Surg Tech:Appleton And Lang:Q1-250

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1. Epistaxis can be defined as:

Explanation

Epistaxis refers to the medical condition of bleeding from the nose. It is a common condition that can occur due to various causes such as trauma, nasal infections, allergies, high blood pressure, and blood clotting disorders. The term "epistaxis" is derived from the Greek words "epi" meaning "above" or "upon" and "staxis" meaning "a dripping" or "a dropping". Therefore, the correct answer for this question is "Bleeding from the nose".

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Surg Tech:Appleton And Lang:Q1-250 - Quiz

Explore key medical concepts in the 'SURG TECH: Appleton and Lang: Q1-250' quiz. Topics include anatomy, medical imaging, and physiological terms, essential for learners in medical and surgical... see morefields, enhancing both foundational knowledge and practical skills. see less

2. Ischemic can be defined as:

Explanation

Ischemic is defined as a decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ. This explanation accurately describes the term and its meaning. It indicates that ischemic refers to a condition where there is a reduced flow of oxygenated blood to a specific body part or organ, which can lead to tissue damage and other complications.

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3. Oil glands of the skin are called:

Explanation

Sebaceous glands are the oil glands of the skin. These glands are responsible for producing sebum, an oily substance that helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin. Sebum also helps to keep the skin moisturized and protect it from external factors such as bacteria and fungi. Sebaceous glands are found all over the body, except for the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. They are particularly abundant on the face, scalp, and upper back.

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4. A drug used to treat metabolic acidosis is:

Explanation

Sodium bicarbonate is a drug used to treat metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis occurs when there is an excess of acid in the body, leading to a decrease in blood pH. Sodium bicarbonate works by neutralizing the excess acid and restoring the pH balance. It is commonly used in emergency situations or for individuals with conditions such as kidney disease or diabetic ketoacidosis. Inderal, Pronestyl, and Isuprel are not used to treat metabolic acidosis, making sodium bicarbonate the correct answer.

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5. The number of pairs of ribs is:

Explanation

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6. The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive jaundice is caused by the accumulation of what substance in the blood and tissue?

Explanation

Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the yellow tinge in the skin. This discoloration is caused by the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood and tissues. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down. In obstructive jaundice, the flow of bile from the liver is blocked, leading to the buildup of bilirubin. This excess bilirubin then gets deposited in the skin, causing the characteristic yellow color.

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7. A ganglion is a:

Explanation

A ganglion is a collection of nerve endings. It is a specialized structure that contains a cluster of nerve cell bodies and serves as a relay station for transmitting signals between different parts of the nervous system. Ganglia can be found in various locations throughout the body and play a crucial role in coordinating and regulating neural activity.

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8. The periosteum is:

Explanation

The periosteum is a fibrous connective tissue sheath that covers the surface of bones. It serves as a protective layer and is responsible for providing nutrients and oxygen to the bone cells. The periosteum also plays a role in bone repair and growth.

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9. Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in:

Explanation

Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in agglutination. Agglutination refers to the clumping together of red blood cells due to the reaction between antibodies and antigens on the surface of the cells. When incompatible blood types are mixed, the antibodies in the recipient's blood react with the antigens on the donor's red blood cells, causing them to clump together. This can lead to serious complications such as organ damage, blood clots, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to match blood types properly before any blood transfusion to prevent agglutination and its associated risks.

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10. Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by:

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium commonly found in the nose and mouth of humans. It is easily transmitted through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. This bacterium can also be spread through direct contact with infected nasal secretions or saliva. Therefore, the most likely mode of transmission for Staphylococcus aureus is through the nose and mouth.

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11. The vocal cords are located in the:

Explanation

The vocal cords are located in the larynx. The larynx, also known as the voice box, is a part of the respiratory system located in the throat. It is responsible for producing sound by controlling the flow of air through the vocal cords. The vocal cords themselves are two bands of tissue that vibrate to create sound when air passes over them. Therefore, the correct answer is larynx.

