Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg59-73 CST Exam Prep

151 Questions
Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg59-73 CST Exam Prep

Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg59-73 CST exam prep

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    394. Room temperature for infants and children should be maintained as warm as
    • A. 

      70°

    • B. 

      80°

    • C. 

      85°

    • D. 

      95°

  • 2. 
    395. Areas needing special cleaning attention on a weekly or monthly routine would include
    • A. 

      Furniture

    • B. 

      Air conditioning grills and walls

    • C. 

      Ceiling and wall mounted fixtures and tracks

    • D. 

      Kick buckets

  • 3. 
    396. A glass suction bottles should ideally be
    • A. 

      Rinsed with tap water between each case

    • B. 

      Cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse

    • C. 

      Rinsed with sterile distilled water between each use

    • D. 

      Autoclaved daily

  • 4. 
    397. Storage shelves must be cleaned with the germicide
    • A. 

      Each case

    • B. 

      Each day

    • C. 

      Each week

    • D. 

      Each month

  • 5. 
    398. While a surgical case is in progress
    • A. 

      Doors remain open so staff can easily move in or out

    • B. 

      Doors should remain closed

    • C. 

      Doors remain open to circulate air

    • D. 

      Doors may be open or closed

  • 6. 
    399. When cleaning the floor between cases
    • A. 

      A clean mop head must be used each time

    • B. 

      A two-bucket system, one detergent and one clear water, is used

    • C. 

      Buckets must be emptied and cleaned between each case

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 7. 
    400. a dropped sterile item may only be used if the
    • A. 

      Wrapper is muslin

    • B. 

      Wrapper is impervious and contact area is dry

    • C. 

      Wrapper is impervious with contact area wet or dry

    • D. 

      Wrapper is dusted off thoroughly

  • 8. 
    401. In the event that a child needs emergency surgery, and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission
    • A. 

      No permission is necessary

    • B. 

      Permission is signed by a court of law

    • C. 

      Permission assigned by the physician

    • D. 

      A written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Report it to the anesthesiologist

    • B. 

      Report it to the chief of surgery

    • C. 

      Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority

    • D. 

      Let the surgeon proceed because it is his or her responsibility to obtain the consent

  • 10. 
    403. The surgical consent form can be witnessed by each of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      The surgeon

    • B. 

      A nurse

    • C. 

      An authorized hospital employee

    • D. 

      The patient's spouse

  • 11. 
    • A. 

      Cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtained

    • B. 

      Have the patient sign for the additional procedure in the operating room

    • C. 

      Ask the patient verbally for consent and have witnesses attest to a

    • D. 

      But the surgeon make the decision as to whether the surgery could be done

  • 12. 
    405. A general consent form is
    • A. 

      A form authorizing all treatments or procedures

    • B. 

      The form for all patients having general anesthesia

    • C. 

      A form for all patients having hazardous therapy

    • D. 

      Another name for an operative permit

  • 13. 
    406. The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lives with
    • A. 

      Operating room supervisor

    • B. 

      Circulating nurse

    • C. 

      Surgeon

    • D. 

      Unit charge nurse

  • 14. 
    407. The surgical consent is signed
    • A. 

      Before induction

    • B. 

      In the holding area

    • C. 

      The morning of surgery

    • D. 

      Before administration of preoperative medications

  • 15. 
    408. An informed consent
    • A. 

      Authorizes routine duties carried out at the hospital

    • B. 

      Protects patient from unratified or unwanted procedures

    • C. 

      Protects the surgeon in the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation

    • D. 

      B and C

  • 16. 
    409. Implied consent
    • A. 

      Is the preferred option for consents

    • B. 

      Is allowed by law any emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted

    • C. 

      Is never legally valid

    • D. 

      Is the permission for surgical action

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      The surgeon informs the patient of the dangers if the procedure is not carried out

    • B. 

      The surgeon informs the hospital administration of the patient's refusal

    • C. 

