Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg59-73 CST Exam Prep

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Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg59-73 CST Exam Prep - Quiz

Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg59-73 CST exam prep


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    394. Room temperature for infants and children should be maintained as warm as

    • A.

      70°

    • B.

      80°

    • C.

      85°

    • D.

      95°

    Correct Answer
    C. 85°
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 85° because infants and children have a higher metabolic rate and are less able to regulate their body temperature compared to adults. Keeping the room temperature at 85° helps to ensure that they stay warm and comfortable, reducing the risk of hypothermia or other temperature-related issues. However, it is important to note that this is just a general guideline and individual preferences and needs may vary.

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  • 2. 

    395. Areas needing special cleaning attention on a weekly or monthly routine would include

    • A.

      Furniture

    • B.

      Air conditioning grills and walls

    • C.

      Ceiling and wall mounted fixtures and tracks

    • D.

      Kick buckets

    Correct Answer
    B. Air conditioning grills and walls
    Explanation
    The areas needing special cleaning attention on a weekly or monthly routine would include air conditioning grills and walls. This is because air conditioning grills can accumulate dust and debris over time, which can affect the air quality and efficiency of the system. Walls can also collect dust, dirt, and stains, especially in high traffic areas. Regular cleaning of these areas helps to maintain a clean and healthy environment.

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  • 3. 

    396. A glass suction bottles should ideally be

    • A.

      Rinsed with tap water between each case

    • B.

      Cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse

    • C.

      Rinsed with sterile distilled water between each use

    • D.

      Autoclaved daily

    Correct Answer
    B. Cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse
    Explanation
    Glass suction bottles should ideally be cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse. This is because glass suction bottles can become contaminated with various microorganisms during use, and cleaning them with a disinfectant solution helps to eliminate any potential pathogens. Autoclaving the bottles further ensures that they are thoroughly sterilized and safe for reuse. Rinsing with tap water or sterile distilled water may not be sufficient to remove all contaminants and may not provide the necessary level of sterilization. Autoclaving the bottles daily is not necessary unless they have been used in a particularly high-risk case.

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  • 4. 

    397. Storage shelves must be cleaned with the germicide

    • A.

      Each case

    • B.

      Each day

    • C.

      Each week

    • D.

      Each month

    Correct Answer
    C. Each week
    Explanation
    Storage shelves must be cleaned with the germicide each week. This ensures that any potential germs or bacteria that may have accumulated on the shelves are eliminated regularly, maintaining a clean and hygienic storage environment. Cleaning the shelves on a weekly basis helps prevent the spread of contaminants and reduces the risk of contamination of stored items. Regular cleaning also promotes good sanitation practices and helps maintain the overall cleanliness and organization of the storage area.

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  • 5. 

    398. While a surgical case is in progress

    • A.

      Doors remain open so staff can easily move in or out

    • B.

      Doors should remain closed

    • C.

      Doors remain open to circulate air

    • D.

      Doors may be open or closed

    Correct Answer
    B. Doors should remain closed
    Explanation
    During a surgical case, it is important for the doors to remain closed. This is because closed doors help maintain a sterile environment in the operating room by preventing the entry of contaminants from outside. Closed doors also help in controlling the temperature and humidity levels, which are crucial for the comfort and safety of the surgical team and the patient. Additionally, closed doors minimize noise and distractions, allowing the surgical team to focus on the procedure at hand.

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  • 6. 

    399. When cleaning the floor between cases

    • A.

      A clean mop head must be used each time

    • B.

      A two-bucket system, one detergent and one clear water, is used

    • C.

      Buckets must be emptied and cleaned between each case

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that all of the given statements are true and should be followed when cleaning the floor between cases. A clean mop head must be used each time to ensure proper cleanliness. A two-bucket system, with one containing detergent and the other clear water, should be used to effectively clean the floor. Additionally, the buckets must be emptied and cleaned between each case to maintain hygiene standards.

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  • 7. 

    400. a dropped sterile item may only be used if the

    • A.

      Wrapper is muslin

    • B.

      Wrapper is impervious and contact area is dry

    • C.

      Wrapper is impervious with contact area wet or dry

    • D.

