Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg59-73 CST Exam Prep
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Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg59-73 CST exam prep
- 1.394. Room temperature for infants and children should be maintained as warm as
- A.
70°
- B.
80°
- C.
85°
- D.
95°
- 2.395. Areas needing special cleaning attention on a weekly or monthly routine would include
- A.
Furniture
- B.
Air conditioning grills and walls
- C.
Ceiling and wall mounted fixtures and tracks
- D.
Kick buckets
- 3.396. A glass suction bottles should ideally be
- A.
Rinsed with tap water between each case
- B.
Cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse
- C.
Rinsed with sterile distilled water between each use
- D.
Autoclaved daily
- 4.397. Storage shelves must be cleaned with the germicide
- A.
Each case
- B.
Each day
- C.
Each week
- D.
Each month
- 5.398. While a surgical case is in progress
- A.
Doors remain open so staff can easily move in or out
- B.
Doors should remain closed
- C.
Doors remain open to circulate air
- D.
Doors may be open or closed
- 6.399. When cleaning the floor between cases
- A.
A clean mop head must be used each time
- B.
A two-bucket system, one detergent and one clear water, is used
- C.
Buckets must be emptied and cleaned between each case
- D.
All of the above
- 7.400. a dropped sterile item may only be used if the
- A.
Wrapper is muslin
- B.
Wrapper is impervious and contact area is dry
- C.
Wrapper is impervious with contact area wet or dry
- D.
Wrapper is dusted off thoroughly
- 8.401. In the event that a child needs emergency surgery, and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission
- A.
No permission is necessary
- B.
Permission is signed by a court of law
- C.
Permission assigned by the physician
- D.
A written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice
- 9.402. The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. After completing this procedure the surgeon decides to remove mole from the shoulder while the patient is still under anesthesia. No permission was obtained for this. The circulating nurse should
- A.
Report it to the anesthesiologist
- B.
Report it to the chief of surgery
- C.
Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority
- D.
Let the surgeon proceed because it is his or her responsibility to obtain the consent
- 10.403. The surgical consent form can be witnessed by each of the following EXCEPT
- A.
The surgeon
- B.
A nurse
- C.
An authorized hospital employee
- D.
The patient's spouse
- 11.404. The patient is premedicated and brought to the operating room for a cystoscopy and an open reduction of the wrist. Upon arrival in the operating room, it is observed that the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy. The correct procedure would be to
- A.
Cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtained
- B.
Have the patient sign for the additional procedure in the operating room
- C.
Ask the patient verbally for consent and have witnesses attest to a
- D.
But the surgeon make the decision as to whether the surgery could be done
- 12.405. A general consent form is
- A.
A form authorizing all treatments or procedures
- B.
The form for all patients having general anesthesia
- C.
A form for all patients having hazardous therapy
- D.
Another name for an operative permit
- 13.406. The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lives with
- A.
Operating room supervisor
- B.
Circulating nurse
- C.
Surgeon
- D.
Unit charge nurse
- 14.407. The surgical consent is signed
- A.
Before induction
- B.
In the holding area
- C.
The morning of surgery
- D.
Before administration of preoperative medications
- 15.408. An informed consent
- A.
Authorizes routine duties carried out at the hospital
- B.
Protects patient from unratified or unwanted procedures
- C.
Protects the surgeon in the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation
- D.
B and C
- 16.409. Implied consent
- A.
Is the preferred option for consents
- B.
Is allowed by law any emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted
- C.
Is never legally valid
- D.
Is the permission for surgical action
- 17.
- A.
The surgeon informs the patient of the dangers if the procedure is not carried out
- B.
The surgeon informs the hospital administration of the patient's refusal
- C.
Surgeon obtains a written refusal from the patient
- D.
The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure
- 18.411. Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?
- A.
Lithotomy
- B.
Kraske
- C.
Knee-chest
- D.
Modified prone
- 19.412. A position often used in cranial procedures is called
- A.
Fowler's
- B.
Kraske
- C.
Trendelenburg
- D.
Lithotomy
- 20.413. In positioning for laminectomy, roles or bolsters are placed
- A.
Horizontally, one under the chest and one under the thighs
- B.
Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip
- C.
Longitudinally to support the chest from sternum to hip
- D.
Below the knees
- 21.414. The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is
- A.
Modified Trendelenburg
- B.
Reverse Trendelenburg
- C.
Supine
- D.
Dorsal recumbent
- 22.415. A Mayfield table would be used for which type of surgery?
