2A652 Aerospace Ground Equipment CDCs (Vol 4)

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2A652 Aerospace Ground Equipment CDCs (Vol 4) - Quiz

This is a quiz on Aerospace Ground Equipment CDC (Vol 4) 2A652


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What component on the New Generation Heater activates the heater control unit (HCU)?

    • A.

      Heat control switch

    • B.

      Burner control unit

    • C.

      Thermostatic sensor

    • D.

      Oil pressure switch

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat control switch
    Explanation
    The heat control switch is the component on the New Generation Heater that activates the heater control unit (HCU). When the heat control switch is turned on, it sends a signal to the HCU to start the heating process. This switch allows the user to control the temperature and turn the heater on or off as desired. The other options, such as the burner control unit, thermostatic sensor, and oil pressure switch, may be important components of the heater but they do not directly activate the HCU.

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  • 2. 

    When does the heater control unit (HCU) on the New Generation Heater start the main air fan for output air?

    • A.

      When a heat setting is selected

    • B.

      Once constant flame is established

    • C.

      When the temperature gauge reads COOL

    • D.

      When the inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    D. When the inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F
    Explanation
    The heater control unit (HCU) on the New Generation Heater starts the main air fan for output air when the inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F. This indicates that the heater has reached the desired temperature and is ready to distribute warm air. Once the temperature reaches this threshold, the HCU activates the main air fan to circulate the heated air throughout the space. This ensures that the desired temperature is maintained and that the heating system is functioning properly.

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  • 3. 

    When should you use starting aids to start the New Generation Heater?

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      Occasionally

    • C.

      When the temperature gauge reads COOL

    • D.

      When ambient temperature is below 32 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    Starting aids should never be used to start the New Generation Heater. This implies that the heater does not require any external assistance or additives to initiate its operation. It is designed to start without the need for starting aids, indicating that the heater is self-sufficient and can initiate its function under normal conditions without any additional help.

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  • 4. 

    When operating the New Generation Heater, turn the heat control switch to the desired position after

    • A.

      Ample warm-up time

    • B.

      A minimum of 45 seconds

    • C.

      System voltage rises to 120 VAC

    • D.

      The inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    C. System voltage rises to 120 VAC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "system voltage rises to 120 VAC" because it indicates that the heat control switch should be turned to the desired position once the system voltage reaches 120 VAC. This suggests that the heater should only be operated when the voltage is at the specified level to ensure safe and effective functioning.

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  • 5. 

    If you need to find out how to perform any maintenance required during an inspection, you should refer to the 

    • A.

      -1 TO

    • B.

      PE workcards

    • C.

      Methods and procedures TO

    • D.

      Service inspection workcards

    Correct Answer
    A. -1 TO
    Explanation
    If you need to find out how to perform any maintenance required during an inspection, you should refer to the TO (Technical Orders) workcards. Technical Orders provide detailed instructions and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks and procedures. They outline the methods and procedures that should be followed during service inspections. Therefore, referring to the TO workcards will provide the necessary information on how to carry out any maintenance required during an inspection.

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  • 6. 

    The type of inspection that requires the most tear down of specific components is the

    • A.

      Daily inspection

    • B.

      Service inspection

    • C.

      Special inspection

    • D.

      Periodic inspection

    Correct Answer
    C. Special inspection
    Explanation
    Special inspections typically involve a more thorough examination of specific components or systems. Unlike daily inspections, which are routine and focus on basic checks, special inspections require more tear down and investigation. They are often performed to identify hidden issues or to assess the condition of critical components that may not be easily accessible during regular inspections. Service inspections and periodic inspections may involve a more comprehensive assessment of the overall vehicle, but they do not necessarily require as much tear down of specific components as special inspections do.

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  • 7. 

    The first step of troubleshooting heater equipment is

    • A.

      Analysis

    • B.

      Isolation

    • C.

      Recognition

    • D.

      Verification

    Correct Answer
    C. Recognition
    Explanation
    The first step of troubleshooting heater equipment is recognition. This means identifying and acknowledging the problem or issue with the equipment. It involves observing and understanding the symptoms or signs of malfunctioning in order to determine the root cause. By recognizing the problem, technicians can then proceed to the next steps of analysis, isolation, and verification to effectively troubleshoot and resolve the issue.

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  • 8. 

    Repair of ground heater equipment should never be attempted 

    • A.