      Wrapper is dusted off thoroughly

    Correct Answer
    B. Wrapper is impervious and contact area is dry
    Explanation
    A dropped sterile item may only be used if the wrapper is impervious and the contact area is dry. This is because an impervious wrapper prevents any contamination from reaching the sterile item, ensuring its sterility is maintained. Additionally, a dry contact area reduces the risk of introducing moisture, which can promote the growth of microorganisms and compromise the sterility of the item. Therefore, both conditions are necessary to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the sterile item.

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  • 8. 

    401. In the event that a child needs emergency surgery, and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission

    • A.

      No permission is necessary

    • B.

      Permission is signed by a court of law

    • C.

      Permission assigned by the physician

    • D.

      A written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice

    Correct Answer
    D. A written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice
    Explanation
    In the event that a child needs emergency surgery and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission, a written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice. This means that if the parents cannot be reached, the decision to proceed with the surgery can be made by obtaining written consent from two other physicians who are not directly involved in the surgery. This ensures that there is a consensus among medical professionals regarding the necessity of the surgery and helps protect the child's well-being in an emergency situation.

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  • 9. 

    402. The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. After completing this procedure the surgeon decides to remove mole from the shoulder while the patient is still under anesthesia. No permission was obtained for this. The circulating nurse should

    • A.

      Report it to the anesthesiologist

    • B.

      Report it to the chief of surgery

    • C.

      Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority

    • D.

      Let the surgeon proceed because it is his or her responsibility to obtain the consent

    Correct Answer
    C. Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority because performing an additional procedure without obtaining the patient's consent is a violation of medical ethics and legal requirements. It is important to escalate the issue to the appropriate authority to ensure that the incident is properly addressed and the patient's rights are protected.

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  • 10. 

    403. The surgical consent form can be witnessed by each of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      The surgeon

    • B.

      A nurse

    • C.

      An authorized hospital employee

    • D.

      The patient's spouse

    Correct Answer
    D. The patient's spouse
    Explanation
    The surgical consent form can be witnessed by the surgeon, a nurse, and an authorized hospital employee. However, the patient's spouse cannot be a witness to the consent form. This is because the spouse may have a personal interest in the surgery and their presence as a witness may compromise the impartiality and validity of the consent process. Therefore, it is important to have witnesses who are unbiased and not directly involved in the patient's care or personal life.

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  • 11. 

    404. The patient is premedicated and brought to the operating room for a cystoscopy and an open reduction of the wrist. Upon arrival in the operating room, it is observed that the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy. The correct procedure would be to

    • A.

      Cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtained

    • B.

      Have the patient sign for the additional procedure in the operating room

    • C.

      Ask the patient verbally for consent and have witnesses attest to a

    • D.

      But the surgeon make the decision as to whether the surgery could be done

    Correct Answer
    A. Cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtained
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtained. This is because the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy and not for the open reduction of the wrist. In order to proceed with the additional procedure, it is important to have proper consent from the patient. Without a valid permission, it would be ethically and legally incorrect to proceed with the surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to cancel the surgery until the patient provides consent for the additional procedure.

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  • 12. 

    405. A general consent form is

    • A.

      A form authorizing all treatments or procedures

    • B.

      The form for all patients having general anesthesia

    • C.

      A form for all patients having hazardous therapy

    • D.

      Another name for an operative permit

    Correct Answer
    A. A form authorizing all treatments or procedures
    Explanation
    A general consent form is a document that grants permission for all types of medical treatments or procedures. It is not specific to patients receiving general anesthesia or hazardous therapy, nor is it synonymous with an operative permit. The form is meant to cover all possible treatments or procedures that may be necessary during a patient's medical care.

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  • 13. 

    406. The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lives with

    • A.

      Operating room supervisor

    • B.

      Circulating nurse

    • C.

      Surgeon

    • D.

      Unit charge nurse

    Correct Answer
    C. Surgeon
    Explanation
    The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lives with the surgeon because they are the medical professional performing the procedure and are directly responsible for the patient's care and treatment. The surgeon is the one who will be performing the surgery and has the knowledge and expertise to explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the patient, ensuring that they fully understand and give their informed consent. The operating room supervisor, circulating nurse, and unit charge nurse may have roles in the surgical process, but the surgeon is the one who holds the primary responsibility for obtaining consent.

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  • 14. 

    407. The surgical consent is signed

    • A.

      Before induction

    • B.

