Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg151-154 CST Exam Prep
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Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg151-154 CST exam prep
- 1.1226. Hirschsprung's disease is synonymous with
- A.
Congenital aganglionosis
- B.
Malrotation
- C.
Ileal stenosis
- D.
Meckel's diverticulum
- 2.1227. The condition evidenced by incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in newborns is
- A.
Hydrocephalus
- B.
Encephalocele
- C.
Spina bifida
- D.
Myelomeningocele
- 3.1228.The condition involving premature closure of infant cranial suture lines is referred to as
- A.
Crainioplasty
- B.
Stereotactic surgery
- C.
Craniosynostosis
- D.
Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy
- 4.1229. An imperforate anus means
- A.
Anal opening is absent
- B.
Anus is closed
- C.
Anal sphincter is too tight
- D.
Anal sphincter is too loose
- 5.1230. Geriatric patients are more prone to each of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Infection
- B.
Poor wound healing
- C.
Cardiovascular problems
- D.
Gallbladder disease
- 6.1231. A Wilms' tumor, the most common intra-abdominal childhood tumor is known as a(n)
- A.
Nephroblastoma
- B.
Neuroblastoma
- C.
Aganglionic colon
- D.
Intussusception
- 7.1232. Incomplete closure of paired vertebral arches that can be treated surgically is known as
- A.
Spina bifida
- B.
Pectus excavatum
- C.
Spastic palsy
- D.
Encephalocele
- 8.1233. Nonclosure at birth of the duct that carries blood from the pulmonary artery directly to the aorta is termed
- A.
Tetralogy of Fallot
- B.
Coarctation of the aorta
- C.
Patent ductus arteriosus
- D.
Anomalous venous return
- 9.1234. The most common congenital cardiac anomaly in the cyanotic group is
- A.
Tricuspid atresia
- B.
Tetralogy of Fallot
- C.
Patent ductus arteriosus
- D.
Truncus arteriosus
- 10.1235. The mechanical strength of a weak eye muscle due to strabismus in a pediatric patient can be corrected by all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Tucking
- B.
Advancement
- C.
Recession
- D.
Resection
- 11.1236. A cardiac procedure used primarily for anomalies associated with excessive pulmonary flow due to large intracardiac left-to-right shunt is called
- A.
Glenn procedure
- B.
Blalock-Taussig procedure
- C.
Pulmonary bonding
- D.
Blalock-Hanlon procedure
- 12.1237. An abnormal communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery of an infant is termed
- A.
Truncus arteriosus
- B.
Patent ductus arteriosus
- C.
Pulmonary stenosis
- D.
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
- 13.1238. Failure of the abdominal viscera to become encapsulated within the peritoneal cavity during fetal development is known as a(n)
- A.
Umbilical hernia
- B.
Meckel's diverticulum
- C.
Hiatal hernia
- D.
Omphalocele
- 14.1239. What surgery is performed to treat otitis media?
- A.
Myringotomy
- B.
Adenoidectomy
- C.
Tympanoplasty
- D.
Tonsillectomy
- 15.1240. What problem is most commonly seen in the pediatric postoperative patient?
- A.
Hypotension
- B.
Airway impairment
- C.
Hypothermia
- D.
Metabolic depression
- 16.1241. Which of the following is the primary indication for the total joint arthroplasty of the hip and knee in the elderly persons?
- A.
Osteoporosis
- B.
Osteoarthritis
- C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- D.
B and C
- 17.1242. What is the predominant reason for urological surgery in elderly men?
- A.
Prostatic malignancies
- B.
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
- C.
Bladder malignancies
- D.
Nephritis
- 18.1243. An emergency drug usefull in ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia is
- A.
Aramine
- B.
Atropine
- C.
Inderal
- D.
Calcium chloride
- 19.1244. An emergency drug that increases myocardial contractility is
- A.
Calcium chloride
- B.
Levophed
- C.
Lasix
- D.
Isuprel
- 20.1245. The action of sodium bicarbonate in an advanced life support effort is to
- A.
Stimulate the heart muscle
- B.
Strengthen and slow heartbeat
- C.
Reduce ventricular excitement
- D.
Counteract metabolic acidosis
- 21.1246. Xylocaine is used intravenously for
- A.
Installation of local anesthesia
- B.
Treatment of cardiac arrhythmias
- C.
Diuretic action
- D.
Restoration of blood volume
- 22.1247. If cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, who is responsible for handling artificial ventilation?
- A.
The enesthesiologist
- B.
The circulating nurse
- C.
The surgeon
- D.
The scrub nurse
- 23.1248. Sudden shortness of breath in a postoperative patient may be indicative of
- A.
