2A652 CDC Volume 1: Trivia Questions On Aerospace Ground Equipment!

87 Questions | Total Attempts: 3641

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2a652 Quizzes & Trivia

If you are planning on being part of the aerospace ground equipment personnel, you will be responsible for providing and maintaining essential maintenance support capabilities to maintain or repair the aircraft. Below is 2A652 CDC Volume 1: Trivia Questions On Aerospace Ground Equipment! Give it a try and see just how much you have understood so far. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The effect of noise depends on the
    • A. 

      Deflection, frequency, and volume

    • B. 

      Frequency, volume, and duration of exposure

    • C. 

      Deflection, volume, and duration of exposure

    • D. 

      Deflection, frequency, and duration of exposure

  • 2. 
    Before removing a component from an air compressor for safety you must ensure
    • A. 

      The air compressor is grounded

    • B. 

      The air strainer is in place

    • C. 

      The battery is disconnected

    • D. 

      All air pressure is drained

  • 3. 
    The size of the screwdriver is determined by the shank
    • A. 

      Length

    • B. 

      Weight

    • C. 

      Temper

    • D. 

      Width

  • 4. 
    Which type of screrwdriver is used in tight places when there isn't enough room to use a standard screwdriver?
    • A. 

      Cross-point

    • B. 

      Flat-blade

    • C. 

      Phillips

    • D. 

      Offset

  • 5. 
    Pliers are properly used to
    • A. 

      Loosen a nut

    • B. 

      Hold material

    • C. 

      Replace a wrench

    • D. 

      Hammer a cotter pin

  • 6. 
    Which pliers have a locking device to hold materials securely?
    • A. 

      Dikes

    • B. 

      Vice Grip

    • C. 

      Snap ring

    • D. 

      Water pump

  • 7. 
    Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut
    • A. 

      Bolts

    • B. 

      Rivets

    • C. 

      Small wire

    • D. 

      Hard steel

  • 8. 
    If you must push a wrench rather than pull it, how should you do it?
    • A. 

      Grasp the handle near the socket

    • B. 

      Grip the wrench tightly near the center

    • C. 

      Grip the wrench tightly with both hands

    • D. 

      Use the base of your palm and hold your hand open

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Pulling toward the adjustable jaw and using an extension

    • B. 

      Tightening the jaws around the nut and using an extension

    • C. 

      Pulling toward the adjustable jaw and tightening the jaws around the nut

    • D. 

      Pulling toward the stationary jaw and tightening the jaws around the nut

  • 10. 
    The size of a flat, cold chisel is determined by the
    • A. 

      Length of the cutting edge

    • B. 

      Width of the cutting edge

    • C. 

      Length of the handle

    • D. 

      Length of the chisel

  • 11. 
    Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, you must
    • A. 

      Inspect it

    • B. 

      Lubricate it

    • C. 

      Blow out the air hose

    • D. 

      Ensure that its use is necessary

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Lower 10 percent

    • B. 

      Lower 20 percent

    • C. 

      Upper 20 percent

    • D. 

      Upper 10 percent

  • 13. 
    Replacement hardware decisions are based on
    • A. 

      Supervisor's preference

    • B. 

      Serviceability criteria

    • C. 

      Availability

    • D. 

      Cost

  • 14. 
    What portion of the bolt identifies the type and material of the bolt?
    • A. 

      nut

    • B. 

      Grip

    • C. 

      Head

    • D. 

      Shank

  • 15. 
    What type of bolt is typically used to connect accessories to an engine?
    • A. 

      Stud

    • B. 

      Fine thread bolt

    • C. 

      Coarse thread bolt

    • D. 

      General purpose bolt

  • 16. 
    The primary function of a nut is to
    • A. 

      Prevent vibration

    • B. 

      Provide an adjustment mechanism

    • C. 

      Provide an auxiliary locking or safety device

    • D. 

      Transmit the full design load to the adjoined members

  • 17. 
    What type of nut should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees fahrenheit?
    • A. 

      Self-locking nut

    • B. 

      Castellated nuts

    • C. 

      Metallic nuts

    • D. 

      Plain nuts

  • 18. 
    What type of washer is used to shim?
    • A. 

      Spiral lock washers

    • B. 

      Plain washers

    • C. 

      Crush washers

    • D. 

      Lock washers

  • 19. 
    What type of setscrew has the same shear strength as an equivalent size bolt?
    • A. 

      Setscrews

    • B. 

      Machine screws

    • C. 

      Structural screws

    • D. 

      Self-tapping screws

  • 20. 
    What color code is given to pre-insulated terminals that can be used to terminate wire sizes 18 through 22?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 21. 
    What does the "-4" identify in a fitting part number MS20822-4D?
    • A. 