      In the holding area

    • C.

      The morning of surgery

    • D.

      Before administration of preoperative medications

    Correct Answer
    D. Before administration of preoperative medications
    Explanation
    The surgical consent is signed before administration of preoperative medications because it is important for the patient to fully understand the risks and benefits of the surgery before any medications are given. By signing the consent form beforehand, the patient has the opportunity to ask any questions and make an informed decision about proceeding with the surgery. Additionally, the consent form ensures that the patient's wishes are documented and legally binding.

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  • 15. 

    408. An informed consent

    • A.

      Authorizes routine duties carried out at the hospital

    • B.

      Protects patient from unratified or unwanted procedures

    • C.

      Protects the surgeon in the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation

    • D.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. B and C
    Explanation
    An informed consent protects the patient from unratified or unwanted procedures by ensuring that they have been fully informed about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a medical procedure or treatment. It also protects the surgeon in the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation as it serves as evidence that the patient agreed to the procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.

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  • 16. 

    409. Implied consent

    • A.

      Is the preferred option for consents

    • B.

      Is allowed by law any emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted

    • C.

      Is never legally valid

    • D.

      Is the permission for surgical action

    Correct Answer
    B. Is allowed by law any emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted
    Explanation
    Implied consent is allowed by law in emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted. This means that in certain situations where immediate action is necessary to prevent harm or save a person's life, consent can be assumed based on the circumstances, even if the person is unable to give explicit permission. This is an exception to the general requirement of obtaining explicit consent for any medical or surgical procedures.

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  • 17. 

    410. Which statement regarding the withdrawal of the consent by a patient is NOT true?

    • A.

      The surgeon informs the patient of the dangers if the procedure is not carried out

    • B.

      The surgeon informs the hospital administration of the patient's refusal

    • C.

      Surgeon obtains a written refusal from the patient

    • D.

      The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure

    Correct Answer
    D. The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure
    Explanation
    The statement "the surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure" is not true. Informed consent is a fundamental principle in medical ethics, and it requires that patients have the right to refuse treatment even if it may be lifesaving. Therefore, the surgeon cannot proceed with the procedure against the patient's refusal, even if they believe it is necessary for the patient's life.

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  • 18. 

    411. Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?

    • A.

      Lithotomy

    • B.

      Kraske

    • C.

      Knee-chest

    • D.

      Modified prone

    Correct Answer
    B. Kraske
    Explanation
    The most desirable position for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy is the Kraske position. This position involves the patient lying on their abdomen with their hips flexed and their knees bent. The patient's buttocks are elevated, allowing for better access to the surgical site. This position provides optimal exposure and accessibility for the surgeon to perform the procedure effectively and efficiently. The lithotomy position is commonly used for gynecological procedures, the knee-chest position is used for rectal examinations, and the modified prone position is used for certain spinal surgeries.

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  • 19. 

    412. A position often used in cranial procedures is called

    • A.

      Fowler's

    • B.

      Kraske

    • C.

      Trendelenburg

    • D.

      Lithotomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Fowler's
    Explanation
    Fowler's position is a commonly used position in cranial procedures. It involves the patient lying on their back with the head elevated at a 45-degree angle. This position allows for better access to the surgical site and helps to minimize the risk of complications such as bleeding or swelling.

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  • 20. 

    413. In positioning for laminectomy, roles or bolsters are placed

    • A.

      Horizontally, one under the chest and one under the thighs

    • B.

      Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip

    • C.

      Longitudinally to support the chest from sternum to hip

    • D.

      Below the knees

    Correct Answer
    B. Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip
    Explanation
    In positioning for laminectomy, roles or bolsters are placed longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip. This positioning provides stability and support to the chest area during the procedure. Placing the roles or bolsters in this manner helps to maintain proper alignment and prevent any unnecessary movement or strain on the patient's chest and upper body.

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  • 21. 

    414. The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is

    • A.

      Modified Trendelenburg

    • B.

      Reverse Trendelenburg

    • C.

      Supine

    • D.

