Tecnam P92-js Aircraft Flight Manual Exam

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Aircraft Quizzes & Trivia

For those of you who would like to know more about and all things aircrafts plus things that led to various events in the aircraft filed, this is for you. If you are prepared to test your knowledge try it out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Aircraft has a:

    • A.

      Full JAA type certification

    • B.

      Is type certified under JAA as a VLA (very light aircraft)

    • C.

      Is type certified under JAA as a LSA (light sports aircraft)

    • D.

      Is type certified by the Latvian CAA

    Correct Answer
    B. Is type certified under JAA as a VLA (very light aircraft)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Is type certified under JAA as a VLA (very light aircraft)". This means that the aircraft has undergone the necessary certification process and meets the requirements set by the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) for being classified as a very light aircraft. This certification ensures that the aircraft is safe and suitable for operation as a VLA.

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  • 2. 

    Aircraft has:

    • A.

      1.5 degree dihedral

    • B.

      1.5 degree anhedral

    • C.

      No dihedral / anhedeal

    • D.

      91.5 degree dihedral

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.5 degree dihedral
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1.5 degree dihedral. Dihedral refers to the upward angle of the wings from the horizontal axis of the aircraft. A positive dihedral angle creates stability by allowing the aircraft to roll in response to disturbances, making it easier to control. In this case, the aircraft has a small dihedral angle of 1.5 degrees, indicating a slight upward angle of the wings.

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  • 3. 

    Engine is manufacrured by:

    • A.

      Lycoming

    • B.

      Continental

    • C.

      Rotax GmbH

    • D.

      Bombardier-Rotax GmbH

    Correct Answer
    D. Bombardier-Rotax GmbH
    Explanation
    Bombardier-Rotax GmbH is the correct answer because it is a well-known manufacturer of engines. They have a strong reputation in the industry for producing high-quality engines. Lycoming, Continental, and Rotax GmbH are also engine manufacturers, but Bombardier-Rotax GmbH is the most suitable answer as it specifically mentions the joint venture between Bombardier and Rotax GmbH.

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  • 4. 

    Engine model is:

    • A.

      912 S2

    • B.

      912

    • C.

      912 UL

    • D.

      IO-240B

    Correct Answer
    A. 912 S2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 912 S2 because it is the specific engine model mentioned in the given options. The other options, 912, 912 UL, and IO-240B, are not the exact engine models listed.

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  • 5. 

    Cylinders in the engine are arranged in:

    • A.

      Radial

    • B.

      V-shape

    • C.

      In-line

    • D.

      Horizontally opposed

    Correct Answer
    D. Horizontally opposed
    Explanation
    The cylinders in an engine can be arranged in different configurations. In a horizontally opposed arrangement, the cylinders are positioned opposite each other, with the crankshaft located in the middle. This configuration helps to achieve a lower center of gravity and better balance in the engine, resulting in smoother operation and improved handling. It is commonly used in aircraft engines and some high-performance cars.

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  • 6. 

    Engine has:

    • A.

      2 cylinders

    • B.

      4 cylinders

    • C.

      6 cylinders

    • D.

      8 cylinders

    Correct Answer
    B. 4 cylinders
    Explanation
    The engine has 4 cylinders.

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  • 7. 

    Engine is:

    • A.

      Liquid cooled

    • B.

      Air cooled

    • C.

      Cooled by air and cooling is aided by the use of cowl flaps

    • D.

      Liquid and air cooled

    Correct Answer
    D. Liquid and air cooled
    Explanation
    The engine is both liquid and air cooled. This means that it uses a combination of liquid coolant and airflow to regulate its temperature. The liquid coolant helps to absorb and dissipate heat from the engine, while the airflow provided by the use of cowl flaps aids in cooling the engine further. This combination of cooling methods allows for efficient temperature regulation and helps prevent overheating of the engine.

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  • 8. 

    Maximum power (less than 5 minutes) of the engine is:

    • A.

      98.6 hp

    • B.

      121 hp

    • C.

      88.5 hp

    • D.

      100 hp

    Correct Answer
    A. 98.6 hp
    Explanation
    The maximum power of the engine is determined to be 98.6 hp.