- A.
Ophthalmic
- B.
Gynecologic
- C.
Neurologic
- D.
Urologic
- 23.416. Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll
- B.
Hyperextension of the neck
- C.
Utilization of the of the skin-stay sutures
- D.
Firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures
- 24.417. A procedure requiring the patient to be positioned supine and modified with lithotomy is
- A.
Colonoscopy
- B.
Abdominoperineal resection (APR)
- C.
Marsupilization of pilonidal cyst
- D.
Ileostomy
- 25.418. In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left?
- A.
Cerclage
- B.
Marsupilization of Bartholin's cyst
- C.
Shirodkar
- D.
Cesarean section
- 26.419. The position for most open bladder surgery would be
- A.
Lithotomy
- B.
Supine, bolster under pelvis
- C.
Reverse Trendelenburg
- D.
Fowler's, modified
- 27.420. In which circumstance could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves?
- A.
Positioned on the fracture table
- B.
Positioned in the lateral chest
- C.
Positioned in the lithotomy
- D.
Positioned on the urological table
- 28.421. Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?
- A.
Skeletal changes
- B.
Limited range of motion of joints
- C.
Tissue fragility
- D.
All of the above
- 29.422. When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?
- A.
Patient's body does not touch metal on table
- B.
Equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient
- C.
Bony prominences are padded
- D.
All of the above
- 30.423. When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of
- A.
Patient anxiety
- B.
Dispersal of cancer cells
- C.
Contamination
- D.
Infection
- 31.424. The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the
- A.
Patient's room
- B.
Operating room (OR) suite
- C.
Holding area of the OR
- D.
Room where the surgery will be performed
- 32.425. Any area that is considered contaminated
- A.
Should be scrubbed last or separately
- B.
Should not be scrubbed at all
- C.
Should be scrubbed first
- D.
Needs no special consideration
- 33.426. In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted
- A.
From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion
- B.
From the periphery to the incision site in a circular motion
- C.
In a side-to-side
- D.
In the up-and-down motion
- 34.427. Preliminary preparation of the patient's skin begins
- A.
With preoperative shower
- B.
With the shaved preparation
- C.
In the OR
- D.
In the holding area
- 35.428. Suction tubing is attached to the drapes with a(n)
- A.
Towel clip
- B.
Non-perforating clamp
- C.
Kocher clamp
- D.
Allis clamp
- 36.430. When draping a table, the scrub nurse should drape
- A.
Back to front
- B.
Front to back
- C.
Side to side
- D.
Either A or B
- 37.429. All of the following statements regarding sterility are true EXCEPT
- A.
Wrapper edges are unsterile
- B.
Instruments or sutures hanging over the edge of the table are discarded
- C.
Sterile persons pass each other back to back
- D.
A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing
- 38.432. Drapes are
- A.
Adjusted after placement for correct position
- B.
Unfolded before being carried to the OR table
- C.
Past across the table to surgeon along with towel clips
- D.
Placed on a dry area
- 39.431. A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping is
- A.
Esmarch
- B.
Ace bandage
- C.
Kling
- D.
Stockinette
- 40.433. which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?
- A.
Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient
- B.
Discard a drape that becomes contaminated
- C.
Discard a sheet that falls below table level
- D.
Cover or discarded trait that has a whole
- 41.434. A head drape consist of
- A.
Medium sheet, towel, towel clip
- B.
Two medium sheets, towel clip
- C.
One small sheet, one medium sheet, towel clip
- D.
Towel, fenestrated sheet
- 42.435. Gowns are considered sterile only from
- A.
Waste to neck level in the front and back, and the sleeves
- B.
Waste to shoulder, front and back, and the sleeves
- C.
Neck to thighs in front, and the sleeves
- D.
Only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffs
- 43.436. An acceptable action when drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub is to
- A.
Dry from elbow to fingertip
- B.
Dry thoroughly, cleanest area first
- C.
Keep the hands and arms close to the body, at waist level
- D.
Dry one hand and arm thoroughly before proceeding to the next
- 44.437. All of the following statements regarding gowning another person are true EXCEPT
- A.
Open the hand towel and lay it on the person's hand
- B.
Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband
- C.
Keep hands on the outside of the gown under protective cuff
- D.
Release the gown once the person touches it
- 45.438. Which statement regarding the scrub procedure is not true
- A.
Reduces the microbial count
- B.
Leaves in antimicrobial residue
- C.