      Without first talking with the operator

    • B.

      Without first consulting your supervisor

    • C.

      Unless accurate technical data is available

    • D.

      Unless the presence of an experienced mechanic

    Correct Answer
    C. Unless accurate technical data is available
    Explanation
    Repairing ground heater equipment can be a complex task that requires accurate technical knowledge. Without accurate technical data, attempting to repair the equipment can lead to further damage or even accidents. It is important to have access to accurate technical information to ensure that the repair is done correctly and safely.

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  • 9. 

    The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of substance one degree Fahrenheit is known as

    • A.

      Super heat

    • B.

      Latent heat

    • C.

      British Thermal Unit (BTU)

    • D.

      Sensible heat

    Correct Answer
    C. British Thermal Unit (BTU)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is British Thermal Unit (BTU). BTU is a unit of measurement used to quantify the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of a substance by one degree Fahrenheit. It is commonly used in the field of heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) to determine the heating or cooling capacity of systems.

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  • 10. 

    Heat that can be felt, and added or subtracted to a substance without changing its state is called

    • A.

      Super heat

    • B.

      Latent heat

    • C.

      Specific heat

    • D.

      Sensible heat

    Correct Answer
    D. Sensible heat
    Explanation
    Sensible heat refers to the heat that can be felt and added or subtracted to a substance without causing a change in its state. This means that the substance does not undergo a phase change, such as from solid to liquid or liquid to gas, but its temperature can still be altered. Sensible heat is typically associated with the transfer of thermal energy through conduction, convection, or radiation, and it is often measured using a thermometer.

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  • 11. 

    The heat that changes the state of a substance, yet does not affect the temperature is called

    • A.

      Super heat

    • B.

      Latent heat

    • C.

      Specific heat

    • D.

      Sensible heat

    Correct Answer
    B. Latent heat
    Explanation
    Latent heat refers to the heat absorbed or released during a phase change of a substance, such as from solid to liquid or liquid to gas, without causing a change in temperature. This heat is used to break or form intermolecular bonds between particles, resulting in a change of state. Unlike sensible heat, which affects the temperature of a substance, latent heat is responsible for the energy required to undergo a phase transition without changing the temperature.

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  • 12. 

    Heat added to a gaseous substance is known as

    • A.

      Super heat

    • B.

      Latent heat

    • C.

      Specific heat

    • D.

      Sensible heat

    Correct Answer
    A. Super heat
    Explanation
    Superheat refers to the additional heat added to a gaseous substance above its boiling point, without causing it to change into a liquid state. It is the heat energy that remains in the gas after it has reached its boiling point. This term is commonly used in the context of refrigeration and air conditioning systems, where superheated gases are important for efficient heat transfer and cooling processes.

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  • 13. 

    A good refrigerant would

    • A.

      Operate with low pressure

    • B.

      Have a low boiling point

    • C.

      Not be poisonous

    • D.

      Operate with low pressure, have a low boiling point, and not be poisonous

    Correct Answer
    D. Operate with low pressure, have a low boiling point, and not be poisonous
    Explanation
    A good refrigerant needs to operate with low pressure in order to minimize the risk of system failures and leaks. It should also have a low boiling point so that it can easily absorb heat from the surroundings and turn into a vapor. Additionally, it should not be poisonous to ensure the safety of both the environment and individuals who come into contact with it. Therefore, a good refrigerant should possess all of these qualities: operate with low pressure, have a low boiling point, and not be poisonous.

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  • 14. 

    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner allows the operator to control the overall volume of air leaving the unit?

    • A.

      Blower control switch

    • B.

      Airflow control switch

    • C.

      Evaporator control switch

    • D.

      Temperature control switch

    Correct Answer
    B. Airflow control switch
    Explanation
    The airflow control switch on the MA-3D air conditioner allows the operator to control the overall volume of air leaving the unit. This switch regulates the speed of the blower, which in turn affects the amount of air being circulated. By adjusting the airflow control switch, the operator can increase or decrease the amount of air being blown out of the air conditioner, thus controlling the overall volume of air.

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  • 15. 

    After the refrigerant leaves the compressor on the MA-3D air conditioner, it flows through the 

    • A.

      Heatsink coils

    • B.

      Condensor coils

    • C.

      Evaporator coils

    • D.