      Surgeon obtains a written refusal from the patient

    • D. 

      The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure

  • 18. 
    411. Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?
    • A. 

      Lithotomy

    • B. 

      Kraske

    • C. 

      Knee-chest

    • D. 

      Modified prone

  • 19. 
    412. A position often used in cranial procedures is called
    • A. 

      Fowler's

    • B. 

      Kraske

    • C. 

      Trendelenburg

    • D. 

      Lithotomy

  • 20. 
    413. In positioning for laminectomy, roles or bolsters are placed
    • A. 

      Horizontally, one under the chest and one under the thighs

    • B. 

      Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip

    • C. 

      Longitudinally to support the chest from sternum to hip

    • D. 

      Below the knees

  • 21. 
    414. The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is
    • A. 

      Modified Trendelenburg

    • B. 

      Reverse Trendelenburg

    • C. 

      Supine

    • D. 

      Dorsal recumbent

  • 22. 
    415. A Mayfield table would be used for which type of surgery?
    • A. 

      Ophthalmic

    • B. 

      Gynecologic

    • C. 

      Neurologic

    • D. 

      Urologic

  • 23. 
    416. Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll

    • B. 

      Hyperextension of the neck

    • C. 

      Utilization of the of the skin-stay sutures

    • D. 

      Firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures

  • 24. 
    417. A procedure requiring the patient to be positioned supine and modified with lithotomy is
    • A. 

      Colonoscopy

    • B. 

      Abdominoperineal resection (APR)

    • C. 

      Marsupilization of pilonidal cyst

    • D. 

      Ileostomy

  • 25. 
    418. In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left?
    • A. 

      Cerclage

    • B. 

      Marsupilization of Bartholin's cyst

    • C. 

      Shirodkar

    • D. 

      Cesarean section

  • 26. 
    419. The position for most open bladder surgery would be
    • A. 

      Lithotomy

    • B. 

      Supine, bolster under pelvis

    • C. 

      Reverse Trendelenburg

    • D. 

      Fowler's, modified

  • 27. 
    420. In which circumstance could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves?
    • A. 

      Positioned on the fracture table

    • B. 

      Positioned in the lateral chest

    • C. 

      Positioned in the lithotomy

    • D. 

      Positioned on the urological table

  • 28. 
    421. Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?
    • A. 

      Skeletal changes

    • B. 

      Limited range of motion of joints

    • C. 

      Tissue fragility

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 29. 
    422. When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?
    • A. 

      Patient's body does not touch metal on table

    • B. 

      Equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient

    • C. 

      Bony prominences are padded

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 30. 
    423. When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of
    • A. 

      Patient anxiety

    • B. 

      Dispersal of cancer cells

    • C. 

      Contamination

    • D. 

      Infection

  • 31. 
    424. The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the
    • A. 

      Patient's room

    • B. 

      Operating room (OR) suite

    • C. 

      Holding area of the OR

    • D. 

      Room where the surgery will be performed

  • 32. 
    425. Any area that is considered contaminated
    • A. 

      Should be scrubbed last or separately

    • B. 

      Should not be scrubbed at all

    • C. 

      Should be scrubbed first

    • D. 

      Needs no special consideration

  • 33. 
    426. In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted
    • A. 

      From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion

    • B. 

      From the periphery to the incision site in a circular motion

    • C. 

      In a side-to-side

    • D. 

      In the up-and-down motion

  • 34. 
    427. Preliminary preparation of the patient's skin begins
    • A. 

      With preoperative shower

    • B. 

      With the shaved preparation

    • C. 

      In the OR

    • D. 

      In the holding area

  • 35. 
    428. Suction tubing is attached to the drapes with a(n)
    • A. 

      Towel clip

    • B. 

      Non-perforating clamp

    • C. 

      Kocher clamp

    • D. 

      Allis clamp

  • 36. 
    430. When draping a table, the scrub nurse should drape
    • A. 

      Back to front

    • B. 

