Aircrew Flight Equipment 7 Level

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1. For the transportation of explosives on base you would establish a?

Explanation

To ensure the safe transportation of explosives on base, it is important to establish a primary and alternate route. This allows for flexibility in case the primary route becomes unavailable or unsafe. Having both routes planned and prepared in advance ensures that the transportation process can continue smoothly and without any unnecessary risks.

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About This Quiz
Flight Operations Quizzes & Trivia

Part of preparing a plane for flight is making sure they’re equipped with supplies for any situation. Aircrew Flight Equipment specialists make sure Airmen have the supplies necessary for any situation for example parachutes and oxygen masks. Test your understanding of the equipment by taking the quiz below. All the... see morebest! see less

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2. How many days in advance do units forcast or project ancillary training?

Explanation

Ancillary training refers to additional training or support provided to enhance the skills or knowledge of individuals. Forecasting or projecting ancillary training involves estimating the demand or need for such training in advance. The correct answer of 60 suggests that units typically forecast or project ancillary training 60 days in advance. This means that they plan and prepare for the training program two months ahead to ensure timely and effective delivery of the additional training or support.

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3. What should be your number one concern when instructing aircrew flight equipment  continuation training (AFECT) courses?

Explanation

When instructing aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) courses, safety should be the number one concern. This is because AFECT courses involve training aircrew on the proper use and maintenance of flight equipment, which directly impacts their safety during flights. By prioritizing safety, instructors can ensure that aircrew are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to operate the equipment safely, minimizing the risk of accidents or injuries during flight operations.

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4. What is conducted in an enviornment as realistic as possible to determine the systems effectiveness and suitability, and to ensure requirements are met?  

Explanation

Operational test and evaluation (OT&E) is conducted in an environment as realistic as possible to determine the system's effectiveness and suitability, ensuring that requirements are met. This process involves testing the system under realistic operational conditions to assess its performance, identify any issues or discrepancies, and evaluate its overall effectiveness. OT&E provides valuable insights into the system's capabilities, limitations, and potential improvements, helping to inform decision-making and ensure that the system is ready for operational use.

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5. How should the equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) be marked?

Explanation

The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) should be marked with "For training use only" to clearly indicate that it is intended for training purposes and not for actual flight operations. This marking helps prevent confusion and ensures that the equipment is not mistakenly used in real-life situations where it may not meet the necessary safety standards or requirements.

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6. After completing the inspection used for the aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) what must be done.

Explanation

After completing the inspection for the aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT), it is necessary to document the inspection. This means that a record or report should be created, detailing the findings of the inspection, any issues or concerns identified, and any actions taken or recommendations made. This documentation is important for record-keeping purposes, as well as for future reference and to ensure compliance with regulations and safety standards.

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7. Which aircrew continuation class is used for members prior to their first flight?

Explanation

LL01 is the correct answer because it is the aircrew continuation class that is used for members prior to their first flight. This class is designed to provide essential training and knowledge to aircrew members before they start their actual flight duties. It covers topics such as safety procedures, emergency protocols, aircraft systems, and communication protocols. By completing this class, members can ensure that they are well-prepared and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties safely and effectively during their first flight.

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8. What is your most important trait when it comes to training?

Explanation

Attitude is the most important trait when it comes to training because it determines one's willingness to learn, adapt, and persevere. A positive attitude enables individuals to approach training with enthusiasm, open-mindedness, and a growth mindset. It allows them to overcome challenges, stay motivated, and continuously improve their skills. Experience, knowledge, and performance are undoubtedly valuable, but without the right attitude, they may not be effectively utilized or developed. Attitude sets the foundation for success in training by shaping one's mindset and approach towards learning and development.

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9. Air Force mishaps that results in total destruction or damage beyond economical repair to an Air Force aircraft are considered class.

Explanation

The correct answer is A.

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10. Which class of mishape does not involve USAF operations, but results in injuries to USAF military personnel or property damage?

Explanation

Off duty mishaps refer to accidents or incidents that occur when military personnel are not on duty or engaged in USAF operations. These mishaps do not directly involve USAF operations but can still cause injuries to USAF military personnel or damage to USAF property. These incidents could happen during personal time, recreational activities, or while off base. It is important to distinguish between on duty and off duty mishaps as they may have different reporting and accountability procedures.

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11. Into which subsystem would a survival radio be placed?

Explanation

A survival radio would be placed in the survival and recovery subsystem. This is because a survival radio is specifically designed to be used in emergency situations where survival and recovery are necessary. It is meant to aid individuals in calling for help and communicating with rescue teams during survival situations, such as being stranded or lost in a remote location. Therefore, it is logical to place a survival radio in the subsystem that is dedicated to handling such survival and recovery operations.

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12. Prior to assigning individual work duties, you should first?

Explanation

Before assigning individual work duties, it is important to evaluate the individuals' on-the-job training (OJT) records. This evaluation helps in assessing the skills, knowledge, and experience of the individuals. By reviewing their OJT records, you can determine their strengths and weaknesses and make informed decisions about assigning appropriate work duties. Training the individual on the task may be necessary, but it should come after evaluating their OJT records to ensure that the assigned tasks align with their capabilities. Erasing all tasks in the individual's OJT records is not necessary or relevant to the process of assigning work duties.