      Receiver inlet valve

    Correct Answer
    B. Condensor coils
    Explanation
    After the refrigerant leaves the compressor, it enters the condenser coils. The condenser coils are responsible for transferring heat from the refrigerant to the surrounding air. As the hot refrigerant flows through the condenser coils, it releases heat and condenses into a liquid state. This process allows the refrigerant to release the heat it absorbed from the indoor air while it was in the evaporator coils. The condenser coils are typically located outside the air conditioner unit and are exposed to the outside air, which helps in dissipating the heat efficiently.

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  • 16. 

    The temperature controller on the MA-3D air conditioner modulates the water flow through what component during low ambient air temperatures?

    • A.

      Aftercooler coil

    • B.

      Refrigerant coil

    • C.

      Expansion coil

    • D.

      Condenser coil

    Correct Answer
    A. Aftercooler coil
    Explanation
    During low ambient air temperatures, the temperature controller on the MA-3D air conditioner modulates the water flow through the aftercooler coil. The aftercooler coil is responsible for cooling down the compressed air before it enters the air conditioning system. By modulating the water flow through the aftercooler coil, the temperature controller can adjust the cooling capacity of the air conditioner to maintain the desired temperature in the room.

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  • 17. 

    When starting the MA-3D air conditioner, hold the safety override switch until 

    • A.

      The engine starts

    • B.

      The engine warms up

    • C.

      You release the start switch

    • D.

      30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge
    Explanation
    When starting the MA-3D air conditioner, it is important to hold the safety override switch until 30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge. This ensures that the engine has reached the necessary oil pressure for it to function properly. Holding the switch until this pressure is reached helps to prevent any potential damage or malfunctions that could occur if the engine is started without sufficient oil pressure.

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  • 18. 

    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner shuts off the compressors when refrigerant pressure entering the evaporator coil reaches 5psi?

    • A.

      Low pressure cutout

    • B.

      High pressure cutout

    • C.

      Temperature controller

    • D.

      Temperature control switch

    Correct Answer
    C. Temperature controller
    Explanation
    The temperature controller is the component on the MA-3D air conditioner that shuts off the compressors when the refrigerant pressure entering the evaporator coil reaches 5psi. It is responsible for monitoring and regulating the temperature in the system, ensuring that it operates within the desired range. When the pressure reaches the specified level, the temperature controller triggers the shut-off of the compressors to prevent any damage or malfunction.

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  • 19. 

    What equipment inspection requires the inspection of only asterisked items in the workcards?

    • A.

      Annual

    • B.

      Phase 1

    • C.

      Service

    • D.

      Phase 2

    Correct Answer
    B. Phase 1
    Explanation
    Phase 1 equipment inspection requires the inspection of only asterisked items in the workcards. This means that during Phase 1, only specific items marked with an asterisk on the workcards need to be inspected. It is likely that Phase 1 is a specific stage or process in the equipment inspection where only these selected items are prioritized for inspection.

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  • 20. 

    What type of refrigerant system leak occurs when the pressure within the system is less than atmospheric pressure?

    • A.

      Vaccum leaks

    • B.

      Inward leaks

    • C.

      Outward leaks

    • D.

      Pressure leaks

    Correct Answer
    B. Inward leaks
    Explanation
    Inward leaks occur when the pressure within the refrigerant system is less than atmospheric pressure. This means that air or other substances from the outside are being drawn into the system, causing a decrease in pressure. Inward leaks can be problematic as they can introduce contaminants into the system and affect its efficiency. It is important to identify and fix inward leaks to maintain the proper functioning of the refrigerant system.

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  • 21. 

    The refrigerant on the air conditioner is always removed through the

    • A.

      Purge valve

    • B.

      Receiver inlet valve

    • C.

      Receiver outlet valve

    • D.

      Discharge service valve

    Correct Answer
    C. Receiver outlet valve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the receiver outlet valve. The receiver outlet valve is the point in the air conditioning system where the refrigerant is removed. This valve allows the refrigerant to flow out of the receiver and into the rest of the system. By removing the refrigerant through the receiver outlet valve, it can be properly disposed of or recycled.

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  • 22. 

    The air cycle machine of an A/M32C-10D air conditioner consists of 

    • A.

      An expansion turbine only

    • B.

      An air compressor fan only

    • C.

      A heat exchanger and an expansion turbine

    • D.

