Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg151-154 CST Exam Prep

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  • 1/42 Questions

    1226. Hirschsprung's disease is synonymous with

    • Congenital aganglionosis
    • Malrotation
    • Ileal stenosis
    • Meckel's diverticulum
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Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg151-154 CST exam prep

Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg151-154 CST Exam Prep - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    1227. The condition evidenced by incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in newborns is

    • Hydrocephalus

    • Encephalocele

    • Spina bifida

    • Myelomeningocele

    Correct Answer
    A. Spina bifida
    Explanation
    Spina bifida is a condition characterized by incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in newborns. This results in a gap or opening in the spine, which can lead to various complications. Hydrocephalus refers to the buildup of fluid in the brain, encephalocele is a condition where part of the brain protrudes through an opening in the skull, and myelomeningocele is a specific type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and its covering protrude through the gap in the spine. Therefore, spina bifida is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 3. 

    1228.The condition involving premature closure of infant cranial suture lines is referred to as

    • Crainioplasty

    • Stereotactic surgery

    • Craniosynostosis

    • Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Craniosynostosis
    Explanation
    Craniosynostosis refers to the condition involving premature closure of infant cranial suture lines. This condition occurs when the fibrous joints between the bones of the skull close too early, restricting the growth of the skull and potentially causing abnormal head shape and increased intracranial pressure. Crainioplasty is a surgical procedure to repair defects or reshape the skull, stereotactic surgery involves precise targeting of brain areas using imaging guidance, and transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is the removal of the pituitary gland through the nasal cavity.

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  • 4. 

    1229. An imperforate anus means

    • Anal opening is absent

    • Anus is closed

    • Anal sphincter is too tight

    • Anal sphincter is too loose

    Correct Answer
    A. Anus is closed
    Explanation
    An imperforate anus refers to a condition where the anal opening is closed or absent. This means that the individual is unable to pass stool through the anus normally. It is a congenital condition that requires surgical intervention to create an opening for proper bowel movements.

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  • 5. 

    1230. Geriatric patients are more prone to each of the following EXCEPT

    • Infection

    • Poor wound healing

    • Cardiovascular problems

    • Gallbladder disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Gallbladder disease
    Explanation
    Geriatric patients are more prone to various health issues due to the natural aging process and weakened immune system. Infections are common in the elderly due to a decline in immune function. Poor wound healing is also prevalent due to decreased collagen production and impaired circulation. Cardiovascular problems are more common in older adults due to age-related changes in the heart and blood vessels. However, gallbladder disease is not specifically associated with aging and does not have a higher prevalence in geriatric patients compared to other age groups.

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  • 6. 

    1231. A Wilms' tumor, the most common intra-abdominal childhood tumor is known as a(n)

    • Nephroblastoma

    • Neuroblastoma

    • Aganglionic colon

    • Intussusception

    Correct Answer
    A. Nephroblastoma
    Explanation
    A Wilms' tumor, the most common intra-abdominal childhood tumor, is known as a nephroblastoma. This term specifically refers to a tumor that arises from the kidney and is typically found in children. The term "nephroblastoma" accurately describes the tumor's origin and helps differentiate it from other types of childhood tumors such as neuroblastoma, aganglionic colon, and intussusception.

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  • 7. 

    1232. Incomplete closure of paired vertebral arches that can be treated surgically is known as

    • Spina bifida

    • Pectus excavatum

    • Spastic palsy

    • Encephalocele

    Correct Answer
    A. Spina bifida
    Explanation
    Spina bifida is a condition characterized by the incomplete closure of the paired vertebral arches. This means that the bones that form the spine do not fully close, leaving a gap. This condition can be treated surgically, indicating that it is a correct answer to the question. Pectus excavatum refers to a deformity of the chest wall, spastic palsy is a type of cerebral palsy characterized by muscle stiffness, and encephalocele is a neural tube defect where brain tissue protrudes through an opening in the skull.

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  • 8. 