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13. What is your first responsibility when receiving a new or updated material data sheet (MSDS)

Explanation

When receiving a new or updated material data sheet (MSDS), your first responsibility is to study it to determine how it affects your operations. This is important because the MSDS provides crucial information about the hazards, handling, and storage of the material. By studying it, you can understand the potential risks and take necessary precautions to ensure the safety of yourself and others. Logging the MSDS in the safety book, removing the hazard from service, and filing it with other MSDS are also important steps, but they come after studying and understanding the information provided in the MSDS.

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14. When may consumables such as halocarbon be placed in composite tool kits (CTK)?

Explanation

If consumables such as halocarbon are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables, they may be placed in composite tool kits (CTK). This indicates that they have been approved and designated for use in CTKs.

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15. Containers of oily rags, combustible scraps, and waste materials must be emptied?

Explanation

Containers of oily rags, combustible scraps, and waste materials must be emptied daily to prevent the accumulation of flammable materials. This helps to minimize the risk of fire and ensures a safe working environment. Regularly emptying these containers prevents the buildup of potentially hazardous substances and reduces the chances of accidental ignition. Therefore, it is important to empty these containers on a daily basis.

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16. Which major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for development and/or revision or formal resident (3-level), nonresident (5 and /or 7-level CDC), field and exportable training based on requirements established by th emajor command functional managers (MFM)?

Explanation

Air Education and Training Command (AETC) is responsible for the development and/or revision of formal resident (3-level), nonresident (5 and/or 7-level CDC), field, and exportable training based on requirements established by the major command functional managers (MFM). This means that AETC is in charge of creating and updating training programs for various levels of education and training within the Air Force.

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17. A timely mishap investigation relies on?

Explanation

A timely mishap investigation relies on prompt notification because it is crucial to be informed about the incident as soon as possible. Prompt notification allows for immediate action to be taken, ensuring that the investigation can begin promptly and any necessary corrective actions can be implemented. Without prompt notification, valuable time may be lost, making it more difficult to gather accurate information and potentially delaying the resolution of the mishap.

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18. Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be?

Explanation

Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be segregated. This means that they should be kept separate from each other to prevent any accidents or mishaps. Segregating explosive items ensures that there is no mixing of serviceable and unserviceable items, reducing the risk of accidental detonation or damage to the usable explosives. It also helps in maintaining inventory control and facilitates the safe disposal or proper handling of unserviceable items.

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19. Prior to using the career field education and tarining plan (CFETP), you must ensure it is?

Explanation

The correct answer is to ensure that the CFETP is the latest edition. This is important because career field education and training plans are regularly updated to reflect changes in job requirements, technology, and best practices. Using an outdated version of the CFETP may result in outdated training and education, which could lead to inefficiencies or inaccuracies in job performance. Therefore, it is crucial to use the latest edition of the CFETP to ensure that the training and education provided align with current standards and expectations.

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20. When is an aircrew flight equipment officer (AFEO) or senior non-commissioned officer (SNCO) appointed to a investigation board (SIB)?

Explanation

An aircrew flight equipment officer (AFEO) or senior non-commissioned officer (SNCO) is appointed to an investigation board (SIB) when the mishap involves aircrew equipment, egress, or survival. This means that if there is an incident or accident related to the equipment used by the aircrew, their ability to exit the aircraft, or their survival during and after the incident, an AFEO or SNCO will be appointed to the investigation board to provide expertise and insights in these specific areas.

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21. What classification of mishaps results in injuries that only require first aid treatment and esult in no lost days from work?

Explanation

Class D mishaps are the classification of mishaps that result in injuries that only require first aid treatment and do not lead to any lost days from work. This means that the injuries sustained are minor and can be easily treated with basic first aid measures, without causing any significant impact on the individual's ability to work or perform their regular duties.

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22. In what case may operational aircrew flight equipment (AFE) assets be used for training?

Explanation

Operational aircrew flight equipment (AFE) assets may be used for training in critical cases such as night vision goggles and survival radios. This suggests that in situations where the training requires the use of specialized equipment that is critical for the safety and effectiveness of the aircrew, AFE assets can be utilized. However, it is important to note that this should only be done in exceptional circumstances and not as a regular practice.

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23. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is designed to indicate a unit's?

Explanation

SORTS is designed to assess a unit's ability to undertake its full mission. It provides a comprehensive evaluation of a unit's readiness by analyzing various factors such as personnel, equipment, training, and logistics. By measuring these elements, SORTS determines whether a unit has the necessary resources and training to effectively execute its assigned mission. The assessment helps commanders identify any gaps or deficiencies in the unit's readiness and take appropriate actions to address them.

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24. What agency develops the operational requirements document (ORD)?