      Dorsal recumbent

    Correct Answer
    A. Modified Trendelenburg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is modified Trendelenburg. In hypovolemic shock, the body is experiencing a significant loss of blood volume. The modified Trendelenburg position is commonly used to help improve blood flow to vital organs by elevating the patient's legs above the level of the heart. This position promotes venous return and increases cardiac output, helping to stabilize the patient's condition. The reverse Trendelenburg position, supine position, and dorsal recumbent position do not provide the same benefits in terms of improving blood flow and are not typically used in cases of hypovolemic shock.

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  • 22. 

    415. A Mayfield table would be used for which type of surgery?

    • A.

      Ophthalmic

    • B.

      Gynecologic

    • C.

      Neurologic

    • D.

      Urologic

    Correct Answer
    C. Neurologic
    Explanation
    A Mayfield table is specifically designed for neurologic surgeries. It is a specialized operating table that allows for precise positioning of the patient's head and neck during neurosurgical procedures. This table provides stability and support, ensuring the surgeon can access the surgical site with accuracy and safety. It is not typically used for ophthalmic, gynecologic, or urologic surgeries, as these procedures do not require the same level of head and neck positioning and stability.

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  • 23. 

    416. Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll

    • B.

      Hyperextension of the neck

    • C.

      Utilization of the of the skin-stay sutures

    • D.

      Firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures

    Correct Answer
    D. Firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures
    Explanation
    Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following except firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. The laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures should not be retracted firmly during thyroid surgery as it can cause damage and lead to complications such as hoarseness or loss of voice. The other options mentioned, such as modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll, hyperextension of the neck, and utilization of skin-stay sutures, are techniques that can help provide better visibility and access to the thyroid gland during surgery.

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  • 24. 

    417. A procedure requiring the patient to be positioned supine and modified with lithotomy is

    • A.

      Colonoscopy

    • B.

      Abdominoperineal resection (APR)

    • C.

      Marsupilization of pilonidal cyst

    • D.

      Ileostomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Abdominoperineal resection (APR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is abdominoperineal resection (APR). This procedure requires the patient to be positioned supine and modified with lithotomy. Abdominoperineal resection is a surgical procedure performed to remove the rectum, anus, and part of the sigmoid colon. It is typically done to treat rectal cancer or other conditions that cannot be treated with less invasive methods. The patient is positioned supine (lying on their back) and modified with lithotomy (legs raised and supported in stirrups) to provide the surgeon with better access to the surgical site.

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  • 25. 

    418. In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left?

    • A.

      Cerclage

    • B.

      Marsupilization of Bartholin's cyst

    • C.

      Shirodkar

    • D.

      Cesarean section

    Correct Answer
    D. Cesarean section
    Explanation
    In a cesarean section procedure, the patient may be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left. This positioning helps to prevent compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus, ensuring adequate blood flow to the mother and the baby during the surgery.

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  • 26. 

    419. The position for most open bladder surgery would be

    • A.

      Lithotomy

    • B.

      Supine, bolster under pelvis

    • C.

      Reverse Trendelenburg

    • D.

      Fowler's, modified

    Correct Answer
    B. Supine, bolster under pelvis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is supine with a bolster under the pelvis. This position allows for better access to the bladder during open surgery. The supine position means lying flat on the back, while the bolster under the pelvis helps to elevate and tilt the pelvis, providing optimal exposure of the surgical site. This position allows the surgeon to have a clear view and easier access to the bladder for the procedure.

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  • 27. 

    420. In which circumstance could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves?

    • A.

      Positioned on the fracture table

    • B.

      Positioned in the lateral chest

    • C.

      Positioned in the lithotomy

    • D.

      Positioned on the urological table

    Correct Answer
    A. Positioned on the fracture table
    Explanation
    The pudendal nerves are responsible for providing sensation to the external genitalia and perineum. When a patient is positioned on the fracture table, there is a risk of compression or stretching of the pudendal nerves due to the pressure applied to the pelvic region. This compression or stretching can potentially cause injury to the nerves, leading to symptoms such as pain, numbness, or loss of sensation in the genital area. Therefore, positioning the patient on the fracture table increases the likelihood of sustaining injury to the pudendal nerves.

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  • 28. 

    421. Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?

    • A.

      Skeletal changes

    • B.

      Limited range of motion of joints

    • C.