    1233. Nonclosure at birth of the duct that carries blood from the pulmonary artery directly to the aorta is termed

    • Tetralogy of Fallot

    • Coarctation of the aorta

    • Patent ductus arteriosus

    • Anomalous venous return

    Correct Answer
    A. Patent ductus arteriosus
    Explanation
    Patent ductus arteriosus refers to a condition where the duct that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta does not close after birth. Normally, this duct closes shortly after birth, but in cases of patent ductus arteriosus, it remains open. This can lead to abnormal blood flow between the two major blood vessels, causing symptoms such as heart murmurs, difficulty breathing, and poor weight gain. Treatment may involve medication or surgery to close the duct and restore normal blood flow.

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  • 9. 

    1234. The most common congenital cardiac anomaly in the cyanotic group is

    • Tricuspid atresia

    • Tetralogy of Fallot

    • Patent ductus arteriosus

    • Truncus arteriosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetralogy of Fallot
    Explanation
    Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly in the cyanotic group. It is a combination of four heart defects that affect the structure of the heart and how blood flows through it. These defects include a ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. This condition leads to decreased oxygen levels in the blood, resulting in cyanosis. Tricuspid atresia, patent ductus arteriosus, and truncus arteriosus are also congenital heart anomalies, but they are not as common in the cyanotic group as tetralogy of Fallot.

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  • 10. 

    1235. The mechanical strength of a weak eye muscle due to strabismus in a pediatric patient can be corrected by all of the following EXCEPT

    • Tucking

    • Advancement

    • Recession

    • Resection

    Correct Answer
    A. Recession
    Explanation
    Recession is not a method that can correct the mechanical strength of a weak eye muscle due to strabismus in a pediatric patient. Tucking, advancement, and resection are surgical techniques that can be used to strengthen the weak eye muscle and correct strabismus. Recession, on the other hand, involves weakening the stronger eye muscle to balance the muscle strength and improve alignment.

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  • 11. 

    1236. A cardiac procedure used primarily for anomalies associated with excessive pulmonary flow due to large intracardiac left-to-right shunt is called

    • Glenn procedure

    • Blalock-Taussig procedure

    • Pulmonary bonding

    • Blalock-Hanlon procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary bonding
  • 12. 

    1237. An abnormal communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery of an infant is termed

    • Truncus arteriosus

    • Patent ductus arteriosus

    • Pulmonary stenosis

    • Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Patent ductus arteriosus
    Explanation
    Patent ductus arteriosus refers to an abnormal communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery in an infant. This condition occurs when the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel that connects the two major arteries in the heart during fetal development, fails to close after birth. As a result, oxygen-rich blood from the aorta flows back into the pulmonary artery, leading to increased blood flow to the lungs. This can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, poor feeding, and failure to thrive. Treatment options include medication or surgical closure of the ductus arteriosus.

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  • 13. 

    1238. Failure of the abdominal viscera to become encapsulated within the peritoneal cavity during fetal development is known as a(n)

    • Umbilical hernia

    • Meckel's diverticulum

    • Hiatal hernia

    • Omphalocele

    Correct Answer
    A. Omphalocele
    Explanation
    Omphalocele refers to the failure of the abdominal viscera to become encapsulated within the peritoneal cavity during fetal development. It is a condition where the abdominal organs protrude through a weakness in the abdominal wall at the umbilicus. This results in a sac-like structure containing the organs being visible outside the body. It is typically present at birth and requires surgical intervention to correct.

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  • 14. 

    1239. What surgery is performed to treat otitis media?

    • Myringotomy

    • Adenoidectomy

    • Tympanoplasty

    • Tonsillectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Myringotomy
    Explanation
    A myringotomy is a surgical procedure performed to treat otitis media, which is an infection or inflammation of the middle ear. During this procedure, a small incision is made in the eardrum to drain fluid or pus that has accumulated in the middle ear, relieving pressure and pain. This helps to improve hearing and prevent further complications. Adenoidectomy, tympanoplasty, and tonsillectomy are surgical procedures that are not specifically performed to treat otitis media.

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  • 15. 

    1240. What problem is most commonly seen in the pediatric postoperative patient?

    • Hypotension

    • Airway impairment

    • Hypothermia

    • Metabolic depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Airway impairment
    Explanation
    In the pediatric postoperative patient, airway impairment is the most commonly seen problem. This can occur due to various reasons such as swelling, obstruction, or narrowing of the airway. It is crucial to monitor and address any signs of airway compromise promptly to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Failure to do so can lead to serious complications and compromise the patient's overall condition. Therefore, it is important to prioritize airway management in pediatric postoperative patients.