Explanation

The lead operating command develops the operational requirements document (ORD). This document outlines the specific requirements and criteria that need to be met in order for a particular operation to be successful. It is the responsibility of the lead operating command to gather input from various stakeholders and develop a comprehensive ORD that addresses all necessary aspects of the operation. This ensures that all parties involved have a clear understanding of what is expected and can work towards achieving the desired outcome.

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25. Who must document compliance with and operational risk management program has been conducted within your training program?

Explanation

The correct answer is the aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or aircrew flight equipment officer (AFEO). This is because they are responsible for overseeing the compliance with and operational risk management program within the training program. They have the authority and knowledge to document and ensure that the necessary procedures and protocols are followed to maintain compliance and manage operational risks effectively.

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26. When if ever are common harware items such as helmet studs, nuts, and (or) locking washers authorized to be in the composite tool kit (CTK)?

Explanation

Common hardware items such as helmet studs, nuts, and locking washers are authorized to be in the composite tool kit (CTK) when they are required as tools. This means that if these items are necessary for performing a specific task or repair, they can be included in the CTK. It is important to have these items readily available in the kit to ensure that the necessary tools are accessible when needed.

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27. Training waivers provide?

Explanation

Training waivers provide a means for saving training resources without affecting career progression. This means that individuals can be exempted from certain training requirements without it negatively impacting their career advancement. By granting waivers, organizations can allocate their training resources more efficiently and allow individuals to focus on areas where they need the most development. This can lead to a more targeted and effective training program overall.

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28. Weapons safety training is conducted by the?

Explanation

Weapons safety training is conducted by the base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO. These individuals are responsible for ensuring that all personnel are trained in the safe handling and use of weapons. They have the knowledge and expertise to teach proper procedures and protocols to minimize the risk of accidents or injuries. Conducting regular safety training is crucial in maintaining a safe and secure environment for everyone involved.

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29. Where is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) information on an Air Force publication?

Explanation

The office of primary responsibility (OPR) information on an Air Force publication is typically found on the cover page of the publication. This information is important as it identifies the office or individual responsible for the content and maintenance of the publication. By locating the OPR information on the cover page, readers can easily contact the appropriate office or individual if they have any questions or need further information regarding the publication.

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30. What should be done as a minimum to a physiological mishap victim prior to removing the helmet and mask?

Explanation

Before removing the helmet and mask from a physiological mishap victim, it is important to mark the mask bayonets. This is necessary to ensure that the mask can be properly reattached after removal, as it helps in aligning the mask correctly with the helmet. By marking the mask bayonets, it becomes easier to reassemble the helmet and mask without causing any further harm or discomfort to the victim.

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31. When will you receive additional training in Air Force Hazardous communications safety program (AFHCP) specific hazards?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Upon initial assignment and before exposure to hazardous materials." This means that you will receive additional training in the Air Force Hazardous Communications Safety Program specific hazards when you are first assigned to a position that involves exposure to hazardous materials. This training is important to ensure that you are aware of the specific hazards associated with the materials you will be working with and how to safely handle them. It is crucial to receive this training before being exposed to any hazardous materials to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of yourself and others.

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32. Weapons safety training is required?

Explanation

Weapons safety training is required initially before performing explosive-related maintenance to ensure that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle and operate the weapons safely. It is also required annually to refresh and reinforce this training, keeping individuals updated with any new information or procedures. This ensures that individuals are consistently aware of the safety protocols and can prevent accidents or mishandling of weapons.

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33. The master inventory list (MIL) remains valid until?

Explanation

The master inventory list (MIL) remains valid until the contents change. This means that the list is accurate and up to date as long as there are no changes in the items or products it includes. Once there is a change in the contents, such as adding or removing items, the MIL needs to be updated to reflect the new inventory. This ensures that the list remains accurate and useful for tracking and managing inventory.

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34. What survey is designated to indicate the quality of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) product (technical school graduates) to the field?

Explanation

The Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS) is designated to indicate the quality of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) product, specifically technical school graduates, to the field. This survey is likely used to gather feedback and evaluate the effectiveness of the training provided by AETC, as well as the overall satisfaction and preparedness of the graduates. It helps to assess the quality of education and training offered by AETC and make any necessary improvements or adjustments.

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35. To perform a proper periodic inspection od an explosive operation, you would?

Explanation

To perform a proper periodic inspection of an explosive operation, it is important not to limit the inspection to one area. This is because explosive operations involve various components and processes that may be spread across different areas. By inspecting only one specific area, there is a risk of overlooking potential hazards or issues in other areas. A comprehensive inspection that covers all relevant areas ensures a thorough evaluation of the entire operation, helping to identify and address any safety concerns effectively.

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36. When you decertify a newly assigned person on a task they are not qualified to do, you must then place that person in?

Explanation

When a newly assigned person is decertified on a task they are not qualified to do, the appropriate course of action is to provide them with qualification training. This training will help them gain the necessary skills and knowledge to become qualified in performing the task. By undergoing qualification training, the person will be able to develop the required competencies and meet the standards necessary for performing the task effectively and safely.

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37. What are the two types of safety borads that occur when dealing with an aircraft mishap?