      Front to back

    • C. 

      Side to side

    • D. 

      Either A or B

  • 37. 
    429. All of the following statements regarding sterility are true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Wrapper edges are unsterile

    • B. 

      Instruments or sutures hanging over the edge of the table are discarded

    • C. 

      Sterile persons pass each other back to back

    • D. 

      A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing

  • 38. 
    432. Drapes are
    • A. 

      Adjusted after placement for correct position

    • B. 

      Unfolded before being carried to the OR table

    • C. 

      Past across the table to surgeon along with towel clips

    • D. 

      Placed on a dry area

  • 39. 
    431. A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping is
    • A. 

      Esmarch

    • B. 

      Ace bandage

    • C. 

      Kling

    • D. 

      Stockinette

  • 40. 
    433. which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?
    • A. 

      Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient

    • B. 

      Discard a drape that becomes contaminated

    • C. 

      Discard a sheet that falls below table level

    • D. 

      Cover or discarded trait that has a whole

  • 41. 
    434. A head drape consist of
    • A. 

      Medium sheet, towel, towel clip

    • B. 

      Two medium sheets, towel clip

    • C. 

      One small sheet, one medium sheet, towel clip

    • D. 

      Towel, fenestrated sheet

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Waste to neck level in the front and back, and the sleeves

    • B. 

      Waste to shoulder, front and back, and the sleeves

    • C. 

      Neck to thighs in front, and the sleeves

    • D. 

      Only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffs

  • 43. 
    436. An acceptable action when drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub is to
    • A. 

      Dry from elbow to fingertip

    • B. 

      Dry thoroughly, cleanest area first

    • C. 

      Keep the hands and arms close to the body, at waist level

    • D. 

      Dry one hand and arm thoroughly before proceeding to the next

  • 44. 
    437. All of the following statements regarding gowning another person are true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Open the hand towel and lay it on the person's hand

    • B. 

      Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband

    • C. 

      Keep hands on the outside of the gown under protective cuff

    • D. 

      Release the gown once the person touches it

  • 45. 
    438. Which statement regarding the scrub procedure is not true
    • A. 

      Reduces the microbial count

    • B. 

      Leaves in antimicrobial residue

    • C. 

      Renders the skin aseptic

    • D. 

      Removes skin oil

  • 46. 
    439. If the scrub nurse needs to change a glove during an operation
    • A. 

      The scrub must also regown

    • B. 

      The circulator pulls the glove off

    • C. 

      The scrub pulls the glove off

    • D. 

      This scrub uses closed-glove technique to reapply gloves

  • 47. 
    440. which statement regarding the removal of gown and gloves does not be safe criteria?
    • A. 

      The gloves are removed before the gown

    • B. 

      The gown is pulled off inside-out

    • C. 

      The gown is untied by the circulator

    • D. 

      The clothes are removed inside-out

  • 48. 
    441. An effective surgical scrub procedure is
    • A. 

      Time method

    • B. 

      Brush-stroke method

    • C. 

      3-minute anatomic method

    • D. 

      A and B

  • 49. 
    442. Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement would violate acceptable practice?
    • A. 

      Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip

    • B. 

      Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied

    • C. 

      Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hangnail should not scrub

    • D. 

      A non-oil-based hand lotion may be used to the skin

  • 50. 
    443. Eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields should be worn
    • A. 

      On every case

    • B. 

      On orthopedic cases

    • C. 

      On vascular cases

    • D. 

      On positive HIV cases

  • 51. 
    444. The surgical scrub is
    • A. 

      Sterilization of the skin

    • B. 

      Mechanical cleansing of the skin

    • C. 

      Chemical cleansing of the skin

    • D. 

      Mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis of the skin

  • 52. 
    445. Scrub technique ends
    • A. 

      2 inches below the waist

    • B. 

      Just below the elbow

    • C. 

      At the elbow

    • D. 