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  • 16. 

    1241. Which of the following is the primary indication for the total joint arthroplasty of the hip and knee in the elderly persons?

    • Osteoporosis

    • Osteoarthritis

    • Rheumatoid arthritis

    • B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. B and C
    Explanation
    The primary indication for total joint arthroplasty of the hip and knee in elderly persons is osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that commonly affects the elderly, causing pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that can also lead to joint damage and disability. Both conditions can significantly impact the quality of life and mobility of elderly individuals, making total joint arthroplasty a suitable treatment option to alleviate pain and improve function.

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  • 17. 

    1242. What is the predominant reason for urological surgery in elderly men?

    • Prostatic malignancies

    • Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

    • Bladder malignancies

    • Nephritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
    Explanation
    Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is the predominant reason for urological surgery in elderly men. BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which commonly occurs with age. It can cause urinary symptoms such as frequent urination, difficulty starting and stopping urination, weak urine flow, and incomplete bladder emptying. When these symptoms become severe and affect the quality of life, surgery may be required to remove or reduce the size of the prostate gland. Prostatic malignancies and bladder malignancies are not as commonly associated with urological surgery in elderly men, and nephritis is a condition involving inflammation of the kidneys, which is not directly related to the need for urological surgery.

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  • 18. 

    1243. An emergency drug usefull in ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia is

    • Aramine

    • Atropine

    • Inderal

    • Calcium chloride

    Correct Answer
    A. Inderal
    Explanation
    Inderal is a medication that belongs to the class of drugs known as beta blockers. It is commonly used in emergency situations to treat ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia, which are abnormal heart rhythms. Inderal works by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, thus slowing down the heart rate and reducing the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias. This makes it a useful drug in emergency situations where immediate intervention is required to stabilize the heart rhythm.

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  • 19. 

    1244. An emergency drug that increases myocardial contractility is

    • Calcium chloride

    • Levophed

    • Lasix

    • Isuprel

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium chloride
    Explanation
    Calcium chloride is an emergency drug that increases myocardial contractility. It works by increasing the amount of calcium available for the heart muscle to contract more forcefully. This can be beneficial in situations where the heart is not pumping effectively, such as in cases of heart failure or certain types of arrhythmias. Levophed, Lasix, and Isuprel are not drugs that increase myocardial contractility, making calcium chloride the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    1245. The action of sodium bicarbonate in an advanced life support effort is to

    • Stimulate the heart muscle

    • Strengthen and slow heartbeat

    • Reduce ventricular excitement

    • Counteract metabolic acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Counteract metabolic acidosis
    Explanation
    Sodium bicarbonate is commonly used in advanced life support efforts to counteract metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis occurs when there is an excess of acid in the body, which can lead to a decrease in pH levels. Sodium bicarbonate works by acting as a buffer, helping to neutralize the excess acid and restore the pH balance. By counteracting metabolic acidosis, sodium bicarbonate helps to stabilize the body's acid-base balance and maintain proper functioning of vital organs, such as the heart and lungs.

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  • 21. 

    1246. Xylocaine is used intravenously for

    • Installation of local anesthesia

    • Treatment of cardiac arrhythmias

    • Diuretic action

    • Restoration of blood volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Treatment of cardiac arrhythmias
    Explanation
    Xylocaine is a medication that belongs to the class of local anesthetics. It is commonly used for numbing or blocking pain sensations in a specific area of the body. However, it can also be used intravenously for the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias. Cardiac arrhythmias refer to abnormal heart rhythms, and Xylocaine can help in stabilizing the heart rate and rhythm in such cases. Therefore, it is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 22. 

    1247. If cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, who is responsible for handling artificial ventilation?

    • The enesthesiologist

    • The circulating nurse

    • The surgeon

    • The scrub nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. The enesthesiologist
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the anesthesiologist. In the event of a cardiac arrest in the operating room, the anesthesiologist is responsible for handling artificial ventilation. This is because the anesthesiologist is trained in airway management and is responsible for ensuring the patient's breathing and oxygenation during surgery. They are skilled in providing artificial ventilation techniques such as bag-mask ventilation or intubation, which are crucial in maintaining the patient's oxygenation and ventilation in case of an emergency.