      An expansion turbine and an air compressor fan

    Correct Answer
    D. An expansion turbine and an air compressor fan
    Explanation
    The air cycle machine of an A/M32C-10D air conditioner consists of an expansion turbine and an air compressor fan. The expansion turbine is responsible for expanding the compressed air, which cools it down and converts its energy into mechanical work. The air compressor fan, on the other hand, is responsible for compressing the ambient air and supplying it to the system. Together, these two components play a crucial role in the air conditioning process, ensuring the proper circulation and cooling of the air.

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  • 23. 

    On a basic rotary compressor, what prevents air from leaving the discharge port while the intake port is taking air in?

    • A.

      Sliding barrier

    • B.

      Discharge valve

    • C.

      Rotating barrier

    • D.

      Stationary barrier

    Correct Answer
    A. Sliding barrier
    Explanation
    A sliding barrier prevents air from leaving the discharge port while the intake port is taking air in. This barrier moves along with the rotation of the compressor, creating a seal that prevents air leakage. The sliding barrier ensures that the compressed air is directed towards the discharge port and does not escape through the intake port.

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  • 24. 

    Oil in the rotary vane compressor

    • A.

      Lubricates the connecting rods

    • B.

      Has high viscosity and is very inflammable

    • C.

      Forms a seal between the vanes and the stator

    • D.

      Permits it to be typed as a high pressure unit

    Correct Answer
    C. Forms a seal between the vanes and the stator
    Explanation
    The oil in the rotary vane compressor forms a seal between the vanes and the stator. This is important because it helps prevent leakage of compressed gas and ensures efficient operation of the compressor. The oil acts as a barrier between the moving vanes and the stationary stator, reducing friction and wear. It also helps to maintain a tight seal, allowing the compressor to generate and maintain high pressure.

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  • 25. 

    What provides pressurized oil to the rotor blades of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor?

    • A.

      Rotor shaft

    • B.

      Stator shaft

    • C.

      Drilled passages

    • D.

      Hollow-ported bolt

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotor shaft
    Explanation
    The rotor shaft provides pressurized oil to the rotor blades of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor. This means that the oil is supplied directly through the rotor shaft to lubricate and cool the rotor blades during operation.

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  • 26. 

    On the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor, the minimum pressure valve does all of the following except

    • A.

      Ensure minimum pressure to the felt pads

    • B.

      Ensure minimum pressure in the oil chamber

    • C.

      Ensure minimum pressure to the condensate drain

    • D.

      Prevent receiver air from flowing back to the compressor

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure minimum pressure to the condensate drain
    Explanation
    The MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor has a minimum pressure valve that performs several functions. It ensures minimum pressure to the felt pads, which is important for the proper operation of the compressor. It also ensures minimum pressure in the oil chamber, which is necessary for lubrication and cooling. Additionally, it prevents receiver air from flowing back to the compressor, which helps maintain the desired pressure levels. However, it does not have a direct role in ensuring minimum pressure to the condensate drain.

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  • 27. 

    What medium is used to cool the MC-2A rotary vane compressor?

    • A.

      Oil

    • B.

      Air

    • C.

      Water

    • D.

      Hydraulic fluid

    Correct Answer
    A. Oil
    Explanation
    The MC-2A rotary vane compressor is cooled using oil. Oil is commonly used as a cooling medium in compressors because it has excellent heat transfer properties and can effectively dissipate heat generated during compression. The oil circulates through the compressor, absorbing heat from the internal components and carrying it away. This helps to prevent overheating and ensures the compressor operates efficiently and reliably.

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  • 28. 

    On the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor, what forces the oil through the oil cooler?

    • A.

      Oil pump pressure

    • B.

      Scavenge pump pressure

    • C.

      First stage air pressure

    • D.

      Second stage air pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Second stage air pressure
    Explanation
    The second stage air pressure forces the oil through the oil cooler in the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor. This is because the compressor uses the second stage air pressure to push the oil through the cooler, ensuring that the oil stays at the optimal temperature for lubrication and cooling purposes.

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  • 29. 

    What is the output of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor?

    • A.

      High volume, high pressure

    • B.

      High volume, low pressure

    • C.

      Low volume, high pressure

    • D.

      Low volume, low pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Low volume, low pressure
    Explanation
    The MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor is designed to produce a low volume of air or gas at a low pressure. This means that it is not capable of delivering a large amount of air or gas, and the pressure it generates is also relatively low. Therefore, the correct answer is "Low volume, low pressure."