      2 inches above the elbow

  • 53. 
    446. Which statement regarding the surgical scrub indicates INAPPROPRIATE preparation by the scrub?
    • A. 

      Artificial nails/devices must not cover nails

    • B. 

      Nail polish may be worn, if not chipped

    • C. 

      Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertips

    • D. 

      Skin should be protected with a non-oil-based product

  • 54. 
    447. Which statement best describes any active surgical hand scrub?
    • A. 

      Time, no anatomical sequence

    • B. 

      Number of strokes, no anatomical sequence

    • C. 

      Time or number of strokes, hand to elbow sequence

    • D. 

      Number of strokes, elbow to hand sequence

  • 55. 
    448. The brush-stroke method of describing prescribes the number of strokes required. Indicate the number for each: nails, fingers, hands (back and palm) and arms.
    • A. 

      40, 30, 30, 30

    • B. 

      40, 40, 20, 20

    • C. 

      30, 20, 20, 20

    • D. 

      30, 20, 10, 10

  • 56. 
    449. A surgical treatment for scoliosis could employ the use of
    • A. 

      Skeletal traction

    • B. 

      External fixation

    • C. 

      Compression plate and screws

    • D. 

      Harrington rods

  • 57. 
    450. What is a lebsche used for?
    • A. 

      To open the sternum

    • B. 

      To retract spinal nerves

    • C. 

      To elevate the periosteum

    • D. 

      To separate the ribs

  • 58. 
    451. A rongeur used extensively in the surgery of the spine and and neurosurgery is the
    • A. 

      Adson

    • B. 

      Cobb

    • C. 

      Kerrison

    • D. 

      Cloward

  • 59. 
    452. Bakes are
    • A. 

      Retractors

    • B. 

      Common duct dilators

    • C. 

      Uterine dilators

    • D. 

      Elevators

  • 60. 
    453. A rib retractor is a
    • A. 

      Weitlaner

    • B. 

      Finochietto

    • C. 

      Harrington

    • D. 

      Beckman

  • 61. 
    454. A doyen is a
    • A. 

      Ribs shears

    • B. 

      Rib cutter

    • C. 

      Rib spreader

    • D. 

      Rib raspatory

  • 62. 
    455. The instrument used to enlarge the burr hole made during craniotomy is a
    • A. 

      Rongeur

    • B. 

      Periosteal elevator

    • C. 

      Gigli saw

    • D. 

      Cloward punch

  • 63. 
    456. Wescott scissors are used in
    • A. 

      Plastic surgery

    • B. 

      Ophthalmic surgery

    • C. 

      Vascular surgery

    • D. 

      Orthopedic surgery

  • 64. 
    457. The instrument used in a splenectomy is
    • A. 

      Doyen

    • B. 

      Allen

    • C. 

      Jacobs

    • D. 

      Pedicle clamp

  • 65. 
    458. Bowman probes are used in
    • A. 

      Common bile duct surgery

    • B. 

      Lacrimal surgery

    • C. 

      Kidney surgery

    • D. 

      Bladder surgery

  • 66. 
    459. A Hurd dissector and pillar retractor is used for
    • A. 

      Appendectomy

    • B. 

      Plastic surgery

    • C. 

      Nasal surgery

    • D. 

      Tonsillectomy

  • 67. 
    460. The Lempert elevator is used in the surgery of the
    • A. 

      Eye

    • B. 

      Nose

    • C. 

      Ear

    • D. 

      Bones

  • 68. 
    461. A Scoville retractor is used in a
    • A. 

      Total knee replacement

    • B. 

      Meniscectomy

    • C. 

      Laminectomy

    • D. 

      Carpal tunnel release

  • 69. 
    462. A Bailey is a
    • A. 

      Clamp

    • B. 

      Rongeur

    • C. 

      Dissecting forceps

    • D. 

      Rib approximator

  • 70. 
    463. A Sauerbruch is a(n)
    • A. 

      Elevator

    • B. 

      Raspatory

    • C. 