Explanation

The correct answer is ISB and the SIB. ISB stands for interim safety board, which is a temporary board formed immediately after an aircraft mishap to conduct a preliminary investigation and gather initial information. SIB stands for safety investigation board, which is a more formal and comprehensive board that is formed later to conduct a thorough investigation into the mishap and determine the root causes and contributing factors. Both boards play a crucial role in ensuring aviation safety by identifying lessons learned and making recommendations to prevent similar incidents in the future.

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38. When may an explosive laden vehicle be loaded and unloaded while the engine is running?

Explanation

An explosive laden vehicle may be loaded and unloaded while the engine is running when the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load/unload explosives. This is because the support equipment may require the engine's power to operate effectively during the loading and unloading process.

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39. An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) awarding course is what type of training?

Explanation

A resident training refers to a type of training where individuals are required to physically attend a specific location, such as a school or training center, to receive instruction. In the context of the given question, an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) awarding course being classified as "resident" means that it involves in-person attendance at a specific training facility to earn the AFSC.

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40. Before granting an explosive facility license, the base explosive safety representative must?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Inspected the proposed facility." Before granting an explosive facility license, the base explosive safety representative needs to inspect the proposed facility to ensure that it meets all the necessary safety standards and requirements. This inspection is crucial to identify any potential hazards or risks associated with the facility and to ensure that all necessary precautions are in place to prevent accidents or incidents related to explosives.

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41. A limited quanity of which in-use aircrew flight equipment (AFE) explosives may be held in the shop storage area when removed from aircraft undergoing maintenance?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Any class and/or division." This means that a limited quantity of explosives from the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) can be stored in the shop storage area during aircraft maintenance, regardless of their class or division. This allows for flexibility in storing and handling different types of explosives, ensuring safety while conducting maintenance activities.

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42. What mishap classification is assigned if an employee is injured and misses at least eight hours of work?

Explanation

If an employee is injured and misses at least eight hours of work, the mishap classification assigned would be Class C. This classification typically refers to injuries that require medical treatment beyond first aid and result in restricted work activity or job transfer. It indicates a moderate level of severity and suggests that the injury may have long-term consequences or require ongoing medical attention.

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43. If there is a disagreement on a specialty training standard (STS)item during a utilization and training workshop (U&TW) how is it solved?

Explanation

During a utilization and training workshop (U&TW), if there is a disagreement on a specialty training standard (STS) item, it is resolved by allowing each major command (MAJCOM) (except AETC) to have one vote for or against the item. This means that each MAJCOM has an equal say in the decision-making process, ensuring that all perspectives are considered and a fair consensus is reached. The decision is not solely in the hands of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) or the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM), but rather a collective decision made by the MAJCOMs.

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44. To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Be protected from moist, hot temperatures." This is because explosives are highly sensitive to temperature and humidity. Moisture and heat can cause the explosives to become unstable and potentially explode. Therefore, a proposed facility for the storage of explosives must have measures in place to protect it from moist and hot temperatures to ensure the safety of the stored explosives.

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45. The code 412A id defined as a?

Explanation

The code 412A is defined as a Budget Program Activity Code (BPAC). This code is used to categorize and track budgetary activities within a program. It helps in identifying the specific program activity and allocating funds accordingly.

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46. Who should be the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements?

Explanation

The Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) should be the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements. The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the command, and their role includes reviewing and ensuring the legality and compliance of various documents, including support agreements. As such, they have the expertise and authority to review and approve these agreements before they are finalized. The other options, such as the Wing Commander, Flight Equipment Officer, and Squadron Commander, may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but they do not have the specific legal expertise required for reviewing support agreements.

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47. Which aircrew continuation class is used for the non-ejection egress class?

Explanation

The correct answer is LL03. This aircrew continuation class is used for the non-ejection egress class.

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48. If there is no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plan available, who is responsible for developing a local one?

Explanation

If there is no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plan available, the responsibility for developing a local one falls on you or the personnel in your section. This means that it is up to you and your colleagues to create a weapons safety training plan specific to your section or unit. This ensures that proper safety protocols and procedures are in place when handling weapons, even in the absence of a MAJCOM plan.

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49. What is the primary form we use to record the quiality control (QC) inspection?

Explanation

The primary form used to record the quality control (QC) inspection is AF FORM 2420.

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50. Aircrew filght equipment (AFE) explosives must be carried in?

Explanation

Explosives used in aircrew flight equipment (AFE) need to be carried in protective containers. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the crew and passengers on board the aircraft. Protective containers are designed to prevent accidental ignition or detonation of the explosives during transport or storage. These containers are specifically designed and tested to withstand the impact, pressure, and temperature changes that may occur during air transportation. By using protective containers, the risk of accidents or incidents involving the explosives is minimized, ensuring the overall safety of the flight.

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51. What is the major difference between a safety board and Legal investigation?

Explanation

The major difference between a safety board and legal investigation is that legal investigations provide a publicly releasable report, while safety investigations may or may not provide a publicly releasable report. This means that the findings and conclusions of a legal investigation can be made available to the public, whereas the release of information from a safety investigation is not guaranteed.