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  • 30. 

    The valves on a reciprocating compressor are operated by

    • A.

      Pushrods

    • B.

      Air pressure

    • C.

      Oil pressure

    • D.

      Electrical input

    • E.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air pressure
    Explanation
    The valves on a reciprocating compressor are operated by air pressure because air pressure is used to open and close the valves. When the air pressure is high, it pushes the valves open, allowing air to enter the compressor. When the air pressure is low, the valves close, preventing air from escaping. This mechanism ensures the proper functioning of the compressor and allows for efficient compression of air.

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  • 31. 

    During a service inspection, the dehydrators of an air compressor should be 

    • A.

      Drained

    • B.

      Replaced

    • C.

      Checked for contamination

    • D.

      Checked for hours since installation

    Correct Answer
    D. Checked for hours since installation
    Explanation
    The dehydrators of an air compressor should be checked for hours since installation during a service inspection because the effectiveness of the dehydrators gradually decreases over time. By checking the hours since installation, technicians can determine if the dehydrators have reached their maximum lifespan and need to be replaced. This helps ensure that the air compressor continues to function properly and maintain the desired level of dryness in the compressed air.

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  • 32. 

    What technical order (TO) contains the periodic inspection (PE) section?

    • A.

      Operation and service TO

    • B.

      Illustrated parts TO

    • C.

      Lubrication chart TO

    • D.

      Overhaul TO

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation and service TO
    Explanation
    The periodic inspection (PE) section is typically found in the Operation and service TO (Technical Order). This TO provides instructions for the regular operation and maintenance of equipment, including scheduled inspections to ensure its proper functioning. It outlines the procedures and requirements for conducting periodic inspections to identify and address any potential issues or maintenance needs. Therefore, the Operation and service TO is the most appropriate TO that contains the periodic inspection section.

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  • 33. 

    To charge the receiver on the MC-2A air compressor, ensure the air control valve is closed and

    • A.

      Let the engine idle

    • B.

      Open the receiver drain valve

    • C.

      Close the receiver drain valve

    • D.

      Open the dehydrator drain valve

    Correct Answer
    C. Close the receiver drain valve
    Explanation
    To charge the receiver on the MC-2A air compressor, it is important to close the receiver drain valve. This valve needs to be closed in order to prevent any air from escaping and to ensure that the receiver is properly pressurized. By closing the drain valve, the air compressor can effectively build up pressure in the receiver, allowing it to store and deliver compressed air as needed.

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  • 34. 

    Prior to performing any maintenance on an air compressor airflow system, you should

    • A.

      Drain the receiver

    • B.

      Turn off all switches

    • C.

      Disconnect the battery

    • D.

      Relieve all air pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Relieve all air pressure
    Explanation
    Before performing any maintenance on an air compressor airflow system, it is important to relieve all air pressure. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person carrying out the maintenance. If the air pressure is not relieved, there is a risk of sudden release of compressed air, which can cause injury. Therefore, it is crucial to release the air pressure before starting any maintenance tasks on the air compressor.

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  • 35. 

    When analyzing an air compressor malfunction, you prioritize possible causes by 

    • A.

      Starting with the simplest possibilities

    • B.

      Starting at the last known source of power

    • C.

      Starting with the most complex possibilities

    • D.

      Replacing possible malfunctioning components

    Correct Answer
    A. Starting with the simplest possibilities
    Explanation
    When analyzing an air compressor malfunction, it is most efficient to start by considering the simplest possibilities as the cause. This approach helps to eliminate any potential issues that may have simple solutions or require minimal intervention. By addressing these simpler possibilities first, it saves time and resources before moving on to more complex causes.

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  • 36. 

    When performing a front end alignment on a nitrogen servicing unit, what component would you adjust to equalize the distance from each steering knuckle king pin to the center of the towbar lunette eye?

    • A.

      Tie rod ends

    • B.

      Clevis pins

    • C.

      Steering knuckle

    • D.

      Brake cable assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Tie rod ends
    Explanation
    When performing a front end alignment on a nitrogen servicing unit, the component that would be adjusted to equalize the distance from each steering knuckle king pin to the center of the towbar lunette eye is the tie rod ends. The tie rod ends are responsible for connecting the steering linkage to the wheels, and adjusting them will help ensure that the wheels are properly aligned and the vehicle moves in a straight line.