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  • 9. 

    Maximum continuous power is:

    • A.

      92.5hp

    • B.

      51.5hp

    • C.

      100hp

    • D.

      105.5hp

    Correct Answer
    A. 92.5hp
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous power is stated to be 92.5hp. This means that the engine or device can consistently produce a maximum power output of 92.5 horsepower without any interruptions or limitations.

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  • 10. 

    Engine can be run at maximum continuous power for:

    • A.

      A maximum of 5 minutes

    • B.

      A maximum of 7 minutes

    • C.

      As long as oil temperature, cylinder head temperature and oil pressure remain bellow specific values

    • D.

      A maximum of 3 minute

    Correct Answer
    A. A maximum of 5 minutes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A maximum of 5 minutes." This means that the engine can only be run at maximum continuous power for a maximum duration of 5 minutes. It is important to adhere to this time limit to prevent any potential damage to the engine.

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  • 11. 

    Propeller is:

    • A.

      Made of composites

    • B.

      Made of wood

    • C.

      Made of aluminum

    • D.

      A variable pitch propeller

    Correct Answer
    B. Made of wood
    Explanation
    Wood is a common material used in the construction of propellers. It is lightweight, durable, and has excellent strength-to-weight ratio, making it suitable for propeller applications. Wood propellers are also known for their natural balance and ability to absorb vibrations, resulting in smoother operation. Additionally, wood propellers can be easily repaired or reshaped if damaged, making them a cost-effective choice.

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  • 12. 

    Standard empty weight of the aircraft is:

    • A.

      550 kg

    • B.

      325 kg

    • C.

      225 kg

    • D.

      358 kg

    Correct Answer
    B. 325 kg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 325 kg. This refers to the standard empty weight of the aircraft, which is the weight of the aircraft without any fuel, passengers, or cargo. It is an important measurement for determining the maximum weight capacity and performance of the aircraft.

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  • 13. 

    You may refuel

    • A.

      At least 95 octane MOGAS or AVGAS 100

    • B.

      At least 98 octane MOGAS or AVGAS 100LL

    • C.

      At least 95 octane MOGAS or AVGAS 100LL

    • D.

      At least 98 octane MOGAS or AVGAS 100

    Correct Answer
    C. At least 95 octane MOGAS or AVGAS 100LL
  • 14. 

    Colour of AVGAS 100LL is:

    • A.

      Blue

    • B.

      Red

    • C.

      Green

    • D.

      Straw

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue
    Explanation
    AVGAS 100LL is a type of aviation gasoline commonly used in piston engine aircraft. It is dyed blue to distinguish it from other types of fuel. The blue color helps to prevent accidental misfueling of aircraft with other types of fuel, such as jet fuel or diesel. This color coding system ensures that the correct type of fuel is used for each aircraft, promoting safety and preventing potential engine damage.

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  • 15. 

    Fuel capacity of each wing tank is (long range tanks):

    • A.

      35 liters

    • B.

      70 liters

    • C.

      34 liters

    • D.

      45 liters

    Correct Answer
    A. 35 liters
    Explanation
    The fuel capacity of each wing tank is 35 liters.

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  • 16. 

    Total unusable fuel is:

    • A.

      87.5 liters

    • B.

      3.2 liters

    • C.

      2 liters

    • D.

      1.5 liters

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.2 liters
    Explanation
    The given answer of 3.2 liters is the total unusable fuel.

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  • 17. 

    Engine oil cooling is based on:

    • A.

      Wet sump system

    • B.

      Dry sump system

    • C.

      An air cooling system

    • D.

      A liquid cooling system

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry sump system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the dry sump system. In a dry sump system, the engine oil is stored in a separate reservoir rather than in the oil pan. This allows for better cooling of the oil as it is not in direct contact with the hot engine components. The oil is circulated through a series of coolers to dissipate heat more efficiently. This system is commonly used in high-performance and racing engines to prevent oil starvation and maintain consistent lubrication under high G-forces and extreme operating conditions.

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  • 18. 

    Maximum baggage mass is:

    • A.

      10kg

    • B.

      20kg

    • C.

      30kg

    • D.