      Retractor

    • D. 

      Rongeur

  • 71. 
    464. An Auvard is a
    • A. 

      Forceps

    • B. 

      Dissector

    • C. 

      Speculum

    • D. 

      Sound

  • 72. 
    465. A Babcock is used to
    • A. 

      Grasp bone

    • B. 

      Grasp delicate structures

    • C. 

      Clamp vessels

    • D. 

      Retract soft tissue

  • 73. 
    466. Nasal cartilage is incised with a
    • A. 

      Ballenger swivel knife

    • B. 

      Freer elevator

    • C. 

      Duckbill rongeur

    • D. 

      Hurd dissector

  • 74. 
    467. A self-retaining retractor is a
    • A. 

      Weitlaner

    • B. 

      Lincoln

    • C. 

      Hibbs

    • D. 

      Deaver

  • 75. 
    468. A rectal speculum is a
    • A. 

      Percy

    • B. 

      Hirshmann

    • C. 

      Pennington

    • D. 

      Hill

  • 76. 
    469. A small fine needle holder used in a plastic surgery is a
    • A. 

      Ryder

    • B. 

      Heaney

    • C. 

      Webster

    • D. 

      Castroviejo

  • 77. 
    470. A kidney pedicle clamp is a
    • A. 

      Lincoln

    • B. 

      Herrick

    • C. 

      Love

    • D. 

      Little

  • 78. 
    471. Uterine dilators are
    • A. 

      Hanks

    • B. 

      Van Buren

    • C. 

      Bakes

    • D. 

      Graves

  • 79. 
    472. On which set would this instrument pictured/shown above be found?
    • A. 

      Thyroidectomy set

    • B. 

      Perineorrhaphy set

    • C. 

      Tonsillectomy set

    • D. 

      Orthopedic bone set

  • 80. 
    473. The instruments shown/pictured above is used to retrieve a needle biopsy from either the thyroid, liver, kidney, or prostate is
    • A. 

      Dorsey

    • B. 

      Chiba

    • C. 

      Bernardino-Sones

    • D. 

      Silverman

  • 81. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481474. The instrument(s) used for a corrective rhinoplasty is/are
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      3 and 8

    • C. 

      1 and 3

    • D. 

      3 and 5

  • 82. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481475. The instrument(s) found on a cholecystostomy set up is/are
    • A. 

      4 and 5

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      1

    • D. 

      3

  • 83. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481476. Which instrument is an O'Sullivan-O'Connor?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 84. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481477. The instrument(s) found on an intestinal setup is/are
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4 and 5

    • D. 

      1 and 5

  • 85. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481478. The retractor in a thorocotomy set to separate the ribs is
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      2

  • 86. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481479. The retractor known as a Green is
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 87. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481480. An instruments found in a major bone set is a
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      7

  • 88. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 474-481481. Which instrument is a Davidson?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      7

  • 89. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487482. The instrument used to grasp lung tissue is
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 90. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487483. The instrument(s) found on a vascular setup is/are
    • A. 

      2, 3, 5, and 6

    • B. 

      1, 3, and 5

    • C. 

      3 and 5

    • D. 

      2 and 3

  • 91. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487484. The instrument known as a Bulldog is
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      6

  • 92. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487485. Which instrument is a Heaney?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 93. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487486. Which instrument is a Potts-Smith?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 94. 
    Use the picture of above two complete questions 482-487487. The instrument(s) used to clamp the aorta is/are
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      1 and 3

  • 95. 
    488. This needle holder is called
    • A. 

      Jameson

    • B. 

      Castroviejo

    • C. 

      Wescott

    • D. 

      Webster

  • 96. 
    489. This kidney instrument is called
    • A. 

      Mayo pedicle clamp

    • B. 

      Herrick pedicle clamp

    • C. 

      Randall Stone forceps

    • D. 

      Lewkowitz lithotomy forceps

  • 97. 
    490. The retractor pictured is called
    • A. 