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12. Blood gas analysis is called:

Explanation

Blood gas analysis is commonly referred to as ABG, which stands for arterial blood gas analysis. This test measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, as well as the pH and bicarbonate levels. It is used to assess respiratory and metabolic function and diagnose conditions such as respiratory failure, acid-base imbalances, and electrolyte disorders. ABG is an important tool in critical care settings and helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient treatment and management.

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13. The epiphyses:

Explanation

The epiphyses refer to the ends of long bones. These are the parts of the bones that are responsible for the growth and development of the bone. They contain specialized cells called osteoblasts, which are responsible for bone formation. The epiphyses also contain red marrow, which is responsible for the production of blood cells. The ends of long bones are important for providing stability and support to the skeletal system.

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14. The white outer layer of the eyeball is the:

Explanation

The white outer layer of the eyeball is called the sclera. The sclera is a tough, fibrous tissue that covers most of the eyeball and provides protection and support to the delicate structures within the eye. It is the visible part of the eyeball that gives the eye its white color. The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent membrane that covers the sclera and the inner surface of the eyelids. The choroid is a layer of blood vessels that nourishes the retina, which is the innermost layer of the eye responsible for detecting light and sending visual signals to the brain.

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15. The appendix is attached to the:

Explanation

The appendix is a small, finger-shaped pouch located at the beginning of the large intestine. It is attached to the cecum, which is the first part of the large intestine. The cecum acts as a storage pouch for waste material before it moves into the colon for further digestion and absorption. The appendix is a vestigial organ and its exact function is still not completely understood, but it is believed to play a role in the immune system.

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16. An antibiotic used intra-operatively is:

Explanation

Gentamicin is the correct answer because it is an antibiotic commonly used intra-operatively. It belongs to the aminoglycoside class of antibiotics and is effective against a wide range of bacteria. It is commonly used to prevent or treat infections during surgical procedures. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used as a sedative, Ketoralac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, and Cyclogyl is a mydriatic agent used to dilate the pupil.

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17. An infection of the bone is:

Explanation

Osteomyelitis is the correct answer because it refers to an infection of the bone. It is a serious condition caused by bacteria or fungi entering the bone through the bloodstream, open fractures, or surgical procedures. Osteoarthritis, osteoporosis, and osteomalacia are not infections but rather different bone-related conditions. Osteoarthritis is the degeneration of joint cartilage, while osteoporosis is the loss of bone density, and osteomalacia is the softening of the bones due to vitamin D deficiency.

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18. The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the:

Explanation

The deltoid muscle is the triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm. It is located on the outer side of the shoulder and is responsible for lifting the arm away from the body. The biceps brachii and triceps brachii are muscles located in the upper arm and are responsible for flexing and extending the forearm, respectively. The serratus anterior is a muscle located on the side of the chest and is responsible for protracting the scapula.

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19. In the normal adult, the average number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter of circulating blood is:

Explanation

The normal adult has an average number of leukocytes, or white blood cells, per cubic millimeter of circulating blood ranging from 5,000 to 10,000. Leukocytes play a crucial role in the immune system, defending the body against infections and diseases. This range is considered normal and indicates a healthy immune response.

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20. Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called:

Explanation

Petechiae are tiny red or purple spots on the skin that occur due to small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers. They are caused by the leakage of blood from capillaries into the surrounding tissues. Peyronies is a condition that causes the penis to curve, Purigos refers to a group of skin disorders, and Pityriasis Rosea is a common skin condition characterized by a rash. Therefore, the correct answer is Petechiae.

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21. The larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg is the:

Explanation

The tibia is the larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg. It is located on the inner side of the leg and is responsible for supporting the body's weight and transmitting it to the foot. The tibia is essential for stability and movement, as it connects the knee joint to the ankle joint. It is commonly referred to as the shinbone and plays a crucial role in walking, running, and other weight-bearing activities.