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  • 37. 

    Prior to performing maintenance on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart you should ensure that 

    • A.

      The brake is holding

    • B.

      Your tools are free of grease and oil and the cart is drained

    • C.

      That it is parked on asphalt

    • D.

      The shop doors are closed

    Correct Answer
    B. Your tools are free of grease and oil and the cart is drained
    Explanation
    Before performing maintenance on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart, it is important to ensure that your tools are free of grease and oil and the cart is drained. This is necessary to prevent any contamination or potential hazards that could arise from the presence of grease, oil, or residual liquid oxygen in the cart. By ensuring that the tools are clean and the cart is drained, you can minimize the risk of accidents or damage during the maintenance process.

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  • 38. 

    The self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) is categorized as a 

    • A.

      High-pressure air compressor

    • B.

      Low-pressure air compressor

    • C.

      High volume air compressor

    • D.

      Low volume air compressor

    Correct Answer
    A. High-pressure air compressor
    Explanation
    The self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) is categorized as a high-pressure air compressor because it is designed to generate and deliver nitrogen at high pressures. This type of compressor is typically used for applications that require high-pressure air, such as filling aircraft tires or providing pneumatic power for aircraft systems. The SGNSC is specifically designed to generate nitrogen, which is often used in aviation for various purposes, including purging and pressurizing aircraft systems. Therefore, it is classified as a high-pressure air compressor rather than a low-pressure air compressor or a high or low volume air compressor.

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  • 39. 

    What component on the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) removes nitrogen from the ambient air?

    • A.

      Filters

    • B.

      Carbon absorber

    • C.

      Booster compressor

    • D.

      Separation membrane

    Correct Answer
    D. Separation membrane
    Explanation
    A separation membrane is a component on the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) that removes nitrogen from the ambient air. This membrane is designed to selectively allow the passage of nitrogen molecules while blocking other gases, such as oxygen and moisture. As the ambient air is passed through the separation membrane, nitrogen molecules are separated and collected, resulting in a purified nitrogen stream. This purified nitrogen can then be used for various applications, such as inflating aircraft tires or servicing pneumatic systems.

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  • 40. 

    The proper oil level in the feed air compressor lubricant separator tank on the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) should be

    • A.

      2/3 to 3/4 up from the bottom of the sight glass

    • B.

      2/3 to 3/4 down from the top of the sight glass

    • C.

      1/2 up from the bottom of the sight glass

    • D.

      1/2 down from the top of the sight glass

    Correct Answer
    A. 2/3 to 3/4 up from the bottom of the sight glass
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2/3 to 3/4 up from the bottom of the sight glass. This means that the oil level in the feed air compressor lubricant separator tank should be between two-thirds and three-quarters of the way up from the bottom of the sight glass. This ensures that there is enough oil for proper lubrication and operation of the compressor, while also allowing for some room for expansion and fluctuations in oil level. Keeping the oil level within this range helps maintain the efficiency and reliability of the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart.

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  • 41. 

    The radiator must be cleaned during a periodic inspection (PE) of a self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) to 

    • A.

      Remove corrosion

    • B.

      Prevent corrosion

    • C.

      Load the radiator

    • D.

      Aid in heat transfer

    Correct Answer
    D. Aid in heat transfer
    Explanation
    During a periodic inspection of a self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC), cleaning the radiator is necessary to aid in heat transfer. The radiator plays a crucial role in dissipating heat from the system, and any dirt or debris on its surface can hinder this process. By cleaning the radiator, any corrosion or buildup can be removed, allowing for efficient heat transfer and preventing overheating of the system.

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  • 42. 

    To start the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) the operator must place the ignition switch in the start position for no more than

    • A.

      5 seconds

    • B.

      10 seconds

    • C.

      15 seconds

    • D.

      20 seconds

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 seconds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 seconds. This is the maximum amount of time the operator should place the ignition switch in the start position to start the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC). Placing the switch in the start position for longer than 10 seconds could potentially cause damage or other issues with the cart's ignition system.

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  • 43. 

    At what storage cylinder pressure should the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) stop producing nitrogen?

    • A.

      2400 psig

    • B.

      4100 psig

    • C.

      4400 psig

    • D.

      6400 psig

    Correct Answer
    C. 4400 psig
    Explanation
    The self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) should stop producing nitrogen at a storage cylinder pressure of 4400 psig.