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52. Who will establish the specific requirements for establishing and cretifying an aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructor (AFECTI)

Explanation

Major commands (MAJCOM) will establish the specific requirements for establishing and certifying an aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructor (AFECTI). MAJCOMs are responsible for overseeing and managing specific areas of the military, including training and personnel. They have the authority to set standards and guidelines for various positions and qualifications within their command. In the case of the AFECTI, it is the MAJCOM that will determine the specific requirements and qualifications needed to become certified in this role.

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53. Government vehicles that are used to transport explosives must be inspected daily to?

Explanation

Government vehicles that are used to transport explosives must be inspected daily to ensure the fuel tanks and feed lines are secure and not leaking. This is important because any leakage or insecurity in these areas could potentially lead to accidents or explosions. Regular inspections help identify and address any issues promptly, ensuring the safe transportation of explosives.

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54. What three sources give supervisors a starting point for determining wheather their current mishap prevention program is adequate?

Explanation

Supervisors can use AF Form 55, Material Data Safety Sheets (MSDS), and self-inspection checklist as sources to determine the adequacy of their current mishap prevention program. AF Form 55 provides information on mishap prevention procedures and guidelines. Material Data Safety Sheets (MSDS) contain detailed information about hazardous materials and their safe handling. Self-inspection checklists help supervisors assess their workplace for potential hazards and identify areas that need improvement. By utilizing these three sources, supervisors can evaluate the effectiveness of their mishap prevention program and make necessary adjustments to ensure the safety of their personnel and workplace.

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55. What provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lithality of a weapon system as it progresses through its development and prior to the full-rate production decision?

Explanation

Live fire test and evaluation (LFT&E) provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lethality of a weapon system during its development phase and before the full-rate production decision is made. This testing involves actual firing of the weapon system under realistic conditions to evaluate its performance, effectiveness, and survivability. LFT&E helps identify any weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the system that need to be addressed before it is deployed in operational scenarios. It is an essential step in ensuring that the weapon system meets the required standards and is reliable and effective in combat situations.

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56. When developing an AF Form 797, you do not list?

Explanation

When developing an AF Form 797, you do not list all task developers. The form is used for documenting the sub tasks required, the task itself and its title, as well as the technical or training references. However, it does not require listing all task developers.

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57. If you have a urgent concern about technical school training, use the?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Customer service information line (CSIL). This option is the most appropriate for addressing urgent concerns about technical school training. The CSIL is likely to provide immediate assistance and information regarding technical school training, making it the best choice among the given options. The Field interview (FI) may not be suitable for urgent concerns, as it typically involves in-person interviews. The Graduate assessment survey (GAS) and Field evaluation questionnaire (FEQ) are more likely to be used for gathering feedback and assessing performance, rather than addressing urgent concerns.

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58. Who is responsible for the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) special programs office (SPO)?

Explanation

The Human System Group (HSG) is responsible for the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) special programs office (SPO). This group is in charge of managing and overseeing the special programs related to AFE, which includes the development, testing, and evaluation of aircrew flight equipment. They ensure that the equipment meets the necessary standards and requirements for aircrew safety and effectiveness. The HSG plays a crucial role in maintaining and improving the quality and functionality of AFE for aircrew members.

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59. When are mission need statments required?

Explanation

Mission need statements are required when solutions require new developments and procurements, or an upgrade of existing systems. This means that whenever there is a need for the development of new technologies or the improvement of existing systems, a mission need statement is necessary. It helps to outline the specific requirements and objectives of the project, ensuring that the solutions align with the goals and needs of the organization. Additionally, it ensures that any procurements or upgrades are justified and meet the necessary criteria.

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60. The base fire Chief completes which entries on an AF Form 2047, Explosive Facility License?

Explanation

The base fire Chief completes the entries on an AF Form 2047, Explosive Facility License regarding the type, size, quantity, and placement of the fire extinguishers. This is important because it ensures that the appropriate fire extinguishers are available and positioned correctly in case of a fire emergency in the explosive facility. By specifying the type, size, quantity, and placement of the fire extinguishers, the fire Chief can ensure that they are effective in suppressing fires and protecting the facility and personnel from potential explosions.

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61. How many part are there to the typical objective statement?

Explanation

The typical objective statement consists of three parts. These parts usually include the position or job title the candidate is applying for, the skills or qualifications they possess, and their career goals or what they hope to achieve in the position.

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62. Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when you're planning and conducting explosives operations.

Explanation

The two-man concept is a fundamental principle that must be observed when planning and conducting explosives operations. This concept ensures that there are always at least two individuals present during the entire operation, providing a safety measure and reducing the risk of accidents or unauthorized actions. It allows for constant monitoring, communication, and assistance between the two individuals, enhancing overall safety and security. Therefore, the correct answer is "Using the two-man concept" as it is indeed a fundamental principle that should be followed in explosives operations.

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63. For safety training to be effective, the trainee must?