      40kg

    Correct Answer
    B. 20kg
    Explanation
    The maximum baggage mass allowed is 20kg. This means that passengers cannot exceed this weight limit when checking in their baggage. It is important to adhere to this limit to ensure safety and efficiency in handling luggage during travel. Exceeding the weight limit may result in additional charges or the need to remove items from the baggage.

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  • 19. 

    Maximum take-off mass is (Standard aircraft):

    • A.

      550kg

    • B.

      450kg

    • C.

      500kg

    • D.

      600kg

    Correct Answer
    A. 550kg
    Explanation
    The maximum take-off mass for a standard aircraft is 550kg. This means that the aircraft, including its fuel, passengers, and cargo, cannot exceed this weight when taking off. It is an important safety consideration as exceeding the maximum take-off mass can affect the aircraft's performance and ability to safely lift off the ground.

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  • 20. 

    Maximum useful load (Standard aircraft)

    • A.

      Is 225kg

    • B.

      Is 192kg

    • C.

      Does not include fuel

    • D.

      Does not include baggage

    Correct Answer
    A. Is 225kg
    Explanation
    The maximum useful load for a standard aircraft is 225kg. This means that the aircraft can carry a maximum weight of 225kg, which includes passengers, cargo, and any other items on board. It does not include the weight of fuel or baggage.

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  • 21. 

    Vne in KIAS

    Correct Answer
    134
  • 22. 

    Vno in KIAS

    Correct Answer
    113
  • 23. 

    Va in KIAS

    Correct Answer
    93
  • 24. 

    Vfe in KIAS

    Correct Answer
    68
  • 25. 

    Vs1 in KIAS

    Correct Answer
    44
  • 26. 

    Vne

    • A.

      Can be exceeded in smooth air

    • B.

      Can not be exceeded

    • C.

      Can be exceeded in a dive

    • D.

      Can not be exceeded in turbulent air

    Correct Answer
    B. Can not be exceeded
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Can not be exceeded". Vne refers to the never exceed speed, which is the maximum speed that should not be exceeded under any circumstances. This speed is determined by the aircraft manufacturer and is based on factors such as structural limitations and safety considerations. Exceeding Vne can lead to structural damage or loss of control of the aircraft, so it is important for pilots to adhere to this speed limit.

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  • 27. 

    Maximum continuous propeller RPM is

    • A.

      5800 RPM

    • B.

      2388 RPM

    • C.

      2265 RPM

    • D.

      5500 RPM

    Correct Answer
    C. 2265 RPM
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous propeller RPM is 2265 RPM. This means that the propeller should not exceed this speed for a prolonged period of time. Going above this RPM could potentially cause damage to the propeller or other components of the system. It is important to adhere to the specified RPM limit to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the propeller.

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  • 28. 

    Maximum propeller RPM (maximum time 5 minutes) is:

    • A.

      5800 RPM

    • B.

      2388 RPM

    • C.

      2265 RPM

    • D.

      5500 RPM

    Correct Answer
    B. 2388 RPM
  • 29. 

    Maximum cylinder head temperature is:

    • A.

      125° C

    • B.

      135° C

    • C.

      130° C

    • D.

      140° C

    Correct Answer
    B. 135° C
    Explanation
    The maximum cylinder head temperature is 135° C. This means that the temperature of the cylinder head should not exceed 135° C in order to prevent any potential damage or malfunction. It is important to monitor and control the temperature to ensure the engine operates within safe limits.

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  • 30. 

    Maximum oil temperature for normal operating is:

    • A.

      110° C

    • B.

      135° C

    • C.

      140° C

    • D.

      145° C

    Correct Answer
    A. 110° C
    Explanation
    The maximum oil temperature for normal operating is 110°C. This means that the oil should not exceed this temperature during regular operation. Exceeding this temperature could lead to damage or malfunction of the equipment or system that relies on the oil for lubrication or cooling. It is important to monitor and control the oil temperature to ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the machinery.

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  • 31. 

    Minimum oil temperature before take-off is:

    • A.

      50° C

    • B.

      60° C

    • C.

      70° C

    • D.