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  • 23. 

    1248. Sudden shortness of breath in a postoperative patient may be indicative of

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Pleural effusion

    • Emphysema

    • Asthma

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary embolism
    Explanation
    Sudden shortness of breath in a postoperative patient may be indicative of a pulmonary embolism. This is because a pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot blocks one of the arteries in the lungs, leading to a sudden decrease in oxygen supply. This can result in symptoms such as sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and rapid heart rate. Other conditions like pleural effusion, emphysema, and asthma may also cause shortness of breath, but a postoperative patient with sudden onset of this symptom is more likely to have a pulmonary embolism.

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  • 24. 

    1249. Which pulse is checked during a cardiac arrest effort?

    • Radial

    • Carotid

    • Pedal

    • Brachial

    Correct Answer
    A. Carotid
    Explanation
    During a cardiac arrest effort, the pulse that is checked is the carotid pulse. The carotid artery is located in the neck, and it is easily accessible for checking the pulse. It is a major artery that supplies blood to the brain, and checking for its presence or absence can provide important information about the patient's condition during a cardiac arrest.

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  • 25. 

    1250. Airways should be

    • Removed before the patient leaves the OR site

    • Left in until the patient is fully awake and ready to return to his or her room

    • Left in place until the patient breathes normally

    • Removed only by the anesthesiologist

    Correct Answer
    A. Left in place until the patient breathes normally
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "left in place until the patient breathes normally." Airways are devices used to maintain an open airway during anesthesia. They are typically removed once the patient is able to breathe normally on their own. This ensures that the patient's airway is clear and they are able to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation before leaving the operating room. Removing the airway too early could potentially compromise the patient's breathing and lead to respiratory complications.

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  • 26. 

    1251. An anesthetic complication characterized by progressive elevation of body temperature is known as malignant

    • Hypothermia

    • Hypervolemia

    • Hypersalemia

    • Hyperthermia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperthermia
    Explanation
    Hyperthermia is the correct answer because it refers to a condition characterized by a progressive elevation of body temperature. This is in contrast to hypothermia, which is a condition characterized by a decrease in body temperature. Hypervolemia refers to an excessive volume of blood in the body, while hypersalemia refers to an excessive level of salt in the blood.

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  • 27. 

    1252. All of the following are results from aspiration of gastric contents during anesthesia EXCEPT

    • Impeded blood gas exchange

    • Impaired lung function

    • Gastric decompression

    • Chemical pneumonitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastric decompression
    Explanation
    Aspiration of gastric contents during anesthesia can lead to several negative effects on the respiratory system, such as impeded blood gas exchange, impaired lung function, and chemical pneumonitis. However, gastric decompression is not a result of aspiration but rather a procedure used to remove excess air or fluid from the stomach. Therefore, the correct answer is gastric decompression.

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  • 28. 

    1253. A telethermometer monitors the body temperature during surgery. It can be placed in all of the following areas EXCEPT the

    • Rectum

    • Esophagus

    • Axilla

    • Tympanic area

    Correct Answer
    A. Axilla
    Explanation
    A telethermometer is a device used to monitor body temperature during surgery. It can be placed in various areas of the body to accurately measure temperature. The rectum, esophagus, and tympanic area are all common locations where a telethermometer can be placed. However, the axilla (armpit) is not a suitable location for measuring body temperature using a telethermometer. This is because the axilla is an external area and may not provide an accurate representation of the body's core temperature.

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  • 29. 

    1254.Dark blood in the operative field may indicate that the patient is

    • Hyperkalemic

    • Hypovolemic

    • Hypotensive

    • Hypoxic

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoxic
    Explanation
    Dark blood in the operative field may indicate that the patient is hypoxic. Hypoxia refers to a condition where there is a deficiency in the supply of oxygen to the body's tissues. Dark blood can be a sign of poor oxygenation, suggesting that the patient may not be receiving enough oxygen. This could be due to various reasons such as respiratory problems or cardiovascular issues. It is important to identify and address the cause of hypoxia to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's well-being.

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  • 30. 