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22. Microbial death occurs when an organism is:

Explanation

Microbial death occurs when an organism is no longer capable of reproduction. This means that the organism has lost its ability to produce offspring or replicate itself, leading to the end of its life cycle. This can happen due to various factors such as damage to essential cellular components, depletion of necessary nutrients, exposure to harmful substances, or other adverse conditions that prevent the organism from carrying out its reproductive processes. Once an organism loses its ability to reproduce, it is considered dead.

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23. A bacterial pathogen frequently invading damaging skin is:

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterial pathogen that commonly invades and damages the skin. It is known to cause various skin infections such as boils, cellulitis, and impetigo. Staphylococcus aureus is able to penetrate the skin through cuts or wounds, leading to infection and inflammation. It produces toxins that contribute to tissue damage and can also cause systemic infections if it enters the bloodstream. Therefore, Staphylococcus aureus is a likely candidate for a bacterial pathogen that frequently invades and damages the skin.

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24. The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the:

Explanation

The correct answer is calf of the leg because the gastrocnemius muscle is located in the calf region of the leg. It is one of the largest muscles in the body and plays a crucial role in movements such as walking, running, and jumping. The gastrocnemius muscle is responsible for flexing the foot and pointing the toes, and it works in conjunction with other muscles to provide stability and strength to the lower leg.

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25. The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the:

Explanation

The Eustachian tube is the structure that connects the middle ear and the throat. It allows the eardrum to vibrate freely by equalizing the pressure on both sides of the eardrum. This tube helps regulate the pressure in the middle ear and allows for the drainage of fluids.

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26. How many cervical vertebrae are there?

Explanation

There are 7 cervical vertebrae in the human body. The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck region and are numbered C1 to C7. These vertebrae provide support and flexibility to the neck, allowing for movement and protecting the spinal cord.

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27. The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the:

Explanation

The trigeminal nerve is the great sensory nerve of the face and head. It is responsible for transmitting sensations such as touch, pain, and temperature from the face to the brain. It also controls the muscles involved in chewing. The other options, trochlear, oculomotor, and hypoglossal, are all cranial nerves that have different functions and do not primarily serve as sensory nerves for the face and head.

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28. A large superficial vein in the lower extremity, which begins in the foot and extends up the medial side of the leg, the knee, and the thigh, is called the:

Explanation

The greater saphenous vein is a large superficial vein that starts in the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg, knee, and thigh. It is commonly used for procedures such as vein harvesting for coronary artery bypass grafting. The femoral vein is a deep vein located in the thigh, the iliac vein is a deep vein located in the pelvis, and the popliteal vein is a deep vein located behind the knee.

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29. The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the ________ pleura.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Visceral." The lungs are covered by a serous membranous sac called the visceral pleura. The visceral pleura is the inner layer of the pleural membrane that directly covers the lungs, while the parietal pleura is the outer layer that lines the inner surface of the chest wall and diaphragm. The bronchial pleura refers to the pleura around the bronchi, and the pulmonary pleura does not exist.

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30. The nucleus pulposus is the:

Explanation

The nucleus pulposus is the cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk. It is a gel-like substance located in the center of the disk that provides shock absorption and allows flexibility in the spine. It helps to distribute the forces and pressures exerted on the spine during movement, preventing damage to the vertebrae and surrounding structures.

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31. The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the:

Explanation

The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called ventricles. These ventricles are interconnected and play a crucial role in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid, which helps protect and support the brain. The ventricles also contribute to the maintenance of brain homeostasis by providing nutrients and removing waste products.

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32. The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regulated by the pacemaker of the heart called:

Explanation

The pacemaker of the heart that synchronizes and regulates the contractions is called the sinoatrial node. It is located in the right atrium and generates electrical impulses that initiate the heartbeat. These impulses spread throughout the atria, causing them to contract, and then reach the atrioventricular node, which delays the signal before transmitting it to the ventricles. The atrioventricular bundle and Purkinje fibers then distribute the electrical impulses to the ventricular muscles, causing them to contract as well. However, the main pacemaker responsible for initiating the heartbeat is the sinoatrial node.