Pulmonary embolism
- B.
Pleural effusion
- C.
Emphysema
- D.
Asthma
- 24.1249. Which pulse is checked during a cardiac arrest effort?
- A.
Radial
- B.
Carotid
- C.
Pedal
- D.
Brachial
- 25.1250. Airways should be
- A.
Removed before the patient leaves the OR site
- B.
Left in until the patient is fully awake and ready to return to his or her room
- C.
Left in place until the patient breathes normally
- D.
Removed only by the anesthesiologist
- 26.1251. An anesthetic complication characterized by progressive elevation of body temperature is known as malignant
- A.
Hypothermia
- B.
Hypervolemia
- C.
Hypersalemia
- D.
Hyperthermia
- 27.1252. All of the following are results from aspiration of gastric contents during anesthesia EXCEPT
- A.
Impeded blood gas exchange
- B.
Impaired lung function
- C.
Gastric decompression
- D.
Chemical pneumonitis
- 28.1253. A telethermometer monitors the body temperature during surgery. It can be placed in all of the following areas EXCEPT the
- A.
Rectum
- B.
Esophagus
- C.
Axilla
- D.
Tympanic area
- 29.1254.Dark blood in the operative field may indicate that the patient is
- A.
Hyperkalemic
- B.
Hypovolemic
- C.
Hypotensive
- D.
Hypoxic
- 30.1255. The first and most important step for successful resuscitation in cardiac arrest is
- A.
The precordial thump
- B.
Artificial ventilation
- C.
Immediate opening of the airway
- D.
External cardiac compression
- 31.1256. The responsibility of the scrub nurse in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is to
- A.
Bring in the emergency cart
- B.
Keep a record of all medication given
- C.
Help with the intravenous and monitoring lines
- D.
Give attention to the sterile field and the surgeon's needs
- 32.1257. A safety precaution used when a patient is being shocked with the defibrillator is
- A.
No one is to touch the patient or anything metallic in contact with the patient
- B.
Available personnel gently but firmly support the extremities to protect patient from injury
- C.
The person holding the electrodes does not touch the patient but anyone else can
- D.
The person holding the electrodes is the only one who may touch the patient
- 33.1258. When handing a syringe of medication to the surgeon for a local anesthetic, the scrub nurse should
- A.
Ask the circulating nurse what solution he or she has
- B.
Ask the circulator to show the vial to the surgeon
- C.
Show the surgeon the vial that it came from
- D.
State the kind and percentage of the solution
- 34.1259. When cardiac arrest occurs, resuscitative measures must begin within
- A.
2 minutes
- B.
3-5 minutes
- C.
2-7 minutes
- D.
5-8 minutes
- 35.1260. Who is responsible for recording all medications given during CPR in the OR?
- A.
The scrub nurse
- B.
The circulating nurse
- C.
The anesthesiologist
- D.
The surgeon's assistant
- 36.1261. CPR is instituted if
- A.
The pulse is below 60, respirations are diminished, and blood pressure is dropping
- B.
There is no pulse or blood pressure, and the pupils contract
- C.
There is no pulse, respiration, or blood pressure, and the pupils are fixed and dilated
- D.
The pulse is weak and irregular, blood pressure is lowered, and pupils are dilated
- 37.1262. The first action to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest in the OR is to
- A.
Alert the OR supervisor and personnel
- B.
Prepare medications
- C.
Institute chest massage
- D.
Apply fibrillator paddles
- 38.1263. Intraoperative and postoperative emergency procedures require the scrub person to
- A.
Immediatly intervene with patient care
- B.
Attend the anesthesiologist during crisis
- C.
Maintain sterile Mayo with instruments
- D.
A and B
- 39.1264. The following rules apply to needle use at the field EXCEPT
- A.
Give needles to surgeon on an exchange basis
- B.
Use needles and needleholders as a unit
- C.
Keep needles away from sponges and laps
- D.
Keep used needles in a medicine cup
- 40.1265. What is the disposition of all sharps that have been passed off the field intraoperatively?
- A.
Keep off the field for final resolution of count
- B.
Immediately place in sharp container on OR wall
- C.
Roll in tape and discard
- D.
Take from OR with original suture wrapper
- 41.1266. A washer-decontaminator, used after instruments are presoaked, uses which of the following processes to remove blood and protein?
- A.
Impingement
- B.
Cavitation
- C.
Steam under pressure
- D.
Chemicals
- 42.1267. What is the first step in handling the used and unused instruments after a case is completed?
- A.
Washer-sterilizer
- B.
Presoaking in a basin
- C.
Ultrasonic cleaner
- D.
Milking
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