    1255. The first and most important step for successful resuscitation in cardiac arrest is

    • The precordial thump

    • Artificial ventilation

    • Immediate opening of the airway

    • External cardiac compression

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediate opening of the airway
    Explanation
    The immediate opening of the airway is the first and most important step for successful resuscitation in cardiac arrest. This is because in cardiac arrest, the person's breathing stops, and opening the airway allows for the delivery of oxygen to the lungs. This can be done by tilting the head back and lifting the chin, which helps to clear any obstruction and allows for the passage of air into the lungs. Once the airway is open, other interventions such as artificial ventilation and external cardiac compression can be performed to further support the person's respiration and circulation.

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  • 31. 

    1256. The responsibility of the scrub nurse in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is to

    • Bring in the emergency cart

    • Keep a record of all medication given

    • Help with the intravenous and monitoring lines

    • Give attention to the sterile field and the surgeon's needs

    Correct Answer
    A. Give attention to the sterile field and the surgeon's needs
    Explanation
    The scrub nurse in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is responsible for giving attention to the sterile field and the surgeon's needs. During CPR, maintaining a sterile field is crucial to prevent infection and complications. The scrub nurse ensures that all necessary sterile equipment and supplies are available and properly used. Additionally, the nurse attends to the surgeon's needs by providing the required instruments and supplies during the procedure. This helps to ensure a smooth and efficient CPR process.

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  • 32. 

    1257. A safety precaution used when a patient is being shocked with the defibrillator is

    • No one is to touch the patient or anything metallic in contact with the patient

    • Available personnel gently but firmly support the extremities to protect patient from injury

    • The person holding the electrodes does not touch the patient but anyone else can

    • The person holding the electrodes is the only one who may touch the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. No one is to touch the patient or anything metallic in contact with the patient
    Explanation
    During defibrillation, it is crucial that no one touches the patient or anything metallic in contact with them. This precaution is taken to prevent the transfer of electric shock to anyone else and to ensure the safety of both the patient and the medical personnel involved. Touching the patient or any metallic object during defibrillation can result in electric shock, which can be harmful or even fatal. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a safe distance and avoid any contact with the patient or any metallic objects during defibrillation.

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  • 33. 

    1258. When handing a syringe of medication to the surgeon for a local anesthetic, the scrub nurse should

    • Ask the circulating nurse what solution he or she has

    • Ask the circulator to show the vial to the surgeon

    • Show the surgeon the vial that it came from

    • State the kind and percentage of the solution

    Correct Answer
    A. State the kind and percentage of the solution
    Explanation
    The scrub nurse should state the kind and percentage of the solution when handing a syringe of medication to the surgeon for a local anesthetic. This is important because it ensures clear communication between the nurse and the surgeon regarding the medication being administered. By stating the kind and percentage of the solution, the surgeon can verify that the correct medication is being used and that it is the appropriate concentration for the procedure. This helps to prevent medication errors and ensures patient safety.

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  • 34. 

    1259. When cardiac arrest occurs, resuscitative measures must begin within

    • 2 minutes

    • 3-5 minutes

    • 2-7 minutes

    • 5-8 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 3-5 minutes
    Explanation
    When cardiac arrest occurs, resuscitative measures must begin within 3-5 minutes. This is because the brain can only survive for a short period without oxygen before irreversible damage occurs. Starting resuscitation within this time frame increases the chances of restoring blood flow and oxygenation to the brain, preventing further damage and increasing the likelihood of successful resuscitation. Delaying resuscitation beyond 5 minutes significantly reduces the chances of survival and recovery.

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  • 35. 

    1260. Who is responsible for recording all medications given during CPR in the OR?

    • The scrub nurse

    • The circulating nurse

    • The anesthesiologist

    • The surgeon's assistant

    Correct Answer
    A. The circulating nurse
    Explanation
    The circulating nurse is responsible for recording all medications given during CPR in the operating room (OR). This nurse is responsible for coordinating and managing the overall care of the patient during surgery, including documenting medication administration. The scrub nurse assists the surgeon during the procedure, the anesthesiologist administers anesthesia, and the surgeon's assistant assists the surgeon directly. However, it is the circulating nurse's role to accurately record all medications given during CPR in the OR.

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  • 36. 