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33. A large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes is the:

Explanation

The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes. It is located in the occipital bone and allows for the connection between the brain and the spinal cord. The other options, such as ossicle, hypoglossal canal, and foramen ovale, are not related to the opening through which the spinal cord passes.

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34. A jelly-like substance in the eye's posterior cavity is called:

Explanation

The correct answer is Vitreous humor. The vitreous humor is a jelly-like substance that fills the posterior cavity of the eye. It helps maintain the shape of the eye and provides support to the retina, which is essential for clear vision. The vitreous humor also helps transmit light to the retina and plays a role in maintaining the overall health of the eye.

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35. The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is:

Explanation

The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is the VIII cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the inner ear to the brain, allowing us to perceive sounds and maintain our balance and spatial orientation. It consists of two branches, the cochlear branch for hearing and the vestibular branch for balance.

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36. Which of the abdominal muscles originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs?

Explanation

The rectus abdominis is the abdominal muscle that originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs. It is a long, flat muscle that runs vertically down the front of the abdomen. Its main function is to flex the trunk, bringing the ribcage closer to the pelvis. It also helps to stabilize the pelvis during movements such as walking or running. The transversus abdominis, external oblique, and internal oblique muscles are also abdominal muscles, but they do not originate at the pubic bone and end in the ribs.

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37. The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the:

Explanation

The medulla oblongata is responsible for controlling the respiratory center in the brain. It is located at the base of the brainstem and plays a vital role in regulating essential functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. The medulla oblongata receives signals from the respiratory muscles and adjusts the rate and depth of breathing accordingly. It also helps in coordinating the muscles involved in respiration, ensuring the proper exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body.

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38. The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the:

Explanation

The cochlea is the correct answer because it is a winding, cone-shaped tube located in the inner ear. It is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. The cochlea contains thousands of tiny hair cells that detect different frequencies of sound and send signals to the auditory nerve.

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39. A CDC guideline that addresses the care of "sharps" includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Needles should ALWAYS be recapped." This statement is incorrect because according to the CDC guideline, needles should not be recapped after use to prevent accidental needlestick injuries. Recapping needles increases the risk of needlestick injuries and should be avoided.

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40. A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a:

Explanation

A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a condyle. Condyles are typically smooth and rounded, allowing for smooth movement and articulation between bones. They can be found in various joints throughout the body, such as the knee, jaw, and spine.

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41. Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes?

Explanation

MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging. It is a radiographic procedure that uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to generate detailed images of the body's internal structures. Unlike other imaging techniques, MRI has the ability to produce images in multiple planes, allowing for a more comprehensive and detailed view of the anatomy. This is achieved by manipulating the magnetic field and radio waves to obtain images in different orientations. Therefore, MRI is the correct answer to the question.

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42. The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called the:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hiatus." The hiatus refers to the point where the esophagus passes through the diaphragm. It is a small opening that allows the esophagus to connect with the stomach. This anatomical structure is important for the passage of food and liquids from the throat to the stomach. The other options, Meatus, Sphincter, and Fundus, do not accurately describe the point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm.

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43. An agent that keeps the cornea moist during surgery and is used for irrigation as well is:

Explanation

BSS, also known as Balanced Salt Solution, is an agent used during surgery to keep the cornea moist and for irrigation purposes. It is a sterile solution that closely resembles the composition of tears and is used to maintain the health and hydration of the cornea during surgical procedures. BSS helps to prevent drying and damage to the cornea, ensuring optimal conditions for the surgeon to work and reducing the risk of complications.

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44. Which of the following structures transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear?

Explanation

The tympanic membrane, also known as the eardrum, is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the external auditory canal from the middle ear. When sound waves enter the ear, they cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate. These vibrations are then transmitted to the middle ear, where they are amplified and conducted to the inner ear. The inner ear is responsible for converting these vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain as sound. Therefore, the correct answer is the tympanic membrane.