      Tissue fragility

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When positioning an aging patient, it is important to consider skeletal changes, limited range of motion of joints, and tissue fragility. Skeletal changes, such as osteoporosis or degenerative joint disease, can affect the patient's ability to maintain proper positioning and may require additional support. Limited range of motion of joints can make it difficult for the patient to move or adjust themselves, so proper positioning is crucial to prevent discomfort or injury. Tissue fragility, which is common in aging patients, means that their skin and underlying tissues are more prone to damage or breakdown, so positioning should be gentle and careful to avoid pressure ulcers or skin tears.

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  • 29. 

    422. When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?

    • A.

      Patient's body does not touch metal on table

    • B.

      Equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient

    • C.

      Bony prominences are padded

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When positioning a patient for a procedure, maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure can be achieved by ensuring that the patient's body does not touch the metal on the table, that equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient, and by padding bony prominences. These measures help prevent injury to the patient, maintain a sterile field, and provide optimal visibility and access to the surgical site.

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  • 30. 

    423. When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of

    • A.

      Patient anxiety

    • B.

      Dispersal of cancer cells

    • C.

      Contamination

    • D.

      Infection

    Correct Answer
    B. Dispersal of cancer cells
    Explanation
    During a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of the potential risk of dispersing cancer cells. Scrubbing the breast vigorously can cause the cancer cells to spread to other areas of the breast or even to other parts of the body, increasing the risk of metastasis. Therefore, it is important to handle the breast with care during the biopsy procedure to minimize the risk of cancer cell dispersal.

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  • 31. 

    424. The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the

    • A.

      Patient's room

    • B.

      Operating room (OR) suite

    • C.

      Holding area of the OR

    • D.

      Room where the surgery will be performed

    Correct Answer
    C. Holding area of the OR
    Explanation
    The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the holding area of the OR. This is because the holding area is specifically designated for preoperative preparations, including shaving. It is a controlled environment where the necessary equipment and supplies are readily available, ensuring proper hygiene and safety measures are followed. Additionally, performing the shave prep in the holding area allows for better time management and coordination with the surgical team, as the patient can be prepared and ready for surgery before entering the operating room.

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  • 32. 

    425. Any area that is considered contaminated

    • A.

      Should be scrubbed last or separately

    • B.

      Should not be scrubbed at all

    • C.

      Should be scrubbed first

    • D.

      Needs no special consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Should be scrubbed last or separately
    Explanation
    When an area is considered contaminated, it is important to ensure that the contamination does not spread to other areas. Therefore, the area should be scrubbed last or separately to prevent cross-contamination. By scrubbing it last or separately, the risk of spreading the contamination to other areas can be minimized, ensuring proper cleaning and safety protocols are followed.

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  • 33. 

    426. In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted

    • A.

      From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion

    • B.

      From the periphery to the incision site in a circular motion

    • C.

      In a side-to-side

    • D.

      In the up-and-down motion

    Correct Answer
    A. From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion
    Explanation
    In preparation for surgery, the skin should be washed and painted from the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion. This method ensures that the area around the incision site is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected. Starting from the incision site and moving outward in a circular motion helps to prevent the spread of bacteria or contaminants towards the incision site, reducing the risk of infection.

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  • 34. 

    427. Preliminary preparation of the patient's skin begins

    • A.

      With preoperative shower

    • B.

      With the shaved preparation

    • C.

      In the OR

    • D.

      In the holding area

    Correct Answer
    A. With preoperative shower
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "with preoperative shower". This means that the preliminary preparation of the patient's skin is started by giving them a shower before the operation. This is done to ensure that the patient's skin is clean and free from any potential contaminants that could increase the risk of infection during the surgery. The preoperative shower helps to remove bacteria and other microorganisms from the skin, reducing the chances of post-operative complications.

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  • 35. 

    428. Suction tubing is attached to the drapes with a(n)

    • A.

      Towel clip

    • B.

      Non-perforating clamp

    • C.

      Kocher clamp

    • D.

      Allis clamp

    Correct Answer
    B. Non-perforating clamp
    Explanation
    A non-perforating clamp is used to attach suction tubing to drapes. This type of clamp does not create holes or punctures in the material it is attached to, ensuring that the drapes remain intact and do not leak any fluids. It provides a secure and reliable connection between the suction tubing and the drapes, allowing for effective suction during medical procedures while maintaining a sterile environment.

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  • 36. 

    430. When draping a table, the scrub nurse should drape

    • A.