Explanation

For safety training to be effective, it is not enough for the trainee to simply attend all safety related courses, have the AF Form 55 properly filled out, or watch all safety videos. While these actions are important, the key factor for the training to have a lasting impact is for the trainee to be inspired to make safety a part of their life. This means that the trainee should not only understand and follow safety protocols during the training, but also apply them in their daily life, both at work and outside of work.

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64. The list of tasks on an AF Form 797 pertain only to?

Explanation

The tasks listed on an AF Form 797 pertain only to one particular base or work center. This form is used for documenting and tracking tasks that need to be completed within a specific location or department. It helps to ensure that all necessary tasks are identified and assigned to the appropriate personnel within that particular base or work center.

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65. Who is responsible for aircrew flight equipment initial and continuation training (AFETC)?

Explanation

The aircrew member is responsible for aircrew flight equipment initial and continuation training (AFETC). This means that it is the responsibility of the individual aircrew member to undergo training and ensure their proficiency in using and maintaining the flight equipment. The aircrew member is expected to take the initiative to attend and complete the necessary training programs to fulfill this responsibility.

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66. The four elements of the base disaster response force (DRF) are the disaster control group?

Explanation

The correct answer is command post, control centers, and specialized elements. In disaster response, a command post is essential for coordinating and managing the overall response efforts. Control centers serve as communication hubs and provide situational awareness. Specialized elements refer to specific teams or units with specialized skills or equipment, such as search and rescue teams or medical teams. Together, these elements form the base disaster response force (DRF) and work together to effectively respond to disasters.

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67. Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) list all the task and knowledge items common to an Air Force specialty (AFS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. In the specialty training standard (STS), column 1 lists all the task and knowledge items that are common to an Air Force specialty (AFS). This column provides a comprehensive overview of the skills and knowledge that individuals in a particular specialty need to possess. It serves as a reference guide for training and development purposes, ensuring that all individuals in the specialty are equipped with the necessary competencies to perform their duties effectively.

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68. An exception to the route of travel that explosives-laden vehicles must follw is when?

Explanation

When transporting explosives in support of the training of working dogs, there is an exception to the route of travel that explosives-laden vehicles must follow. This means that in this specific scenario, the usual route requirements may not apply, allowing for a different path to be taken.

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69. Who is responsible to publish an emergency action plan (EAP) for use during a training event?

Explanation

The superintendent is responsible for publishing an emergency action plan (EAP) for use during a training event. This implies that the superintendent holds a position of authority and has the necessary knowledge and expertise to develop and distribute an effective EAP. The superintendent's role in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals during training events is crucial, making them the appropriate person to take responsibility for the publication of the EAP.

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70. Prior to a utailization and training workshop (U&TW) what does the technical school send to major command (MAJCOM) personnel for their review?

Explanation

Prior to a utilization and training workshop (U&TW), the technical school sends the Strawman Specialty Training Standard (STS) to major command (MAJCOM) personnel for their review. The Strawman STS serves as a draft or initial version of the training standard for a particular specialty. It outlines the required knowledge, skills, and tasks that individuals in that specialty should possess. MAJCOM personnel review the Strawman STS to provide feedback and make any necessary revisions before finalizing the training standard. This ensures that the training provided aligns with the needs and requirements of the MAJCOM.

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71. If you want to automate your enlisted specialty training (EST) standards, your authority will normallybe from?

Explanation

The correct answer is the career field education and training plan (CFETP), Part 2, section A. This is because the CFETP provides standardized training requirements and guidance for enlisted specialty training. It outlines the knowledge and skills necessary for each specialty and serves as a reference for both trainees and trainers. Therefore, if you want to automate your enlisted specialty training standards, you would follow the guidelines and authority provided in the CFETP.

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72. Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by Air Force specialty career (AFSC) field managers to describe a particular job type or duty position?

Explanation

The Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS) is a comprehensive task list prepared by Air Force specialty career (AFSC) field managers to describe a particular job type or duty position. This standard outlines the specific tasks and qualifications required for individuals in that job or position. It serves as a guide for training and evaluating personnel in their respective roles within the Air Force.

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73. Responsiblity for determining the overall direction of training within an Air Force specialty (AFS) rest with the?

Explanation

The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for determining the overall direction of training within an Air Force specialty (AFS). They oversee the training and development of personnel within their specific career field, ensuring that the training aligns with the needs and goals of the Air Force. This role involves making strategic decisions regarding training programs, curriculum, and resources to ensure that the AFS is properly trained and prepared to fulfill its mission. The AFCFM works closely with other stakeholders, such as the Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) manager, to coordinate and implement training initiatives.

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74. What is conducted to determine the operational effectiveness and suitability of systems undergoing research and development (R&D) efforts?

Explanation

Initial Operation and Test and Evaluation (IOT&E) is conducted to determine the operational effectiveness and suitability of systems undergoing research and development (R&D) efforts. This phase involves testing the system in realistic operational conditions to assess its performance, reliability, and overall effectiveness. It helps identify any issues or deficiencies that need to be addressed before the system can be fully deployed and used in operational settings.

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75. A primary focal point for all safety related matters is the?