Renders the skin aseptic
- D.
Removes skin oil
- 46.439. If the scrub nurse needs to change a glove during an operation
- A.
The scrub must also regown
- B.
The circulator pulls the glove off
- C.
The scrub pulls the glove off
- D.
This scrub uses closed-glove technique to reapply gloves
- 47.440. which statement regarding the removal of gown and gloves does not be safe criteria?
- A.
The gloves are removed before the gown
- B.
The gown is pulled off inside-out
- C.
The gown is untied by the circulator
- D.
The clothes are removed inside-out
- 48.441. An effective surgical scrub procedure is
- A.
Time method
- B.
Brush-stroke method
- C.
3-minute anatomic method
- D.
A and B
- 49.442. Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement would violate acceptable practice?
- A.
Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip
- B.
Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied
- C.
Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hangnail should not scrub
- D.
A non-oil-based hand lotion may be used to the skin
- 50.443. Eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields should be worn
- A.
On every case
- B.
On orthopedic cases
- C.
On vascular cases
- D.
On positive HIV cases
- 51.444. The surgical scrub is
- A.
Sterilization of the skin
- B.
Mechanical cleansing of the skin
- C.
Chemical cleansing of the skin
- D.
Mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis of the skin
- 52.445. Scrub technique ends
- A.
2 inches below the waist
- B.
Just below the elbow
- C.
At the elbow
- D.
2 inches above the elbow
- 53.446. Which statement regarding the surgical scrub indicates INAPPROPRIATE preparation by the scrub?
- A.
Artificial nails/devices must not cover nails
- B.
Nail polish may be worn, if not chipped
- C.
Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertips
- D.
Skin should be protected with a non-oil-based product
- 54.447. Which statement best describes any active surgical hand scrub?
- A.
Time, no anatomical sequence
- B.
Number of strokes, no anatomical sequence
- C.
Time or number of strokes, hand to elbow sequence
- D.
Number of strokes, elbow to hand sequence
- 55.448. The brush-stroke method of describing prescribes the number of strokes required. Indicate the number for each: nails, fingers, hands (back and palm) and arms.
- A.
40, 30, 30, 30
- B.
40, 40, 20, 20
- C.
30, 20, 20, 20
- D.
30, 20, 10, 10
- 56.449. A surgical treatment for scoliosis could employ the use of
- A.
Skeletal traction
- B.
External fixation
- C.
Compression plate and screws
- D.
Harrington rods
- 57.450. What is a lebsche used for?
- A.
To open the sternum
- B.
To retract spinal nerves
- C.
To elevate the periosteum
- D.
To separate the ribs
- 58.451. A rongeur used extensively in the surgery of the spine and and neurosurgery is the
- A.
Adson
- B.
Cobb
- C.
Kerrison
- D.
Cloward
- 59.452. Bakes are
- A.
Retractors
- B.
Common duct dilators
- C.
Uterine dilators
- D.
Elevators
- 60.453. A rib retractor is a
- A.
Weitlaner
- B.
Finochietto
- C.
Harrington
- D.
Beckman
- 61.454. A doyen is a
- A.
Ribs shears
- B.
Rib cutter
- C.
Rib spreader
- D.
Rib raspatory
- 62.455. The instrument used to enlarge the burr hole made during craniotomy is a
- A.
Rongeur
- B.
Periosteal elevator
- C.
Gigli saw
- D.
Cloward punch
- 63.456. Wescott scissors are used in
- A.
Plastic surgery
- B.
Ophthalmic surgery
- C.
Vascular surgery
- D.
Orthopedic surgery
- 64.457. The instrument used in a splenectomy is
- A.
Doyen
- B.
Allen
- C.
Jacobs
- D.
Pedicle clamp
- 65.458. Bowman probes are used in
- A.
Common bile duct surgery
- B.
Lacrimal surgery
- C.
Kidney surgery
- D.
Bladder surgery
- 66.459. A Hurd dissector and pillar retractor is used for
- A.
Appendectomy
- B.
Plastic surgery
- C.
Nasal surgery
- D.
Tonsillectomy
- 67.460. The Lempert elevator is used in the surgery of the
- A.
Eye
- B.
Nose
- C.
Ear
- D.
Bones
- 68.461. A Scoville retractor is used in a
- A.
Total knee replacement
- B.
Meniscectomy
- C.
Laminectomy
- D.
Carpal tunnel release
- 69.462. A Bailey is a
- A.
Clamp
- B.
Rongeur
- C.