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45. Cross-matching of blood:

Explanation

Cross-matching of blood is a process used to determine the compatibility between a potential blood donor and a recipient. It involves mixing the donor's red blood cells (RBCs) with the recipient's serum. If the recipient's antibodies react with the donor's RBCs, it indicates an incompatible match, which could lead to a transfusion reaction. Therefore, this process determines the suitability of the donor by assessing whether the recipient's serum will react with the donor's RBCs, ensuring a safe and compatible blood transfusion.

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46. The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as:

Explanation

The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as metacarpals. The metacarpals are the long bones that connect the wrist bones (carpals) to the bones of the fingers (phalanges). They form the framework of the palm and provide stability and support for the hand. The metacarpals also play a crucial role in the movement and flexibility of the hand, allowing for various hand functions such as grasping and manipulating objects. The term "metacarpals" is commonly used in anatomy to specifically describe these bones in the palm.

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47. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the:

Explanation

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear fluid that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord. It is produced in the ventricles of the brain and circulates throughout the central nervous system. The subarachnoid space is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, which are two of the layers that make up the meninges, the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. CSF flows freely within the subarachnoid space, providing cushioning and support to the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the correct answer is the subarachnoid space.

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48. A defferential count provides an estimate of:

Explanation

A differential count provides an estimate of the percentage of each type of white cell in the blood. This count is used to identify and diagnose various types of infections, diseases, and disorders. By analyzing the proportions of different types of white blood cells, healthcare professionals can gather important information about the immune system and overall health of an individual.

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49. A mydriatic drug, Neo-Synephrine, is used to:

Explanation

Neo-Synephrine is a mydriatic drug, which means it is used to dilate the pupil. This drug works by stimulating the dilator muscle in the iris, causing the pupil to enlarge. This dilation can be beneficial in various medical procedures, such as eye examinations or surgeries, as it allows for better visualization of the interior of the eye. Therefore, the correct answer is "Dilate the pupil."

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50. The absence of a normal body opening, duct or canal is called:

Explanation

Atresia refers to the absence or abnormal closure of a body opening, duct, or canal. This condition can occur in various parts of the body, such as the gastrointestinal tract, reproductive system, or ear. It can be congenital or acquired, and it may cause obstruction or blockage of the affected area. Atresia is different from other options provided: Atrophia refers to wasting or degeneration of tissues, Atrichia refers to the absence of hair, and Ataxia refers to lack of muscle coordination.

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51. The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is:

Explanation

Fibrinogen is the correct answer because it is the substance that combines with thrombin to form fibrin, which is the basic structural material of blood clots. Fibrinogen is a soluble protein that is converted into insoluble fibrin during the clotting process. Thrombin, on the other hand, is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, fibrinogen plays a crucial role in the formation of blood clots by binding with thrombin to create the fibrin network.

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52. To promote healing, a surgical wound must have all of the following requisites EXCEPT:

Explanation

To promote healing, a surgical wound requires suture closure of dead space to prevent the accumulation of fluid or air, drains to remove any excess fluid or air that may be present, and a moderately tight dressing to protect the wound and maintain a moist environment. However, tight sutures to create tension are not necessary for healing. In fact, overly tight sutures can impede blood flow to the wound, cause tissue necrosis, and delay the healing process. Therefore, tight sutures to create tension are not a requisite for promoting healing of a surgical wound.

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53. The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the:

Explanation

The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the Sphenoid bone. The sphenoid bone is located at the middle part of the skull, behind the eye sockets. It is butterfly-shaped, with a central body and two pairs of wings. The sphenoid bone plays a crucial role in supporting the structures of the skull and providing attachment points for various muscles. It also forms part of the floor of the middle cranial fossa and houses important structures like the pituitary gland.