Explanation

The unit safety representative is the correct answer because they are responsible for overseeing safety matters within a specific unit. They serve as a focal point for all safety-related issues and work closely with the unit commander, wing safety office, and immediate supervisor to ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed. The unit safety representative plays a crucial role in promoting a safe working environment and addressing any safety concerns or incidents that may arise.

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76. Explosive limits are based on the ?

Explanation

Explosive limits refer to the range of concentrations of a flammable substance in the air that can result in an explosion. It is not related to the number of personnel required for an operation, but rather the minimum quantity of the substance that is sufficient for an explosion to occur. The correct answer states that explosive limits are based on the minimum quantity of personnel sufficient for the operation, which is incorrect.

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77. To be acceptable for storage, explosives must?

Explanation

Explosives must have an assigned hazard classification in order to be acceptable for storage. This classification is necessary to ensure that proper precautions and safety measures are taken when handling and storing explosives. It helps to identify the level of risk associated with the explosive material and determines the appropriate storage conditions and handling procedures. Without an assigned hazard classification, it would be difficult to determine the necessary precautions and ensure the safety of individuals and the surrounding environment.

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78. You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by technical school garduates by using the?

Explanation

The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of training received by technical school graduates is by using the Specialty Training Standard (STS). This standard outlines the specific skills and knowledge that graduates should have acquired during their training. By comparing the actual performance of graduates to the requirements set in the STS, it is possible to assess the effectiveness of the training program. The Command Job Qualification Standard and Air Force Job Qualification Standard may be useful for evaluating job performance, but they do not specifically focus on training effectiveness. AF Form 797 is a medical evaluation form and is not relevant to evaluating training effectiveness.

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79. Which of the following in not found in Part 2 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Transitional training guide." This is not found in Part 2 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). The CFETP typically includes a specialty training standard (STS), a training course index, and a course objective list. However, a transitional training guide is not typically included in Part 2 of the CFETP.

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80. Major Command (MAJCOM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) subject matter experts (SME) in conjunction with occupational survey report (OSR) data, helps develop the?

Explanation

The given passage states that Major Command (MAJCOM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) subject matter experts (SME) use occupational survey report (OSR) data to develop something. The term "speciality training standard (STS)" refers to a set of guidelines and requirements for training in a specific specialty or field. Therefore, it can be inferred that the development being referred to in the passage is the creation of a speciality training standard (STS) based on the input from the subject matter experts and the OSR data.

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81. Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) defines the "contact with the technical school?"

Explanation

Column 4 of the specialty training standard (STS) defines the "contact with the technical school."

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82. What form is used to change an Air Force publication except for technical order (TO)?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF FORM 847. This form is used to change an Air Force publication, excluding technical orders (TOs). It is a document used for requesting changes, updates, or revisions to existing publications within the Air Force. The AF FORM 847 is used to initiate, coordinate, and track proposed changes to publications, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date information is maintained.

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83. The filed evalutaion questionnaire ask the supervisor to rate?

Explanation

The correct answer is "How well the graduate performs tasks in the CFETP/STS based on training received." This is because the evaluation questionnaire is asking the supervisor to rate the performance of the graduate in carrying out tasks specified in the CFETP/STS, taking into account the training they have received. The other options mentioned in the question are not relevant to the evaluation questionnaire.

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84. Information about career progression in a Air Force specialty can be found in the career field education and training plan (CFETP) PART?

Explanation

The career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides information about career progression in a specific Air Force specialty. It outlines the required education and training for each level of the specialty, as well as the potential career paths and opportunities for advancement. By referring to the CFETP, individuals can gain a better understanding of the skills and qualifications needed to progress in their chosen specialty within the Air Force.

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85. What is conducted throughout a system's life cycle to ensure the AIR Force acquires and maintains operationally effective and sutable systems tha meet users needs?

Explanation

Developmental test and evaluation (DT&E) is conducted throughout a system's life cycle to ensure that the AIR Force acquires and maintains operationally effective and suitable systems that meet users' needs. This process involves testing and evaluating the system during its development phase to identify any deficiencies or issues that need to be addressed before it is deployed. DT&E helps to ensure that the system meets the required performance standards and can effectively fulfill its intended purpose. Operational test and evaluation (OT&E) is also important but focuses on testing the system in real-world operational conditions. Deficiency reporting is a separate process that involves documenting and addressing any identified deficiencies or issues in the system.

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86. Which technical order (TO) contains authorization compatibility groups?

Explanation

The correct answer is 11A-1-46. This technical order contains authorization compatibility groups.

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87. An occupational survey report (OSR) is completed on each Air force specialty (AFS) every three years or when requested by?

Explanation

An occupational survey report (OSR) is completed on each Air Force specialty (AFS) every three years or when requested by the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM). The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, so it makes sense that they would request an OSR to gather information about the specialty. The OSR helps to assess the current state of the AFS and identify any necessary changes or improvements. Therefore, the AFCFM plays a crucial role in determining when an OSR should be completed.

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88. The key to the entire explosives safety program is the? 