    1261. CPR is instituted if

    • The pulse is below 60, respirations are diminished, and blood pressure is dropping

    • There is no pulse or blood pressure, and the pupils contract

    • There is no pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, and the pupils are fixed and dilated

    • The pulse is weak and irregular, blood pressure is lowered, and pupils are dilated

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, and the pupils are fixed and dilated
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that CPR is instituted if there is no pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, and the pupils are fixed and dilated. This is because these signs indicate a lack of circulation and potential cardiac arrest. CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a life-saving technique used to manually pump blood and provide oxygen to the body when the heart and breathing have stopped. By performing CPR, the aim is to restore circulation and maintain vital organ function until advanced medical help arrives. The combination of no pulse, respiration, blood pressure, and fixed and dilated pupils suggests a critical situation requiring immediate intervention.

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  • 37. 

    1262. The first action to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest in the OR is to

    • Alert the OR supervisor and personnel

    • Prepare medications

    • Institute chest massage

    • Apply fibrillator paddles

    Correct Answer
    A. Alert the OR supervisor and personnel
    Explanation
    The first action to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest in the OR is to alert the OR supervisor and personnel. This is important because it ensures that the necessary help and resources are immediately available to assist in the situation. The OR supervisor and personnel can quickly initiate the appropriate emergency response protocol, such as calling for additional medical staff, retrieving emergency equipment, and coordinating the resuscitation efforts. This prompt action increases the chances of a successful outcome for the patient.

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  • 38. 

    1263. Intraoperative and postoperative emergency procedures require the scrub person to

    • Immediatly intervene with patient care

    • Attend the anesthesiologist during crisis

    • Maintain sterile Mayo with instruments

    • A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain sterile Mayo with instruments
    Explanation
    Intraoperative and postoperative emergency procedures require the scrub person to maintain a sterile Mayo with instruments. This means that they need to ensure that the instruments used during the procedure are kept sterile and free from contamination. This is crucial for preventing infections and complications during surgery. The scrub person plays a vital role in maintaining a sterile environment in the operating room, which is essential for patient safety.

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  • 39. 

    1264. The following rules apply to needle use at the field EXCEPT

    • Give needles to surgeon on an exchange basis

    • Use needles and needleholders as a unit

    • Keep needles away from sponges and laps

    • Keep used needles in a medicine cup

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep used needles in a medicine cup
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "keep used needles in a medicine cup". This is because it is important to dispose of used needles in a proper sharps container to prevent the risk of needlestick injuries and the spread of infections. Keeping used needles in a medicine cup can be unsafe and may lead to accidental injuries.

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  • 40. 

    1265. What is the disposition of all sharps that have been passed off the field intraoperatively?

    • Keep off the field for final resolution of count

    • Immediately place in sharp container on OR wall

    • Roll in tape and discard

    • Take from OR with original suture wrapper

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep off the field for final resolution of count
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to keep off the field for final resolution of count. This means that any sharps that have been passed off the field during the surgery should be kept separate and not discarded immediately. They should be set aside until the final count of all instruments and sharps is done, ensuring that nothing is left inside the patient. This helps in avoiding any potential complications or harm to the patient.

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  • 41. 

    1266. A washer-decontaminator, used after instruments are presoaked, uses which of the following processes to remove blood and protein?

    • Impingement

    • Cavitation

    • Steam under pressure

    • Chemicals

    Correct Answer
    A. Impingement
    Explanation
    Impingement is the correct answer because it is a process used in washer-decontaminators to remove blood and protein from instruments. Impingement involves the use of high-pressure water jets that forcefully hit the surface of the instruments, effectively dislodging and removing any contaminants. This process is particularly effective in removing stubborn residues like blood and protein, ensuring thorough cleaning and decontamination of the instruments.

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  • 42. 

    1267. What is the first step in handling the used and unused instruments after a case is completed?

    • Washer-sterilizer

    • Presoaking in a basin

    • Ultrasonic cleaner

    • Milking

    Correct Answer
    A. Presoaking in a basin
    Explanation
    The first step in handling used and unused instruments after a case is completed is to presoak them in a basin. This helps to remove any debris or organic material from the instruments before further cleaning or sterilization processes. Presoaking in a basin is a common practice in healthcare settings to ensure proper cleaning and prevent the spread of infection.

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  • Nov 17, 2010
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