.

  • 118. 
    (452) What component on the B809A generator set fuel system distributes and delivers an accurate amount of fuel to the engine cylinders?
    • A. 

      Injector pump.

    • B. 

      Transfer pump.

    • C. 

      Injector nozzles.

    • D. 

      Throttle actuator.

  • 119. 
    (452) What B809A generator set speed control system component produces a frequency pulse train for engine speed reference?
    • A. 

      Magnetic pickup.

    • B. 

      Engine speed governor.

    • C. 

      Speed trim potentiometer.

    • D. 

      Speed control potentiometer.

  • 120. 
    (453) What contacts on the annunciator card of the B809A generator set control the alternating current (AC) power input to the voltage regulator?
    • A. 

      Engine fault.

    • B. 

      Regulator fault.

    • C. 

      Generator fault.

    • D. 

      Contactor fault.

  • 121. 
    (453) What B809A generator set engine safety circuit incorporates a seven-second time delay before activation?
    • A. 

      Low fuel fault.

    • B. 

      Overspeed fault.

    • C. 

      Low lube pressure.

    • D. 

      Coolant temperature.

  • 122. 
    (454) During high-voltage operation of the B809A generator set, what action occurs to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing?
    • A. 

      High sense relay (HSR) energizes.

    • B. 

      Interlock (INT) relay energizes.

    • C. 

      INT relay deenergizes.

    • D. 

      HSR deenergizes.

  • 123. 
    (455) What is the minimum amount of time to operate the B809 generator while performing at load test?
    • A. 

      5 minutes.

    • B. 

      10 minutes.

    • C. 

      15 minutes.

    • D. 

      20 minutes.