      Deaver

    • B. 

      Oschner malleable

    • C. 

      Harrington

    • D. 

      Richardson

  • 98. 
    491. This forceps is called
    • A. 

      Ferris-Smith

    • B. 

      Alligator

    • C. 

      Adair

    • D. 

      Bayonet

  • 99. 
    492. A technique utilizing the insertion of a needle or wire through a needle in order to identify suspicious breast tissue is a(n)
    • A. 

      Incisional biopsy

    • B. 

      Wire localization

    • C. 

      Silverman needle biopsy

    • D. 

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

  • 100. 
    493. A forceps used to remove stones in biliary surgery is a
    • A. 

      Mixter

    • B. 

      Lahey gall duct

    • C. 

      Potts-Smith

    • D. 

      Randall

  • 101. 
    494. Which procedure may require preparation of a skin graft setup?
    • A. 

      Total radical mastectomy

    • B. 

      Modified radical mastectomy

    • C. 

      Adenomammectomy

    • D. 

      Lumpectomy

  • 102. 
    495. Right-angled pedicle clamps would be found on a setup for
    • A. 

      Splenectomy

    • B. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • C. 

      Hemorrhoidectomy

    • D. 

      Thyroidectomy

  • 103. 
    496. Blunt nerve hooks are selected for a ________ setup.
    • A. 

      Vagotomy

    • B. 

      Colostomy

    • C. 

      Gastrojejunostomy

    • D. 

      Abdominal-perineal resection

  • 104. 
    497. In which procedural setup would a T-tube be found?
    • A. 

      Exploration of the common bile duct

    • B. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • C. 

      Cholelithotripsy

    • D. 

      Choledochoscopy

  • 105. 
    498. Stapedectomy requires all of the following items EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Small microsuction

    • B. 

      Speculum

    • C. 

      Prosthesis

    • D. 

      Autograft

  • 106. 
    499. Cochlear implants utilize and electrode device
    • A. 

      To restore hearing

    • B. 

      Two aerate the mastoid

    • C. 

      To allow drainage

    • D. 

      To relieve vertigo

  • 107. 
    500. All of the following are required for repair of a nasal fracture EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Bayonet forceps

    • B. 

      Ballenger swivel knife

    • C. 

      Splint

    • D. 

      Asch forceps

  • 108. 
    501. A forceps used in a nasal surgery is a(n)
    • A. 

      Bayonet

    • B. 

      Russian

    • C. 

      Rat-tooth

    • D. 

      Alligator

  • 109. 
    502. All of the following instruments can be found on a nasal set up EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Freer elevator

    • B. 

      Bayonet forceps

    • C. 

      Potts forceps

    • D. 

      Frazier suction tube

  • 110. 
    503. On which setup would bougies be found?
    • A. 

      Tonsillectomy

    • B. 

      Esophagoscopy

    • C. 

      Radial neck

    • D. 

      Parotidectomy

  • 111. 
    504. All of the following can be found on a tonsillectomy set up EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Yankauer suctioned

    • B. 

      Hurd dissector and pillar retractor

    • C. 

      Tongue depressor

    • D. 

      Jameson hook

  • 112. 
    505. Tissue expanders are used in
    • A. 

      Augmentation mammoplasty

    • B. 

      Reduction for gynecomastia

    • C. 

      Transrectus myocutaneous flap

    • D. 

      Breast reconstruction

  • 113. 
    506. The fracture treated with arch bars is
    • A. 

      Nasal

    • B. 

      Mandibular

    • C. 

      Zygomatic

    • D. 

      Orbital

  • 114. 
    507. Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires all of the following EXCEPT a(n)
    • A. 

      Alexander periosteotome

    • B. 

      Doyen raspatory

    • C. 

      Heaney clamp

    • D. 

      Stille sheers

  • 115. 
    508. Stone forceps on a kidney set are
    • A. 

      Lewkowitz

    • B. 