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54. Adnexa refers to:

Explanation

Adnexa refers to the accessory organs. The term is commonly used in medical terminology to describe the structures or organs that are closely associated with a main organ or system but are not an integral part of it. In this context, the adrenal glands and sympathetic nerve fibers are not considered accessory organs, while the outermost layer is not specifically mentioned as being adnexa. Therefore, the correct answer is "Accessory Organs."

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55. The part of the body responsible for maintenance of balance and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle, is the:

Explanation

The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining balance, muscle tone, and coordinating voluntary muscle movements. It receives information from various sensory systems and integrates it to provide smooth and coordinated movements. It also plays a role in motor learning and fine-tuning movements. The cerebrum, on the other hand, is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking, memory, and perception. The midbrain and pons are parts of the brainstem that are involved in relaying sensory information and regulating basic bodily functions.

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56. What immune protection is available to the fetus?

Explanation

During pregnancy, the fetus receives immune protection from the mother through the placenta. This is known as natural passive immunity. The mother's antibodies are transferred to the fetus, providing temporary protection against various infections. This type of immunity is important for the fetus as its own immune system is not fully developed. Once the baby is born, this passive immunity gradually decreases, and the baby starts developing its own active immune response. Therefore, natural passive immunity is the correct answer as it describes the immune protection available to the fetus.

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57. The head of the pancreas is located:

Explanation

The head of the pancreas is located in the curve of the duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and it forms a C-shaped curve around the head of the pancreas. This anatomical relationship is important because it allows for the close proximity of the pancreas to the digestive system, facilitating the secretion of pancreatic enzymes into the duodenum to aid in digestion. The location of the pancreas in the curve of the duodenum also allows for easy access during surgical procedures if necessary.

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58. A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by:

Explanation

A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by secondary intention. This is because secondary intention healing involves the wound healing from the bottom up, with the wound gradually filling in with new tissue. In contrast, primary intention healing occurs when the wound edges are brought together and closed with sutures, while third and fourth intention healing refer to delayed closure of a wound after it has been initially managed with other methods.

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59. A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is:

Explanation

Pitocin is a synthetic form of oxytocin, a hormone that is naturally produced by the body and plays a crucial role in uterine contractions during childbirth. It is commonly used to control uterine hemorrhage by stimulating contractions and reducing bleeding. Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, Procainamide HCl is an antiarrhythmic medication, and Phenylephrine is a decongestant and vasoconstrictor. Therefore, Pitocin is the most appropriate choice for controlling uterine hemorrhage.

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60. The heart valve that closes at the time of the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is:

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle in the heart. It closes when the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from flowing back into the right atrium. This ensures that the blood moves forward through the pulmonary artery to the lungs for oxygenation, rather than circulating back through the heart.

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61. Clostridium tetani causes:

Explanation

Clostridium tetani is a bacterium that causes lockjaw, also known as tetanus. Lockjaw is a condition characterized by severe muscle stiffness and spasms, particularly in the jaw and neck muscles. It is caused by the release of a toxin produced by the bacterium, which affects the nervous system. Other symptoms of tetanus may include difficulty swallowing, muscle rigidity, fever, and sweating. Without proper treatment, tetanus can be life-threatening. Gangrene is caused by a different bacterium, and nosocomial infection refers to infections acquired in healthcare settings. Malaria is caused by a parasite transmitted through mosquito bites.

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62. Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT:

Explanation

Gelfoam is the only agent in the given options that does not require dry gloves or instruments for application. Gelfoam is a sterile, absorbable gelatin sponge that is used as a hemostatic agent in surgical procedures. It is typically applied by moistening it with sterile saline or thrombin solution before use. In contrast, Collastat, Avitene, and Helistat are all hemostatic agents that need to be applied using dry gloves or instruments to ensure their effectiveness.

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63. One of the principle muscles of the pelvic floor is:

Explanation

The levator ani muscle is one of the main muscles of the pelvic floor. It is a broad, thin muscle that stretches across the pelvis, supporting the pelvic organs and helping to control bladder and bowel movements. It plays a crucial role in maintaining continence and providing stability to the pelvic region. The other muscles listed, such as the sartorius, internal oblique, and rectus abdominis, are not primarily involved in the function of the pelvic floor.