      Back to front

    • B.

      Front to back

    • C.

      Side to side

    • D.

      Either A or B

    Correct Answer
    B. Front to back
    Explanation
    When draping a table, the scrub nurse should drape from front to back. This is because draping from front to back helps to maintain a sterile field by preventing contamination from the nurse's body or clothing. Draping in this direction ensures that any potential contaminants are moved away from the sterile field, reducing the risk of infection during the surgical procedure.

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  • 37. 

    429. All of the following statements regarding sterility are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Wrapper edges are unsterile

    • B.

      Instruments or sutures hanging over the edge of the table are discarded

    • C.

      Sterile persons pass each other back to back

    • D.

      A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing

    Correct Answer
    D. A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing
    Explanation
    When passing, a sterile person faces a nonsterile person. This statement is not true because a sterile person should always face another sterile person to maintain sterility.

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  • 38. 

    432. Drapes are

    • A.

      Adjusted after placement for correct position

    • B.

      Unfolded before being carried to the OR table

    • C.

      Past across the table to surgeon along with towel clips

    • D.

      Placed on a dry area

    Correct Answer
    D. Placed on a dry area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is placed on a dry area because drapes need to be placed on a dry area to ensure a sterile environment in the operating room. Moisture can harbor bacteria and compromise the effectiveness of the drapes in preventing contamination. Therefore, it is important to place the drapes on a dry surface to maintain a sterile field during surgery.

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  • 39. 

    431. A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping is

    • A.

      Esmarch

    • B.

      Ace bandage

    • C.

      Kling

    • D.

      Stockinette

    Correct Answer
    D. Stockinette
    Explanation
    Stockinette is a seamless, stretchable material that is commonly used to cover extremities during draping. It provides a smooth surface and helps to protect the skin during medical procedures. Esmarch is a type of bandage used for exsanguination, Ace bandage is a type of elastic bandage used for compression, and kling is a type of self-adherent wrap used for securing dressings. Therefore, the correct answer is stockinette.

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  • 40. 

    433. which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?

    • A.

      Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient

    • B.

      Discard a drape that becomes contaminated

    • C.

      Discard a sheet that falls below table level

    • D.

      Cover or discarded trait that has a whole

    Correct Answer
    A. Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient
    Explanation
    During the draping process, it is essential to maintain a sterile environment. The statement "gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient" demonstrates a break in technique because it introduces the risk of contaminating the sterile field. In order to prevent infection or cross-contamination, healthcare professionals should avoid touching the patient's skin with gloved hands.

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  • 41. 

    434. A head drape consist of

    • A.

      Medium sheet, towel, towel clip

    • B.

      Two medium sheets, towel clip

    • C.

      One small sheet, one medium sheet, towel clip

    • D.

      Towel, fenestrated sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Medium sheet, towel, towel clip
    Explanation
    A head drape consists of a medium sheet, towel, and towel clip. These items are used to cover and secure the patient's head during a medical procedure. The medium sheet provides a barrier and helps to maintain a sterile environment. The towel is used to absorb any fluids or sweat that may occur during the procedure. The towel clip is used to secure the drape in place and prevent it from slipping or falling off.

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  • 42. 

    435. Gowns are considered sterile only from

    • A.

      Waste to neck level in the front and back, and the sleeves

    • B.

      Waste to shoulder, front and back, and the sleeves

    • C.

      Neck to thighs in front, and the sleeves

    • D.

      Only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffs

    Correct Answer
    D. Only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffs
    Explanation
    Gowns are considered sterile only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffs. This means that the front of the gown, from the chest area down to the sterile field level, is considered sterile. Additionally, the sleeves of the gown, from the elbow down to the cuffs, are also considered sterile. This is important to maintain aseptic conditions in medical settings, where gowns are worn to prevent the spread of infection.

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  • 43. 

    436. An acceptable action when drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub is to

    • A.

      Dry from elbow to fingertip

    • B.

      Dry thoroughly, cleanest area first

    • C.

      Keep the hands and arms close to the body, at waist level

    • D.

      Dry one hand and arm thoroughly before proceeding to the next

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry thoroughly, cleanest area first
    Explanation
    When drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub, it is important to dry thoroughly to ensure that all moisture is removed. Starting with the cleanest area first is a good practice to prevent contamination. By drying from the cleanest area, such as the fingertips, to the dirtier areas, such as the elbows, any potential contaminants are less likely to be spread. This helps maintain a sterile environment during surgery.