      There is no minimum oil temperature for normal operation

    Correct Answer
    A. 50° C
    Explanation
    The minimum oil temperature before take-off is 50°C. This means that the oil temperature must be at least 50°C before the aircraft can safely take off. This is important because the oil helps lubricate and cool the engine, and if the oil is too cold, it may not be able to perform these functions effectively. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that the oil temperature is at least 50°C before initiating take-off procedures.

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  • 32. 

    Minimum cylinder head temperature is:

    • A.

      50° C

    • B.

      60° C

    • C.

      70° C

    • D.

      There is no minimum cylinder head temperature for normal operation

    Correct Answer
    D. There is no minimum cylinder head temperature for normal operation
    Explanation
    The given answer states that there is no minimum cylinder head temperature for normal operation. This means that the engine can operate within a range of temperatures without any specific minimum requirement for the cylinder head temperature. This is likely because the cylinder head temperature can vary depending on factors such as engine load, ambient temperature, and cooling system efficiency. As long as the temperature remains within a safe operating range, there is no specific minimum temperature that needs to be maintained for normal operation.

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  • 33. 

    Maximum oil pressure allowed is

    • A.

      0.8 bar

    • B.

      5 bar

    • C.

      5.5 bar

    • D.

      7 bars is admissible for cold start for a short period

    Correct Answer
    D. 7 bars is admissible for cold start for a short period
    Explanation
    The maximum oil pressure allowed for a cold start for a short period is 7 bars. This means that during a cold start, the oil pressure can temporarily reach up to 7 bars before it needs to stabilize. It is important to have a higher oil pressure during cold starts to ensure proper lubrication and protection of the engine components. However, this higher pressure is only permissible for a short period to prevent any potential damage to the engine.

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  • 34. 

    Minimum oil pressure for normal operating is

    • A.

      0.8 bar

    • B.

      2 bar

    • C.

      0.5 bar

    • D.

      4.4 bar

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 bar
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 bar. This means that the minimum oil pressure required for normal operating is 2 bar. Oil pressure is important for lubricating and cooling the engine components, so maintaining the proper oil pressure is crucial for the engine's performance and longevity. A lower oil pressure can indicate a problem with the oil pump or a leak, while a higher oil pressure can indicate a blockage or restriction in the oil passages. Therefore, it is important to monitor and maintain the oil pressure within the recommended range to ensure the engine's proper functioning.

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  • 35. 

    Maximum engine operating temperature is:

    • A.

      + 25° C

    • B.

      + 40° C

    • C.

      + 70° C

    • D.

      + 90° C

    Correct Answer
    B. + 40° C
    Explanation
    The maximum engine operating temperature is + 40° C. This means that the engine can safely operate at temperatures up to 40° C without causing any damage or performance issues. Operating the engine at temperatures higher than this could potentially lead to overheating and other problems. It is important to monitor the engine temperature and take appropriate measures to prevent it from exceeding the maximum operating temperature.

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  • 36. 

    Maximum fuel pressure:

    • A.

      2.2 psi

    • B.

      3.3 psi

    • C.

      1.0 psi

    • D.

      5.8 psi

    Correct Answer
    D. 5.8 psi
    Explanation
    The maximum fuel pressure is 5.8 psi. This means that the fuel system is designed to operate at a maximum pressure of 5.8 pounds per square inch. This information is important for ensuring that the fuel system is functioning properly and that the correct pressure is being maintained for efficient fuel delivery to the engine.

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  • 37. 

    Minimum fuel pressure:

    • A.

      1.0 psi

    • B.

      14.0 psi

    • C.

      2.2 psi

    • D.

      5.0 psi

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.2 psi
    Explanation
    The minimum fuel pressure required is 2.2 psi. This means that the fuel system needs to maintain a pressure of at least 2.2 psi in order to properly function. If the pressure drops below this level, it can cause issues with fuel delivery and engine performance. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the fuel pressure is always above the minimum requirement.

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  • 38. 

    Maximum suction pressure is:

    • A.

      1 in. Hg

    • B.

      5.5 in. Hg

    • C.

      55 in Hg

    • D.