Dissecting forceps
- D.
Rib approximator
- 70.463. A Sauerbruch is a(n)
- A.
Elevator
- B.
Raspatory
- C.
Retractor
- D.
Rongeur
- 71.464. An Auvard is a
- A.
Forceps
- B.
Dissector
- C.
Speculum
- D.
Sound
- 72.465. A Babcock is used to
- A.
Grasp bone
- B.
Grasp delicate structures
- C.
Clamp vessels
- D.
Retract soft tissue
- 73.466. Nasal cartilage is incised with a
- A.
Ballenger swivel knife
- B.
Freer elevator
- C.
Duckbill rongeur
- D.
Hurd dissector
- 74.467. A self-retaining retractor is a
- A.
Weitlaner
- B.
Lincoln
- C.
Hibbs
- D.
Deaver
- 75.468. A rectal speculum is a
- A.
Percy
- B.
Hirshmann
- C.
Pennington
- D.
Hill
- 76.469. A small fine needle holder used in a plastic surgery is a
- A.
Ryder
- B.
Heaney
- C.
Webster
- D.
Castroviejo
- 77.470. A kidney pedicle clamp is a
- A.
Lincoln
- B.
Herrick
- C.
Love
- D.
Little
- 78.471. Uterine dilators are
- A.
Hanks
- B.
Van Buren
- C.
Bakes
- D.
Graves
- 79.
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472. On which set would this instrument pictured/shown above be found?- A.
Thyroidectomy set
- B.
Perineorrhaphy set
- C.
Tonsillectomy set
- D.
Orthopedic bone set
- 80.
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473. The instruments shown/pictured above is used to retrieve a needle biopsy from either the thyroid, liver, kidney, or prostate is- A.
Dorsey
- B.
Chiba
- C.
Bernardino-Sones
- D.
Silverman
- 81.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481474. The instrument(s) used for a corrective rhinoplasty is/are- A.
5
- B.
3 and 8
- C.
1 and 3
- D.
3 and 5
- 82.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481475. The instrument(s) found on a cholecystostomy set up is/are- A.
4 and 5
- B.
4
- C.
1
- D.
3
- 83.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481476. Which instrument is an O'Sullivan-O'Connor?- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
- 84.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481477. The instrument(s) found on an intestinal setup is/are- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
4 and 5
- D.
1 and 5
- 85.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481478. The retractor in a thorocotomy set to separate the ribs is- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
6
- D.
2
- 86.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481479. The retractor known as a Green is- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
- 87.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481480. An instruments found in a major bone set is a- A.
8
- B.
6
- C.
3
- D.
7
- 88.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481481. Which instrument is a Davidson?- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
7
- 89.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487482. The instrument used to grasp lung tissue is- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 90.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487483. The instrument(s) found on a vascular setup is/are- A.
2, 3, 5, and 6
- B.
1, 3, and 5
- C.
3 and 5
- D.
2 and 3
- 91.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487484. The instrument known as a Bulldog is- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
6
- 92.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487485. Which instrument is a Heaney?- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 93.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487486. Which instrument is a Potts-Smith?- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
6
- 94.
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Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487487. The instrument(s) used to clamp the aorta is/are- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
6
- D.
1 and 3
- 95.
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488. This needle holder is called- A.
Jameson
- B.
Castroviejo
- C.
Wescott
- D.
Webster
- 96.
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489. This kidney instrument is called- A.
Mayo pedicle clamp
- B.
Herrick pedicle clamp
- C.
Randall Stone forceps
- D.
Lewkowitz lithotomy forceps
- 97.
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490. The retractor pictured is called- A.
Deaver
- B.
Oschner malleable
- C.
Harrington
- D.
Richardson
- 98.
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491. This forceps is called- A.
Ferris-Smith
- B.
Alligator
- C.
Adair
- D.
Bayonet
- 99.492. A technique utilizing the insertion of a needle or wire through a needle in order to identify suspicious breast tissue is a(n)
- A.
Incisional biopsy
- B.
Wire localization
- C.
Silverman needle biopsy
- D.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- 100.493. A forceps used to remove stones in biliary surgery is a
- A.
Mixter
- B.
Lahey gall duct
- C.
Potts-Smith
- D.
Randall
- 101.494. Which procedure may require preparation of a skin graft setup?
- A.
Total radical mastectomy
- B.
Modified radical mastectomy
- C.
Adenomammectomy
- D.
Lumpectomy
- 102.495. Right-angled pedicle clamps would be found on a setup for
- A.