      Military specification

    • B. 

      Type of fitting

    • C. 

      Air Force/Navy

    • D. 

      Fitting size

  • 22. 
    Which types of fitting are designed for pressure systems below 3000 pounds per square inch (psi)?
    • A. 

      Flared fittings

    • B. 

      Standard fittings

    • C. 

      Flareless fittings

    • D. 

      Precision-type flared fittings

  • 23. 
    What is the most commonly used type of tubing in Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE)?
    • A. 

      Pipe

    • B. 

      Copper

    • C. 

      Pressure

    • D. 

      Mechanical

  • 24. 
    The primary cause of Foreign Object Damage (FOD) is
    • A. 

      Aircraft

    • B. 

      Nature

    • C. 

      People

    • D. 

      AGE

  • 25. 
    What type of index is used to order technical orders (TO)?
    • A. 

      TO catalog

    • B. 

      Alphabetical index

    • C. 

      Cross-reference table

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications

  • 26. 
    What type of index lists technical orders (TO) for only one item of equipment?
    • A. 

      TO index

    • B. 

      Alphabetical index

    • C. 

      Cross-reference table

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications

  • 27. 
    Which technical order (TO) gives information on preparing equipment for shipment?
    • A. 

      Factory manuals

    • B. 

      -3 technical manuals

    • C. 

      -4 technical manuals

    • D. 

      -1 technical manuals

  • 28. 
    Which section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Section I, introduction

    • B. 

      Section III, numerical index

    • C. 

      Section II, group assembly parts list

    • D. 

      Section IV, reference designation index

  • 29. 
    Which time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Immediate

  • 30. 
    Which time compliance technical orders (TCTO) has circled red Xs with alternately spaced red diagonals bordering the first page?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Safety

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Immediate

  • 31. 
    Which of these covers the concept and management of the USAF technical order system?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-15

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-2

  • 32. 
    Which Methodsand Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) series contains miscellaneous information such as static grounding?
    • A. 

      00-5 series

    • B. 

      00-20 series

    • C. 

      00-25 series

    • D. 

      00-35 series

  • 33. 
    Periodic inspection workcards are divided into three sections that cover the requirements for
    • A. 

      Periodic inspection, lubrication, and special inspection

    • B. 

      Periodic inspection, special inspection, and safety

    • C. 

      Periodic inspection, lubrication, and safety

    • D. 

      Special inspection, lubrication, and safety

  • 34. 
    Which type of technical lorder (TO) is normally used only to maintain test or early production model equipment?
    • A. 

      Prototype

    • B. 

      Automation

    • C. 

      Preliminary

    • D. 

      Abbreviated

  • 35. 
    When selection a technical order (TO), the first part of the number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • B. 

      Type of equipment in the TO

    • C. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 36. 
    When selecting a technical order (TO), the second part of the number identifies the
    • A. 

      Category number of the TO

    • B. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • C. 

      Type of instructions in the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series ot the equipment covered by the TO

  • 37. 
    When selecting a te4chnical order (TO), the last part of the technical order (TO) number identifies the
    • A. 

      Category number of the TO

    • B. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • C. 

      Type of instruction of the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 38. 
    An example of a tecnical order (TO) deficiency is
    • A. 

      Insufficient information

    • B. 

      Improper page sequences

    • C. 

      Typographical errors

    • D. 

      Misspelled words

  • 39. 
    In addition to Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC), who approves the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22?
    • A. 

      Supervisorand QA

    • B. 

      Supervisor and the DCM

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance and AFSC

    • D. 

      Quality Assurance and the DCM

  • 40. 
    What are the two classes of Air Force publications?
    • A. 

      Pamphlets and manuals

    • B. 

      Field and departmental

    • C. 

      Regulations and manuals

    • D. 

      Supplements and regulations

  • 41. 
    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) serves the purpose of identifying basic Air Force subjects and assigned publication numbers?
    • A. 

      AFI 33-36

    • B. 

      AFI 33-360

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2903

    • D. 

      AFi 36-2604

  • 42. 
    The purpose of the first number of a publication number is to represent the
    • A. 

      Basic subject

    • B. 

      Specific area covered

    • C. 

      Specific title of the publication

    • D. 

      Specific military personnel affected

  • 43. 
    What is the primary focus of the entire maintenance process?
    • A. 

      Preventive

    • B. 

      Corrective

    • C. 

      Inductive

    • D. 

      Conductive

  • 44. 
    What type of maintenance is performed in a repair shop on components removed from equipment?
    • A. 

      Off-equipment

    • B. 