      Randall

    • C. 

      Satinsky

    • D. 

      Mayo

  • 116. 
    509.A Sarot is a
    • A. 

      Bronchus clamp

    • B. 

      Scapula retractor

    • C. 

      Lung retractor

    • D. 

      Lung grasping clamp

  • 117. 
    510. Which item would not be included on a setup for a transvenous (endocardial) pacemaker?
    • A. 

      Tunneling instrument

    • B. 

      Intra-aortic balloon pump

    • C. 

      Fluoroscopy

    • D. 

      Defibrillator

  • 118. 
    511. The most frequent conditions requiring the use of a permanent pacemaker are
    • A. 

      Coronary or mitral insufficiency

    • B. 

      Pulmonary artery or vein stenosis

    • C. 

      Heart block, Bradyarrhythmia

    • D. 

      Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect

  • 119. 
    512. Which SetUp would include distraction and compression components?
    • A. 

      Harrington rods

    • B. 

      Intramedullary nail

    • C. 

      Arthrodesis

    • D. 

      Tibial shaft fracture

  • 120. 
    513. Traction applied directly on bone via pins, wires, or tongs is
    • A. 

      Internal

    • B. 

      Closed

    • C. 

      Skeletal

    • D. 

      Counter pressure

  • 121. 
    514. Skeletal traction of a lower leg is accomplished with the use of a(n)
    • A. 

      Kirschner wire

    • B. 

      Knowles pin

    • C. 

      Eggers plate

    • D. 

      Smith-Peterson nail

  • 122. 
    515. In orthopedic surgery, the viewing of the progression of a procedure on a television screen is known as
    • A. 

      Image intensification

    • B. 

      Radiography

    • C. 

      Portable filming

    • D. 

      X-ray

  • 123. 
    516. A neurologic study in which a radiopaque substance is injected into the subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture is callled a(n)
    • A. 

      Cerebral angiography

    • B. 

      Myelogram

    • C. 

      Encephalogram

    • D. 

      Diskogram

  • 124. 
    517. A neural headrest skull clamp is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Sachs

    • B. 

      Frazier

    • C. 

      Adson

    • D. 

      Mayfield

  • 125. 
    518. Maintenance of acceptable blood pressure and prevention of the development of air emboli in the neurosurgical patient can be affected by preoperative utilization of
    • A. 

      An antigravity suit

    • B. 

      Ace bandages

    • C. 

      Thrombo-embolic device (TED) stockings

    • D. 

      Adequate body support

  • 126. 
    519. A _______ is a mouth gagged.
    • A. 

      Burlisher

    • B. 

      Blair

    • C. 

      Dingman

    • D. 

      Forman

  • 127. 
    520. Specialized instruments for a cleft lip repair would include
    • A. 

      Cupid's bow

    • B. 

      Logan's bow

    • C. 

      Arch bar

    • D. 

      Wire scissors

  • 128. 
    521. Cloward instrumentation would be included for the surgery of the
    • A. 

      Hip

    • B. 

      Femur

    • C. 

      Cervical spine

    • D. 

      Lumbar spine

  • 129. 
    522. On which set up would a Beaver knife handle be found?
    • A. 

      Orthopedic

    • B. 

      Pediatric

    • C. 

      Gynecologic

    • D. 

      Eye

  • 130. 
    523. Which procedure requires a sterile setup?
    • A. 

      Manual skin traction

    • B. 

      Skin traction

    • C. 

      Skeletal traction

    • D. 

      Closed reduction

  • 131. 
    524. A craniotomy may employ the use of a(n) __________ for exposure.
    • A. 

      Mayfield

    • B. 

      Sugita

    • C. 

      Heifetz

    • D. 

      Leyla-Yasargil

  • 132. 
    525. On which setup would either a Pereyra or a Stamey needle be found?
    • A. 

      Urologic

    • B. 

      Eye

    • C. 

      Orthopedic

    • D. 