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64. The membrane that line closed cavities within the body are called:

Explanation

Serous membranes are thin, double-layered membranes that line closed cavities within the body. They secrete a watery fluid called serous fluid, which helps to reduce friction between organs and allows them to move smoothly. These membranes are found in various body cavities such as the pleural cavity, pericardial cavity, and peritoneal cavity. Mucous membranes, on the other hand, line the body's surfaces that are in contact with the external environment, such as the respiratory and digestive tracts. Fascial membranes are connective tissues that surround and support organs, while skeletal membranes refer to the connective tissues that cover bones.

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65. All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The lymphatic system is a network of vessels, organs, and tissues that help to remove waste, toxins, and excess fluid from the body. It also plays a crucial role in the immune system by producing and storing white blood cells. The thyroid, on the other hand, is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck that produces hormones regulating metabolism. While the tonsils, spleen, and thymus are all part of the lymphatic system, the thyroid is not. Therefore, the correct answer is the thyroid.

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66. A Bier block provides:

Explanation

A Bier block provides anesthesia to a distal portion of an extremity. This means that it numbs a specific area of the arm or leg, allowing for surgical procedures or pain relief in that particular region.

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67. The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is Azygos. The azygos vein is responsible for draining the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava. It is a major vein in the body that plays a crucial role in returning deoxygenated blood from the chest and abdominal walls back to the heart. The azygos vein is located on the right side of the body and is an important component of the venous drainage system.

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68. The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into:

Explanation

The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra and divides into two common iliac arteries. These arteries further branch into internal and external iliac arteries. The internal iliac arteries supply blood to the pelvic organs, while the external iliac arteries continue down the legs and become the femoral arteries. The saphenous arteries are not directly related to the termination of the descending aorta.

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69. The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called:

Explanation

The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called calyces. Calyces are responsible for collecting urine from the renal pelvis and transporting it to the ureter for elimination from the body. They serve as a connection between the renal pelvis and the renal tubules, allowing for the filtration and concentration of urine.

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70. The organism most frequently found in burns:

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the correct answer because it is a common bacteria found in burn wounds. It is known for its ability to thrive in moist environments and can cause serious infections in burn patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antibiotics, making it difficult to treat. It produces toxins that can further damage the tissues and delay wound healing. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and treat this organism promptly in burn patients to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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71. The solutions used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available is:

Explanation

Dextran is used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available. Dextran is a type of plasma expander that helps to increase blood volume and maintain blood pressure. It is commonly used in situations where there is a shortage of plasma or when plasma transfusion is not feasible. Dextran is a polysaccharide that can be administered intravenously and has the ability to draw fluid into the blood vessels, thereby increasing blood volume.

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72. The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the:

Explanation

The pharynx is the correct answer because it serves as a common passageway for both food and liquids into the digestive system and for air into the respiratory system. It is located behind the mouth and nasal cavity and leads to both the esophagus and the trachea.

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73. The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is the Ileocecal sphincter. This sphincter is located at the junction between the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine (cecum). It acts as a valve, regulating the flow of digested food from the small intestine into the large intestine. When the sphincter is relaxed, it allows food to pass through, but when it contracts, it prevents backflow of waste material from the large intestine into the small intestine.

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74. The long, coiled tube in which sperm mature is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is Epididymis. The epididymis is a long, coiled tube located on the back of each testicle where sperm mature and gain the ability to swim. It is responsible for storing and transporting sperm from the testes to the vas deferens. The vas deferens, on the other hand, is a muscular tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory duct is a short tube that connects the vas deferens to the urethra. The seminal vesicle is a gland that produces a fluid that nourishes and helps transport sperm.