      On-equipment

    • C. 

      Preliminary

    • D. 

      Corrective

  • 45. 
    Which maintenance levels are referred to as field maintenance?
    • A. 

      Centralized and depot

    • B. 

      Depot and provisional

    • C. 

      Provisional and centralized

    • D. 

      Organizational and intermediate

  • 46. 
    Which inspection may be either scheduled or unscheduled?
    • A. 

      Service

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Periodic

    • D. 

      Operator's

  • 47. 
    The symbol that represents the most serious maintenance condition is a
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red dash

    • C. 

      Red diagonal

    • D. 

      Circled red X

  • 48. 
    Two signatures are required to clear discrepancies that carry the maintenance symbol(s)
    • A. 

      Red X only

    • B. 

      Red dash only

    • C. 

      Red X or red diagonal

    • D. 

      Red dash or red diagonal

  • 49. 
    Which symbol indicates an operational check is overdue?
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red dash

    • C. 

      Red diagonal

    • D. 

      Circled red X

  • 50. 
    Which Inspection is recorded in Part II, Non-Scheduled Inspection, of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244?
    • A. 

      Periodic

    • B. 

      Operator

    • C. 

      Service

    • D. 

      Special

  • 51. 
    Which section of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to record a forms review?
    • A. 

      Part V, maintenance/delayed discrepancy

    • B. 

      Part II, non-scheduled inspection

    • C. 

      Part III, scheduled inspection

    • D. 

      Part IV, supervisory review

  • 52. 
    Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serves as
    • A. 

      A marking and processing tag

    • B. 

      A status and processing label

    • C. 

      An identification and status tag

    • D. 

      An identification and processing tag

  • 53. 
    Part II of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 is used
    • A. 

      To account for the time spent performing maintenance on an item

    • B. 

      To ensure maintenance is performed in a timely manner

    • C. 

      To identify the origin of the item

    • D. 

      As an inventory aid

  • 54. 
    What color is the tag that is normally attached to items received from supply?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Brown

    • C. 

      White

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 55. 
    What is the condition of a component bearing a red tag?
    • A. 

      Condemned

    • B. 

      Reparable

    • C. 

      Suspended

    • D. 

      Serviceable

  • 56. 
    A material deficiency exhibit tag can be identified by its
    • A. 

      Brown color

    • B. 

      Green color

    • C. 

      White color

    • D. 

      Yellow color

  • 57. 
    What is the most widely used status tag?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 1574, Serviceable Tag

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350, Reparable Processing Tag

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag

  • 58. 
    What Maintenance Data Documentation (MDD) code identifies the system that was worked?
    • A. 

      Type maintenance code

    • B. 

      Work unit code

    • C. 

      Category labor

    • D. 

      Units

  • 59. 
    When entering Maintenance Data Documentation (MDD) what should be a short but accurate description of the problem?
    • A. 

      How malfunction code

    • B. 

      Action taken code

    • C. 

      Corrective action

    • D. 

      Discrepancy

  • 60. 
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) concept of using predefined screens to request input is known as
    • A. 

      Footer bar

    • B. 

      Desired screen

    • C. 

      Screen processing

    • D. 

      Menu processing

  • 61. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Data Sytem (IMDS) screren is used to create, add, and schedule events for equipment?
    • A. 

      051

    • B. 

      073

    • C. 

      122

    • D. 

      127

  • 62. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen is used to access all maintenance historical data against a particular job control number?
    • A. 

      122

    • B. 

      129

    • C. 

      907

    • D. 

      914

  • 63. 
    What is "After the fact reporting"?
    • A. 

      Creating the narrative description of SRD codes

    • B. 

      Requesting information on parts via stock number

    • C. 

      Creating the job and immediately entering the corrective action

    • D. 

      Requesting a detailed repair history for a specific piece of equipment

  • 64. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) screen offers a quick online view of open discrepancies for a workcenter?
    • A. 

      347

    • B. 

      380

    • C. 

      914

    • D. 

      907

  • 65. 
    Which step in utilizing the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) prevents unauthorized access to the database?
    • A. 

      Logon

    • B. 

      Logoff

    • C. 

      Data entry

    • D. 

      Online processing

  • 66. 
    What Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) inquiry locates information such as quantity and location of a stock numbered part?
    • A. 

      Part number

    • B. 

      Item record

    • C. 

      Detail record

    • D. 

      Other records

  • 67. 
    What Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) ordering priority is used for red "X" conditions?
    • A. 

      03

    • B. 

      04

    • C. 

      05

    • D. 

      06

  • 68. 
    Which of these is the best example of supply conservation?
    • A. 

      Not keeping commonly used supplies on hand

    • B. 