Explanation

The supervisor is the key to the entire explosives safety program because they are responsible for ensuring that all safety procedures and protocols are followed by the operating personnel. They have the authority to enforce safety measures, provide training and guidance, and monitor the overall safety performance within the unit. Without a responsible and vigilant supervisor, the effectiveness of the explosives safety program would be compromised, leading to potential accidents and hazards.

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89. The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) provides two products, they are an occupational survey report (OSR) and a?

Explanation

The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) provides two products: an occupational survey report (OSR) and a training extract. The training extract is likely a document or summary that contains information about the specific training requirements and standards for different occupational specialties within the Air Force. This extract would be a valuable resource for individuals seeking to understand the necessary training and qualifications for different roles within the Air Force.

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90. Responsibility for ensuring safety training is provided to applicable personnel rest with?

Explanation

The unit explosive safety non-commissioned officer (NCO) is responsible for ensuring safety training is provided to applicable personnel. This individual is specifically trained in explosive safety and has the knowledge and expertise to oversee and conduct safety training. They are responsible for ensuring that all personnel who work with explosives or in potentially hazardous environments receive the necessary training to prevent accidents and maintain a safe working environment.

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For the transportation of explosives on base you would establish a?
How many days in advance do units forcast or project ancillary...
What should be your number one concern when instructing aircrew flight...
What is conducted in an enviornment as realistic as possible to...
How should the equipment used for aircrew flight equipment...
After completing the inspection used for the aircrew flight equipment...
Which aircrew continuation class is used for members prior to their...
What is your most important trait when it comes to training?
Air Force mishaps that results in total destruction or damage beyond...
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Into which subsystem would a survival radio be placed?
Prior to assigning individual work duties, you should first?
What is your first responsibility when receiving a new or updated...
When may consumables such as halocarbon be placed in composite tool...
Containers of oily rags, combustible scraps, and waste materials must...
Which major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for development and/or...
A timely mishap investigation relies on?
Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be?
Prior to using the career field education and tarining plan (CFETP),...
When is an aircrew flight equipment officer (AFEO) or senior...
What classification of mishaps results in injuries that only require...
In what case may operational aircrew flight equipment (AFE) assets be...
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is designed to...
What agency develops the operational requirements document (ORD)?
Who must document compliance with and operational risk management...
When if ever are common harware items such as helmet studs, nuts, and...
Training waivers provide?
Weapons safety training is conducted by the?
Where is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) information on an...
What should be done as a minimum to a physiological mishap victim...
When will you receive additional training in Air Force Hazardous...
Weapons safety training is required?
The master inventory list (MIL) remains valid until?
What survey is designated to indicate the quality of Air Education and...
To perform a proper periodic inspection od an explosive operation, you...
When you decertify a newly assigned person on a task they are not...
What are the two types of safety borads that occur when dealing with...
When may an explosive laden vehicle be loaded and unloaded while the...
An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) awarding course is what type of...
Before granting an explosive facility license, the base explosive...
A limited quanity of which in-use aircrew flight equipment (AFE)...
What mishap classification is assigned if an employee is injured and...
If there is a disagreement on a specialty training standard (STS)item...
To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility...
The code 412A id defined as a?
Who should be the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support...
Which aircrew continuation class is used for the non-ejection egress...
If there is no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plan...
What is the primary form we use to record the quiality control (QC)...
Aircrew filght equipment (AFE) explosives must be carried in?
What is the major difference between a safety board and Legal...
Who will establish the specific requirements for establishing and...
Government vehicles that are used to transport explosives must be...
What three sources give supervisors a starting point for determining...
What provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lithality of a...
When developing an AF Form 797, you do not list?
If you have a urgent concern about technical school training, use the?
Who is responsible for the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) special...
When are mission need statments required?
The base fire Chief completes which entries on an AF Form 2047,...
How many part are there to the typical objective statement?
Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when...
For safety training to be effective, the trainee must?
The list of tasks on an AF Form 797 pertain only to?
Who is responsible for aircrew flight equipment initial and...
The four elements of the base disaster response force (DRF) are the...
Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) list all the...
An exception to the route of travel that explosives-laden vehicles...
Who is responsible to publish an emergency action plan (EAP) for use...
Prior to a utailization and training workshop (U&TW) what does the...
If you want to automate your enlisted specialty training (EST)...
Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by Air Force...
Responsiblity for determining the overall direction of training within...
What is conducted to determine the operational effectiveness and...
A primary focal point for all safety related matters is the?
Explosive limits are based on the ?
To be acceptable for storage, explosives must?
You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by...
Which of the following in not found in Part 2 of the career field...
Major Command (MAJCOM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC)...
Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) defines the...
What form is used to change an Air Force publication except for...
The filed evalutaion questionnaire ask the supervisor to rate?
Information about career progression in a Air Force specialty can be...
What is conducted throughout a system's life cycle to ensure the...
Which technical order (TO) contains authorization compatibility...
An occupational survey report (OSR) is completed on each Air force...
The key to the entire explosives safety program is the? 
The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) provides two...
Responsibility for ensuring safety training is provided to applicable...
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