Splenectomy
- B.
Cholecystectomy
- C.
Hemorrhoidectomy
- D.
Thyroidectomy
- 103.496. Blunt nerve hooks are selected for a ________ setup.
- A.
Vagotomy
- B.
Colostomy
- C.
Gastrojejunostomy
- D.
Abdominal-perineal resection
- 104.497. In which procedural setup would a T-tube be found?
- A.
Exploration of the common bile duct
- B.
Cholecystectomy
- C.
Cholelithotripsy
- D.
Choledochoscopy
- 105.498. Stapedectomy requires all of the following items EXCEPT
- A.
Small microsuction
- B.
Speculum
- C.
Prosthesis
- D.
Autograft
- 106.499. Cochlear implants utilize and electrode device
- A.
To restore hearing
- B.
Two aerate the mastoid
- C.
To allow drainage
- D.
To relieve vertigo
- 107.500. All of the following are required for repair of a nasal fracture EXCEPT
- A.
Bayonet forceps
- B.
Ballenger swivel knife
- C.
Splint
- D.
Asch forceps
- 108.501. A forceps used in a nasal surgery is a(n)
- A.
Bayonet
- B.
Russian
- C.
Rat-tooth
- D.
Alligator
- 109.502. All of the following instruments can be found on a nasal set up EXCEPT
- A.
Freer elevator
- B.
Bayonet forceps
- C.
Potts forceps
- D.
Frazier suction tube
- 110.503. On which setup would bougies be found?
- A.
Tonsillectomy
- B.
Esophagoscopy
- C.
Radial neck
- D.
Parotidectomy
- 111.504. All of the following can be found on a tonsillectomy set up EXCEPT
- A.
Yankauer suctioned
- B.
Hurd dissector and pillar retractor
- C.
Tongue depressor
- D.
Jameson hook
- 112.505. Tissue expanders are used in
- A.
Augmentation mammoplasty
- B.
Reduction for gynecomastia
- C.
Transrectus myocutaneous flap
- D.
Breast reconstruction
- 113.506. The fracture treated with arch bars is
- A.
Nasal
- B.
Mandibular
- C.
Zygomatic
- D.
Orbital
- 114.507. Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires all of the following EXCEPT a(n)
- A.
Alexander periosteotome
- B.
Doyen raspatory
- C.
Heaney clamp
- D.
Stille sheers
- 115.508. Stone forceps on a kidney set are
- A.
Lewkowitz
- B.
Randall
- C.
Satinsky
- D.
Mayo
- 116.509.A Sarot is a
- A.
Bronchus clamp
- B.
Scapula retractor
- C.
Lung retractor
- D.
Lung grasping clamp
- 117.510. Which item would not be included on a setup for a transvenous (endocardial) pacemaker?
- A.
Tunneling instrument
- B.
Intra-aortic balloon pump
- C.
Fluoroscopy
- D.
Defibrillator
- 118.511. The most frequent conditions requiring the use of a permanent pacemaker are
- A.
Coronary or mitral insufficiency
- B.
Pulmonary artery or vein stenosis
- C.
Heart block, Bradyarrhythmia
- D.
Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect
- 119.512. Which SetUp would include distraction and compression components?
- A.
Harrington rods
- B.
Intramedullary nail
- C.
Arthrodesis
- D.
Tibial shaft fracture
- 120.513. Traction applied directly on bone via pins, wires, or tongs is
- A.
Internal
- B.
Closed
- C.
Skeletal
- D.
Counter pressure
- 121.514. Skeletal traction of a lower leg is accomplished with the use of a(n)
- A.
Kirschner wire
- B.
Knowles pin
- C.
Eggers plate
- D.
Smith-Peterson nail
- 122.515. In orthopedic surgery, the viewing of the progression of a procedure on a television screen is known as
- A.
Image intensification
- B.
Radiography
- C.
Portable filming
- D.
X-ray
- 123.516. A neurologic study in which a radiopaque substance is injected into the subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture is callled a(n)
- A.
Cerebral angiography
- B.
Myelogram
- C.
Encephalogram
- D.
Diskogram
- 124.517. A neural headrest skull clamp is called a(n)
- A.
Sachs
- B.
Frazier
- C.
Adson
- D.
Mayfield
- 125.518. Maintenance of acceptable blood pressure and prevention of the development of air emboli in the neurosurgical patient can be affected by preoperative utilization of
- A.
An antigravity suit
- B.