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  • 44. 

    During an operational check of a self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) you find that the engine starts, is running at 3,000 revolutions per minute (rpm), but the nitrogen purity does not reach 95.5% within 30 minutes.  What is a probable cause of this malfunction?

    • A.

      Poor air ventilation

    • B.

      Booster compressor defective

    • C.

      Low oil level in the feed air compressor lubricant separator tank

    • D.

      Warming door is not lowered for cold weather operating conditions

    Correct Answer
    D. Warming door is not lowered for cold weather operating conditions
    Explanation
    The probable cause of the malfunction is that the warming door is not lowered for cold weather operating conditions. This means that the SGNSC is not able to maintain the necessary temperature for the nitrogen purity to reach 95.5% within 30 minutes. Lowering the warming door would help to regulate the temperature and improve the nitrogen purity.

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  • 45. 

    What is important to keep in mind when performing maintenance on the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)?

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Ventilation

    • C.

      Wind Direction

    • D.

      Weather conditions

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety
    Explanation
    When performing maintenance on the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC), it is important to prioritize safety. This means following all necessary safety protocols and guidelines to ensure the well-being of the maintenance personnel and prevent any accidents or injuries. Safety should always be the top priority when working with any equipment or machinery, including the SGNSC.

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  • 46. 

    When filling and bleeding the system of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the reservoir selector valve must be in the

    • A.

      Open position

    • B.

      Stand position

    • C.

      External position

    • D.

      Aircraft position

    Correct Answer
    D. Aircraft position
    Explanation
    When filling and bleeding the system of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the reservoir selector valve must be in the aircraft position. This is because the aircraft position allows the hydraulic fluid to flow directly from the aircraft's hydraulic system into the test stand, ensuring that the system is properly filled and bled. The other positions (open, stand, and external) do not provide the necessary connection to the aircraft's hydraulic system and would not allow for proper filling and bleeding of the test stand.

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  • 47. 

    What component protects the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand from overpressurization when the unit is not operating?

    • A.

      High pressure relief valve

    • B.

      Thermal relief valve

    • C.

      Check/relief valve

    • D.

      Fill relief valve

    Correct Answer
    B. Thermal relief valve
    Explanation
    The thermal relief valve protects the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand from overpressurization when the unit is not operating by releasing excess pressure caused by temperature fluctuations. This valve is designed to open and relieve pressure when the temperature of the hydraulic fluid exceeds a certain threshold, preventing damage to the system and ensuring safe operation.

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  • 48. 

    The purpose of the low pressure pump on the MJ-2A-1 is to ensure a constant flow of fluid to the

    • A.

      Relief valve

    • B.

      Aircraft pumps

    • C.

      High pressure pump

    • D.

      Low pressure filters

    Correct Answer
    C. High pressure pump
    Explanation
    The purpose of the low pressure pump on the MJ-2A-1 is to ensure a constant flow of fluid to the high pressure pump. The high pressure pump requires a steady supply of fluid to operate effectively. The low pressure pump helps maintain a consistent flow of fluid, ensuring that the high pressure pump receives an adequate amount of fluid for its operation. This is important for the overall functioning of the system and to prevent any disruptions or damage to the high pressure pump.

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  • 49. 

    In the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the output volume of the high pressure pump is controlled by the

    • A.

      Volume control

    • B.

      Flowmeter assembly

    • C.

      Flow control valve

    • D.

      Angel of the camplate

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is volume control. In the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the output volume of the high pressure pump is controlled by the volume control mechanism. This mechanism allows the operator to adjust the volume of hydraulic fluid being pumped, which in turn affects the pressure and flow rate of the system. By adjusting the volume control, the operator can regulate the output to meet the specific requirements of the test being conducted.

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  • 50. 

    The flowmeter on a MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand shows a fluid

    • A.

      Flow in the return system

    • B.

      Pressure in the return system

    • C.

      Flow in the high pressure system

    • D.

      Pressure in the high pressure system

    Correct Answer
    A. Flow in the return system
    Explanation
    The flowmeter on a MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand is designed to measure the flow of fluid in the return system. This means that it is specifically calibrated and installed to monitor the rate at which fluid is returning back to the system. It is not meant to measure the pressure in either the return system or the high pressure system. Therefore, the correct answer is "flow in the return system."

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 11, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Dinstaar
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