      Ordering twice the supplies needed to do a job

    • C. 

      Ordering the minimum supplies necessary to do a job

    • D. 

      Replacing all hardware on equipment at every inspection

  • 69. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that property records are kept accurately?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Person who signed for an account

    • D. 

      Person who has possession of the property

  • 70. 
    To be held responsible for property, you must
    • A. 

      Possess it

    • B. 

      Sign for it

    • C. 

      Be a 5 level

    • D. 

      Be a supervisor

  • 71. 
    After depot has repaired an item, they send copies of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 375, Selected Equipment Repair Cost Estimate, to whom?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Originating unit

    • C. 

      Inventory manager

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 72. 
    Items for which accountability is dropped from all records when they are issued are considered
    • A. 

      DIFM

    • B. 

      Excess

    • C. 

      Expendable

    • D. 

      Nonexpendable

  • 73. 
    An expected usage level is established for all bench items except
    • A. 

      Reparable items

    • B. 

      Single issue items

    • C. 

      Unit package items

    • D. 

      Special requisition items

  • 74. 
    When bech stock levels fall below 50 percent, you should
    • A. 

      Post a due-out list

    • B. 

      Place a red tag on the bin

    • C. 

      Notify supply that stock level is low

    • D. 

      Initial the initial supply stock listing

  • 75. 
    The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage of government property caused by misuse or neglect is what kind of liability?
    • A. 

      Property

    • B. 

      Personal

    • C. 

      Pecuniary

    • D. 

      Command

  • 76. 
    How can a person be relieved from property responsibility other than by pecuniary responsibility?
    • A. 

      Turn-in only

    • B. 

      Transfer only

    • C. 

      Turn-in or transfer

    • D. 

      Cash collection voucher or statement of charges

  • 77. 
    A statement of charges would be prepared under which of these circumstances?
    • A. 

      If a lost item is not expendable

    • B. 

      If you make a cash payment for a lost item

    • C. 

      If you signed a hand receipt for a lost item

    • D. 

      If you want the cost of a lost item to be taken out of your paycheck

  • 78. 
    After discovery of a deficiency, a Category I Product Quality Dewficiency Report (PQDR) must be submitted to the screening point within
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      2 calendar days

    • C. 

      5 calendar days

    • D. 

      10 calendar days

  • 79. 
    Preventive maintenance for corrosion includes
    • A. 

      Cleaning, inspecting, and painting

    • B. 

      Cleaning, inspecting, and marking

    • C. 

      Inspecting, marking, and painting

    • D. 

      Cleaning, marking, and painting

  • 80. 
    What marking is applied to Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE) to tell of possible personal injury?
    • A. 

      Safety/danger

    • B. 

      Informational

    • C. 

      Caution/warning

    • D. 

      Reflectorization

  • 81. 
    What marking is applied to Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE) for night safety?
    • A. 

      Safety/danger

    • B. 

      Informational

    • C. 

      Caution/warning

    • D. 

      Reflectorization

  • 82. 
    Which of these items must be removed from test equipment before storage?
    • A. 

      Wet and dry cell batteries

    • B. 

      Dry charge batteries

    • C. 

      Battery compartment

    • D. 

      Battery holder

  • 83. 
    When preparoing Aerospace Ground Equipment (AGE) for mobility, what two problem areas should you watch for?
    • A. 

      Cleanliness and leaks

    • B. 

      AFTO Forms 244s and 95s

    • C. 

      Readiness and responsiveness

    • D. 

      Flight kit inventories and personnel status

  • 84. 
    During a battery condition check, what is normal voltage reading for a 12-volt battery?
    • A. 

      8-2 volts

    • B. 

      10-12 volts

    • C. 

      12.4 volts or lower

    • D. 

      12.7 volts or higher

  • 85. 
    While you're operating a battery charger, you notice that the ammeter reading was initially high, but has gradually decreased.  Is it malfunctioning?
    • A. 

      Yes. The charger is improperly connected.

    • B. 

      Yes. Stop charging and troubleshoot

    • C. 

      No. This is a normal condition

    • D. 

      Yes. The voltage is set to high

  • 86. 
    What should you do if your vehicle meets a moving aircraft at night?
    • A. 

      Turn off your headlights and leave your parking lights on

    • B. 

      Dim your headlights and continue on

    • C. 

      Stop and change directions

    • D. 

      Turn all lights off

  • 87. 
    Why should you apply silicone sealant to the valve stem area of a wheel?
    • A. 

      To keep rims from flying apart

    • B. 

      To keep water from entering rims

    • C. 

      As a treatment for weather cracks

    • D. 

      As a treatment for severe corrosion