Ace bandages
- C.
Thrombo-embolic device (TED) stockings
- D.
Adequate body support
- 126.519. A _______ is a mouth gagged.
- A.
Burlisher
- B.
Blair
- C.
Dingman
- D.
Forman
- 127.520. Specialized instruments for a cleft lip repair would include
- A.
Cupid's bow
- B.
Logan's bow
- C.
Arch bar
- D.
Wire scissors
- 128.521. Cloward instrumentation would be included for the surgery of the
- A.
Hip
- B.
Femur
- C.
Cervical spine
- D.
Lumbar spine
- 129.522. On which set up would a Beaver knife handle be found?
- A.
Orthopedic
- B.
Pediatric
- C.
Gynecologic
- D.
Eye
- 130.523. Which procedure requires a sterile setup?
- A.
Manual skin traction
- B.
Skin traction
- C.
Skeletal traction
- D.
Closed reduction
- 131.524. A craniotomy may employ the use of a(n) __________ for exposure.
- A.
Mayfield
- B.
Sugita
- C.
Heifetz
- D.
Leyla-Yasargil
- 132.525. On which setup would either a Pereyra or a Stamey needle be found?
- A.
Urologic
- B.
Eye
- C.
Orthopedic
- D.
Thoracic
- 133.526. Disintegration of kidney stones through a liquid medium is accomplished with a(n)
- A.
Nephroscope
- B.
Extracorporeal shock wave lithotriptor
- C.
Laser
- D.
Cystoscope
- 134.527. A urology perineal retractor system is called
- A.
Bookwalter
- B.
O'Sullivan-O'Conner
- C.
Omni-Tract
- D.
Lowsley
- 135.528. Which procedure would utilize a Mason-Judd retractor?
- A.
Bladder
- B.
Uterus
- C.
Hip
- D.
Nose
- 136.529. A furlough inserter is used in
- A.
Penile implantation
- B.
Femoral-popliteal bypass
- C.
Total hip replacement
- D.
Intraocular lens (IOL) implant
- 137.530. On which case what a boomerang be found?
- A.
Prostate
- B.
Ovary
- C.
Eye
- D.
Nose
- 138.531. A Millin is a(n)
- A.
Prostatic enucleator
- B.
Urological needle holder
- C.
Stoned forceps
- D.
Retropubic bladder retractor
- 139.532. Which setup would include a Gomco clamp?
- A.
Colostomy
- B.
Breast augmentation
- C.
Circumcision
- D.
Femoral popliteal bypass
- 140.533. In which surgical specialty would a Humi Cannula be used?
- A.
Gynecologic
- B.
Ophthalmic
- C.
Orthopedic
- D.
Vascular
- 141.534. An instrument used in a laparoscopy to manipulate the uterus for increased structure visibility is the
- A.
Verres
- B.
Pratt
- C.
Mayo-Hegar
- D.
Hulka
- 142.535. A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter insertion requires
- A.
A sterile setup
- B.
A crash cart
- C.
In IV technician
- D.
None of the above
- 143.536. The purpose of a set of bakes would be
- A.
Anal dilation
- B.
Esophageal dilation
- C.
Common duct dilation
- D.
Cervical dilation
- 144.537. A Steffe plate is a
- A.
Shoulder replacement
- B.
Knee joint replacement
- C.
Femoral implant
- D.
Spinal implant
- 145.538. Skeletal traction is accomplished with
- A.
Sayre Sling
- B.
Minerva Jacket
- C.
Crutchfield tongs
- D.
Steffee System
- 146.539. As a Bookwalter is a _______ instrument.
- A.
Clamping
- B.
Holding
- C.
Suturing
- D.
Retracting
- 147.540. Which instrument is a retractor?
- A.
Harrington
- B.
Doyen
- C.
Crile
- D.
Allen
- 148.541. A long thoracic forceps is a
- A.
Semb
- B.
Schnidt
- C.
Sauerbruch
- D.
Doyen
- 149.542. A bougie is a
- A.
Clamp
- B.
Dilator
- C.
Retractor
- D.
Grasper
- 150.543. Which graft must be a change with a Dermatome?
- A.
Split-thickness mesh graft
- B.
Full-thickness Wolfe graft
- C.
Free myocutaneous graft
- D.
Full-thickness pinch graph
- 151.544. A Cavitron unit is used for
- A.
Cyclodialysis
- B.
Photocoagulation
- C.
Phacoemulsification
- D.
Cryotherapy
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