      Thoracic

  • 133. 
    526. Disintegration of kidney stones through a liquid medium is accomplished with a(n)
    • A. 

      Nephroscope

    • B. 

      Extracorporeal shock wave lithotriptor

    • C. 

      Laser

    • D. 

      Cystoscope

  • 134. 
    527. A urology perineal retractor system is called
    • A. 

      Bookwalter

    • B. 

      O'Sullivan-O'Conner

    • C. 

      Omni-Tract

    • D. 

      Lowsley

  • 135. 
    528. Which procedure would utilize a Mason-Judd retractor?
    • A. 

      Bladder

    • B. 

      Uterus

    • C. 

      Hip

    • D. 

      Nose

  • 136. 
    529. A furlough inserter is used in
    • A. 

      Penile implantation

    • B. 

      Femoral-popliteal bypass

    • C. 

      Total hip replacement

    • D. 

      Intraocular lens (IOL) implant

  • 137. 
    530. On which case what a boomerang be found?
    • A. 

      Prostate

    • B. 

      Ovary

    • C. 

      Eye

    • D. 

      Nose

  • 138. 
    531. A Millin is a(n)
    • A. 

      Prostatic enucleator

    • B. 

      Urological needle holder

    • C. 

      Stoned forceps

    • D. 

      Retropubic bladder retractor

  • 139. 
    532. Which setup would include a Gomco clamp?
    • A. 

      Colostomy

    • B. 

      Breast augmentation

    • C. 

      Circumcision

    • D. 

      Femoral popliteal bypass

  • 140. 
    533. In which surgical specialty would a Humi Cannula be used?
    • A. 

      Gynecologic

    • B. 

      Ophthalmic

    • C. 

      Orthopedic

    • D. 

      Vascular

  • 141. 
    534. An instrument used in a laparoscopy to manipulate the uterus for increased structure visibility is the
    • A. 

      Verres

    • B. 

      Pratt

    • C. 

      Mayo-Hegar

    • D. 

      Hulka

  • 142. 
    535. A central venous pressure (CVP) catheter insertion requires
    • A. 

      A sterile setup

    • B. 

      A crash cart

    • C. 

      In IV technician

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 143. 
    536. The purpose of a set of bakes would be
    • A. 

      Anal dilation

    • B. 

      Esophageal dilation

    • C. 

      Common duct dilation

    • D. 

      Cervical dilation

  • 144. 
    • A. 

      Shoulder replacement

    • B. 

      Knee joint replacement

    • C. 

      Femoral implant

    • D. 

      Spinal implant

  • 145. 
    538. Skeletal traction is accomplished with
    • A. 

      Sayre Sling

    • B. 

      Minerva Jacket

    • C. 

      Crutchfield tongs

    • D. 

      Steffee System

  • 146. 
    539. As a Bookwalter is a _______  instrument.
    • A. 

      Clamping

    • B. 

      Holding

    • C. 

      Suturing

    • D. 

      Retracting

  • 147. 
    540. Which instrument is a retractor?
    • A. 

      Harrington

    • B. 

      Doyen

    • C. 

      Crile

    • D. 

      Allen

  • 148. 
    541. A long thoracic forceps is a
    • A. 

      Semb

    • B. 

      Schnidt

    • C. 

      Sauerbruch

    • D. 

      Doyen

  • 149. 
    542. A bougie is a
    • A. 

      Clamp

    • B. 

      Dilator

    • C. 

      Retractor

    • D. 

      Grasper

  • 150. 
    543. Which graft must be a change with a Dermatome?
    • A. 

      Split-thickness mesh graft

    • B. 

      Full-thickness Wolfe graft

    • C. 

      Free myocutaneous graft

    • D. 

      Full-thickness pinch graph

  • 151. 
    544. A Cavitron unit is used for
    • A. 

      Cyclodialysis

    • B. 

      Photocoagulation

    • C. 

      Phacoemulsification

    • D. 

      Cryotherapy