      14 in Hg

    Correct Answer
    B. 5.5 in. Hg
    Explanation
    The maximum suction pressure is determined by the capacity and power of the suction pump. In this case, the correct answer is 5.5 in. Hg, indicating that the pump can create a maximum suction pressure of 5.5 inches of mercury. This means that the pump is capable of generating enough vacuum to lift a column of mercury to a height of 5.5 inches.

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  • 39. 

    Minimum suction pressure is:

    • A.

      4 in. Hg

    • B.

      0 in. Hg

    • C.

      55 in Hg

    • D.

      14 in Hg

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 in. Hg
    Explanation
    The minimum suction pressure is the lowest pressure at which a suction system can effectively operate. In this case, the correct answer is 4 in. Hg, indicating that the system can operate at a minimum pressure of 4 inches of mercury.

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  • 40. 

    Aircraft is certified:

    • A.

      In aerobatics category

    • B.

      In utility category

    • C.

      In normal category

    • D.

      In VLA category

    Correct Answer
    C. In normal category
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In normal category". This means that the aircraft has met all the necessary requirements and standards to be certified for normal operations. It indicates that the aircraft is suitable for general aviation purposes and can be used for regular flights, without any specific restrictions or limitations.

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  • 41. 

    P92-JS maybe operated:

    • A.

      Under IFR

    • B.

      Only under VFR, day and night

    • C.

      Only under VFR, only day

    • D.

      Under IFR if IFR equipped

    Correct Answer
    C. Only under VFR, only day
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "only under VFR, only day." This means that the aircraft can only be operated under Visual Flight Rules (VFR) and only during daylight hours. It cannot be operated under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or at night.

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  • 42. 

    Aircraft is approved for:

    • A.

      Spinning

    • B.

      Due to forward center of gravity it is not possible to enter a spin

    • C.

      Is not approved for spinning

    • D.

      Can only be approved for spinning if an STC spin kit is installed

    Correct Answer
    D. Can only be approved for spinning if an STC spin kit is installed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Can only be approved for spinning if an STC spin kit is installed." This means that the aircraft can be approved for spinning, but only if a specific modification called an STC spin kit is installed. Without this modification, the aircraft is not approved for spinning. The reason for this requirement is likely related to the forward center of gravity, which makes it difficult or unsafe for the aircraft to enter a spin without the additional equipment provided by the spin kit.

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  • 43. 

    Load factors for the aircraft are:

    • A.

      +3.8G / -1.9G

    • B.

      +4.4G / -1.76G

    • C.

      +6.0G / -3.0G

    • D.

      +2.5G / -1.5G

    Correct Answer
    A. +3.8G / -1.9G
    Explanation
    The given answer, +3.8G / -1.9G, represents the load factors for the aircraft. Load factor refers to the ratio of the total load supported by the aircraft to its weight. In this case, the aircraft can withstand a maximum positive load factor of 3.8G, which means it can support 3.8 times its own weight before reaching its structural limit. The maximum negative load factor is -1.9G, indicating that the aircraft can withstand 1.9 times its weight in the opposite direction. These load factors are important for determining the structural integrity and limits of the aircraft during flight maneuvers and turbulence.

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  • 44. 

    Tecnam P92 is a:

    • A.

      Single pilot aircraft

    • B.

      Multi pilot aircraft

    • C.

      May be operated as a multi pilot aircraft provided it is operated for public air transport

    • D.

      Requires a type rating

    Correct Answer
    A. Single pilot aircraft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Single pilot aircraft. This means that the Tecnam P92 is designed to be operated by only one pilot. It does not require multiple pilots to operate the aircraft.

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  • 45. 

    Aircraft minimum equiptment required:

    • A.

      Altimeter

    • B.

      Airspeed indicator

    • C.

      Heading indicator

    • D.

      VOR indicator

    • E.

      Fuel gauge

    • F.

      Oil pressure indicator

    • G.

      Oil temperature indicator

    • H.

      Cylinder head temperature indicator

    • I.

      Outside air temperature indicator

    • J.

      Tachometer

    • K.

      Chronometer

    • L.

      First aid kit

    • M.

      Hand-held fire extinguisher

    • N.