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  • 44. 

    437. All of the following statements regarding gowning another person are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Open the hand towel and lay it on the person's hand

    • B.

      Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband

    • C.

      Keep hands on the outside of the gown under protective cuff

    • D.

      Release the gown once the person touches it

    Correct Answer
    B. Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband." This statement is not true because when gowning another person, you should not hand the folded gown to them at the neckband. Instead, you should hold the gown open and allow the person to step into it, then secure it at the neck and waist ties.

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  • 45. 

    438. Which statement regarding the scrub procedure is not true

    • A.

      Reduces the microbial count

    • B.

      Leaves in antimicrobial residue

    • C.

      Renders the skin aseptic

    • D.

      Removes skin oil

    Correct Answer
    C. Renders the skin aseptic
    Explanation
    The statement "renders the skin aseptic" is not true. The scrub procedure is designed to reduce the microbial count on the skin and remove any dirt or contaminants, but it does not make the skin completely sterile or aseptic. Aseptic techniques involve using sterile equipment and maintaining a sterile environment, which is not achieved through a scrub procedure alone.

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  • 46. 

    439. If the scrub nurse needs to change a glove during an operation

    • A.

      The scrub must also regown

    • B.

      The circulator pulls the glove off

    • C.

      The scrub pulls the glove off

    • D.

      This scrub uses closed-glove technique to reapply gloves

    Correct Answer
    B. The circulator pulls the glove off
    Explanation
    During an operation, if the scrub nurse needs to change a glove, the circulator pulls the glove off. This is because the circulator, who is responsible for assisting the scrub nurse, helps in maintaining a sterile field by performing tasks such as removing contaminated items. By having the circulator pull off the glove, it ensures that the scrub nurse's hands remain sterile and prevents any contamination from occurring.

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  • 47. 

    440. which statement regarding the removal of gown and gloves does not be safe criteria?

    • A.

      The gloves are removed before the gown

    • B.

      The gown is pulled off inside-out

    • C.

      The gown is untied by the circulator

    • D.

      The clothes are removed inside-out

    Correct Answer
    A. The gloves are removed before the gown
    Explanation
    Removing the gloves before the gown is not a safe criteria because it can lead to contamination. The correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE) is to first remove the gown and then the gloves. This helps to prevent any potential contamination on the gown from coming into contact with the hands when removing the gloves.

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  • 48. 

    441. An effective surgical scrub procedure is

    • A.

      Time method

    • B.

      Brush-stroke method

    • C.

      3-minute anatomic method

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A and B. The effective surgical scrub procedure involves using the time method and the brush-stroke method. The time method refers to scrubbing the hands and forearms for a specific duration, usually around 2-6 minutes, to ensure thorough cleaning. The brush-stroke method involves using a specific pattern of scrubbing motions, such as circular or back-and-forth motions, to cover all areas of the hands and forearms. By combining both methods, healthcare professionals can achieve a high level of cleanliness and reduce the risk of infections during surgical procedures.

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  • 49. 

    442. Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement would violate acceptable practice?

    • A.

      Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip

    • B.

      Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied

    • C.

      Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hangnail should not scrub

    • D.

      A non-oil-based hand lotion may be used to the skin

    Correct Answer
    B. Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied
    Explanation
    Wearing nail polish, even if it is freshly applied, would violate acceptable practice for surgical scrub. Nail polish can harbor bacteria and interfere with proper hand hygiene. It is important to have clean, bare nails during surgical procedures to minimize the risk of contamination.

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  • 50. 

    443. Eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields should be worn

    • A.

      On every case

    • B.

      On orthopedic cases

    • C.

      On vascular cases

    • D.

      On positive HIV cases

    Correct Answer
    A. On every case
    Explanation
    Eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields should be worn on every case. This means that regardless of the type of case (orthopedic, vascular, positive HIV), it is important to wear protective eyewear. This is because these cases may involve procedures or activities that pose a risk of eye injury or exposure to bodily fluids. Wearing eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields helps to prevent potential eye damage and ensures the safety of healthcare professionals during all cases.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    YourMainParadox

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