Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg151-154 CST Exam Prep

42 Questions | Total Attempts: 1924

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Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg151-154 CST Exam Prep

Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg151-154 CST exam prep


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1226. Hirschsprung's disease is synonymous with
    • A. 

      Congenital aganglionosis

    • B. 

      Malrotation

    • C. 

      Ileal stenosis

    • D. 

      Meckel's diverticulum

  • 2. 
    1227. The condition evidenced by incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in newborns is
    • A. 

      Hydrocephalus

    • B. 

      Encephalocele

    • C. 

      Spina bifida

    • D. 

      Myelomeningocele

  • 3. 
    1228.The condition involving premature closure of infant cranial suture lines is referred to as
    • A. 

      Crainioplasty

    • B. 

      Stereotactic surgery

    • C. 

      Craniosynostosis

    • D. 

      Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

  • 4. 
    1229. An imperforate anus means
    • A. 

      Anal opening is absent

    • B. 

      Anus is closed

    • C. 

      Anal sphincter is too tight

    • D. 

      Anal sphincter is too loose

  • 5. 
    1230. Geriatric patients are more prone to each of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Infection

    • B. 

      Poor wound healing

    • C. 

      Cardiovascular problems

    • D. 

      Gallbladder disease

  • 6. 
    1231. A Wilms' tumor, the most common intra-abdominal childhood tumor is known as a(n)
    • A. 

      Nephroblastoma

    • B. 

      Neuroblastoma

    • C. 

      Aganglionic colon

    • D. 

      Intussusception

  • 7. 
    1232. Incomplete closure of paired vertebral arches that can be treated surgically is known as
    • A. 

      Spina bifida

    • B. 

      Pectus excavatum

    • C. 

      Spastic palsy

    • D. 

      Encephalocele

  • 8. 
    1233. Nonclosure at birth of the duct that carries blood from the pulmonary artery directly to the aorta is termed
    • A. 

      Tetralogy of Fallot

    • B. 

      Coarctation of the aorta

    • C. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • D. 

      Anomalous venous return

  • 9. 
    1234. The most common congenital cardiac anomaly in the cyanotic group is
    • A. 

      Tricuspid atresia

    • B. 

      Tetralogy of Fallot

    • C. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • D. 

      Truncus arteriosus

  • 10. 
    1235. The mechanical strength of a weak eye muscle due to strabismus in a pediatric patient can be corrected by all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Tucking

    • B. 

      Advancement

    • C. 

      Recession

    • D. 

      Resection

  • 11. 
    1236. A cardiac procedure used primarily for anomalies associated with excessive pulmonary flow due to large intracardiac left-to-right shunt is called
    • A. 

      Glenn procedure

    • B. 

      Blalock-Taussig procedure

    • C. 

      Pulmonary bonding

    • D. 

      Blalock-Hanlon procedure

  • 12. 
    1237. An abnormal communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery of an infant is termed
    • A. 

      Truncus arteriosus

    • B. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • C. 

      Pulmonary stenosis

    • D. 

      Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

  • 13. 
    1238. Failure of the abdominal viscera to become encapsulated within the peritoneal cavity during fetal development is known as a(n)
    • A. 

      Umbilical hernia

    • B. 

      Meckel's diverticulum

    • C. 

      Hiatal hernia

    • D. 

      Omphalocele

  • 14. 
    1239. What surgery is performed to treat otitis media?
    • A. 

      Myringotomy

    • B. 

      Adenoidectomy

    • C. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • D. 

      Tonsillectomy

  • 15. 
    1240. What problem is most commonly seen in the pediatric postoperative patient?
    • A. 

      Hypotension

    • B. 

      Airway impairment

    • C. 

      Hypothermia

    • D. 

      Metabolic depression

  • 16. 
    1241. Which of the following is the primary indication for the total joint arthroplasty of the hip and knee in the elderly persons?
    • A. 

      Osteoporosis

    • B. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • C. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D. 

      B and C

  • 17. 
    1242. What is the predominant reason for urological surgery in elderly men?
    • A. 

      Prostatic malignancies

    • B. 

      Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

    • C. 

      Bladder malignancies

    • D. 

      Nephritis

  • 18. 
    1243. An emergency drug usefull in ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia is
    • A. 

      Aramine

    • B. 

      Atropine

    • C. 

      Inderal

    • D. 

      Calcium chloride

  • 19. 
    1244. An emergency drug that increases myocardial contractility is
    • A. 

      Calcium chloride

    • B. 

      Levophed

    • C. 

      Lasix

    • D. 

      Isuprel

  • 20. 
    1245. The action of sodium bicarbonate in an advanced life support effort is to
    • A. 

      Stimulate the heart muscle

    • B. 

      Strengthen and slow heartbeat

    • C. 

      Reduce ventricular excitement

    • D. 

      Counteract metabolic acidosis

  • 21. 
    1246. Xylocaine is used intravenously for
    • A. 

      Installation of local anesthesia

    • B. 

      Treatment of cardiac arrhythmias

    • C. 

      Diuretic action

    • D. 

      Restoration of blood volume

  • 22. 
    1247. If cardiac arrest occurs in the OR, who is responsible for handling artificial ventilation?
    • A. 

      The enesthesiologist

    • B. 

      The circulating nurse

    • C. 

      The surgeon

    • D. 

      The scrub nurse

  • 23. 
    1248. Sudden shortness of breath in a postoperative patient may be indicative of
    • A. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • B. 

      Pleural effusion

    • C. 

      Emphysema

    • D. 

      Asthma

  • 24. 
    1249. Which pulse is checked during a cardiac arrest effort?
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Carotid

    • C. 

      Pedal

    • D. 

      Brachial

  • 25. 
    1250. Airways should be
    • A. 

      Removed before the patient leaves the OR site

    • B. 

      Left in until the patient is fully awake and ready to return to his or her room

    • C. 

      Left in place until the patient breathes normally

    • D. 

      Removed only by the anesthesiologist