      Life raft

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Altimeter
    B. Airspeed indicator
    C. Heading indicator
    E. Fuel gauge
    F. Oil pressure indicator
    G. Oil temperature indicator
    H. Cylinder head temperature indicator
    I. Outside air temperature indicator
    J. Tachometer
    K. Chronometer
    L. First aid kit
    M. Hand-held fire extinguisher
    Explanation
    The given list includes the minimum equipment required for an aircraft. These instruments are essential for safe flight operations. The altimeter is used to measure the altitude of the aircraft, the airspeed indicator measures the speed of the aircraft, and the heading indicator indicates the aircraft's direction. The fuel gauge, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator, and cylinder head temperature indicator are crucial for monitoring the engine's performance and ensuring its proper functioning. The outside air temperature indicator helps in determining the temperature outside the aircraft. The tachometer measures the engine's revolutions per minute, and the chronometer is used for accurate timekeeping. The first aid kit and hand-held fire extinguisher are necessary for emergencies, and the life raft is essential for over-water flights.

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  • 46. 

    Maximum demonstrated crosswind component for the aircraft is:

    • A.

      13 knots

    • B.

      15 knots

    • C.

      16 knots

    • D.

      18 knots

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 knots
    Explanation
    The maximum demonstrated crosswind component for the aircraft is 15 knots. This means that the aircraft has been tested and proven to be able to safely handle crosswinds up to this speed. Any crosswind exceeding this limit may pose a risk to the aircraft's stability and control during takeoff or landing. It is important for pilots to be aware of the maximum demonstrated crosswind component for their aircraft in order to make informed decisions and ensure the safety of the flight.

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  • 47. 

    Best glide speed at MTOM and clean configuration is:

    • A.

      60 KIAS

    • B.

      66 KIAS

    • C.

      68 KIAS

    • D.

      70 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    B. 66 KIAS
    Explanation
    The best glide speed at maximum takeoff weight (MTOM) and in a clean configuration is 66 KIAS. This means that when the aircraft is at its maximum weight and all unnecessary drag-inducing components (such as landing gear or flaps) are retracted, the optimal glide speed for maintaining the longest distance and time in the air is 66 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS). This speed allows for the most efficient use of the aircraft's aerodynamic properties and minimizes the rate of descent.

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  • 48. 

    Best glide speed at 450 KG or with flaps extened to 15° is:

    • A.

      60 KIAS

    • B.

      66 KIAS

    • C.

      68 KIAS

    • D.

      63 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 KIAS
    Explanation
    The best glide speed at 450 KG or with flaps extended to 15° is 60 KIAS. This means that when the aircraft is at this weight or with the flaps at this angle, the optimal speed for maintaining the longest glide distance is 60 knots indicated airspeed. This speed allows for the most efficient use of the available lift generated by the wings, maximizing the aircraft's glide range.

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  • 49. 

    Best glide speed at 550 KG and flaps extened to 15° is:

    • A.

      60 KIAS

    • B.

      66 KIAS

    • C.

      68 KIAS

    • D.

      63 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 KIAS
    Explanation
    The best glide speed at 550 KG and flaps extended to 15° is 60 KIAS. This means that when the aircraft is at this weight and the flaps are set to 15°, the most efficient speed to maintain for a glide is 60 knots indicated airspeed. This speed allows the aircraft to maximize its gliding distance and maintain control while descending without power.

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  • 50. 

    In case of an engine failure during take-off I should first:

    • A.

      Land in the front sector

    • B.

      Pitch for 60 KIAS and find a suitable place to land

    • C.

      Pitch for 60 KIAS and land in the front sector avoiding obstacles

    • D.

      Pitch for 60 KIAS and try to restart the engine

    Correct Answer
    C. Pitch for 60 KIAS and land in the front sector avoiding obstacles
    Explanation
    In case of an engine failure during take-off, the correct first action is to pitch for 60 KIAS (Knots Indicated Airspeed) and land in the front sector while avoiding obstacles. This means that the pilot should adjust the aircraft's pitch to maintain a speed of 60 knots indicated airspeed and aim to land in an area that is in front of the aircraft's current position. The pilot should also be cautious of any obstacles, such as buildings or trees, and try to avoid them while landing. This action prioritizes the safety of the aircraft and its occupants by ensuring a controlled landing in a suitable area.

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