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75. The adult vertebral column has ___ bones

Explanation

The adult vertebral column consists of 26 bones. This is because the vertebral column is made up of 24 individual vertebrae, which are stacked on top of each other to form the backbone. In addition to the vertebrae, there are also the sacrum, which is made up of 5 fused vertebrae, and the coccyx, which is made up of 4 fused vertebrae. Therefore, the total number of bones in the adult vertebral column is 26.

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76. The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the:

Explanation

The spermatic cord is the correct answer because it is the main supporting structure of the male reproductive system. It is a bundle of fibers and tissues that contains the vas deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and other structures that are essential for the transport of sperm and the overall functioning of the male reproductive system. The spermatic cord also helps to suspend and protect the testes within the scrotum.

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77. Neuroleptoanalgesia combines:

Explanation

Neuroleptoanalgesia combines a tranquilizer and a narcotic. This combination is used to induce a state of sedation and analgesia in patients. The tranquilizer helps to relax the patient and reduce anxiety, while the narcotic provides pain relief. This combination is commonly used in medical procedures or surgeries where sedation and pain control are necessary.

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78. The terminal portion of the large intestine is the:

Explanation

The anal canal is the terminal portion of the large intestine. It is the last part of the digestive system and is responsible for the elimination of waste material from the body. It is located between the rectum and the anus. The anal canal contains internal and external sphincters that help control the release of feces.

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79. An antimuscarinic:

Explanation

An antimuscarinic is a type of medication that inhibits the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that regulates various bodily functions. One of the effects of antimuscarinics is the reduction of salivation. By blocking the muscarinic receptors responsible for stimulating saliva production, antimuscarinics can limit the amount of saliva secreted. This can be beneficial in certain medical conditions where excessive salivation is a problem, such as in Parkinson's disease or during dental procedures. Therefore, the correct answer is "Limits salivation."

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80. The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the:

Explanation

The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the membranous urethra. This segment is located between the prostatic urethra, which is surrounded by the prostate gland, and the penile urethra, which extends through the penis. The membranous urethra is a short, narrow section that is susceptible to injury due to its location within the pelvic floor muscles.

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81. An ultra-short acting drug useful during intubation to produce paralysis and also to produce muscle relaxation when used in  diluted solutions:

Explanation

Anectine is an ultra-short acting drug that is commonly used during intubation to produce paralysis and muscle relaxation. It is particularly effective when used in diluted solutions. Sublimaze, Valium, and Versed are not specifically known for their ultra-short acting properties or their use in intubation. Therefore, Anectine is the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.

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Epistaxis can be defined as:
Ischemic can be defined as:
Oil glands of the skin are called:
A drug used to treat metabolic acidosis is:
The number of pairs of ribs is:
The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive jaundice is...
A ganglion is a:
The periosteum is:
Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in:
Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by:
The vocal cords are located in the:
Blood gas analysis is called:
The epiphyses:
The white outer layer of the eyeball is the:
The appendix is attached to the:
An antibiotic used intra-operatively is:
An infection of the bone is:
The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the:
In the normal adult, the average number of leukocytes per cubic...
Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small...
The larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg is the:
Microbial death occurs when an organism is:
A bacterial pathogen frequently invading damaging skin is:
The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the:
The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing...
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the:
A large superficial vein in the lower extremity, which begins in the...
The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the ________...
The nucleus pulposus is the:
The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the:
The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regulated by the...
A large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord...
A jelly-like substance in the eye's posterior cavity is called:
The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as...
Which of the abdominal muscles originates at the pubic bone and ends...
The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the:
The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the:
A CDC guideline that addresses the care of "sharps" includes all of...
A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another...
Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in...
The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called...
An agent that keeps the cornea moist during surgery and is used for...
Which of the following structures transmits sound vibrations to the...
Cross-matching of blood:
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as:
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the:
A defferential count provides an estimate of:
A mydriatic drug, Neo-Synephrine, is used to:
The absence of a normal body opening, duct or canal is called:
The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic...
To promote healing, a surgical wound must have all of the following...
The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior...
Adnexa refers to:
The part of the body responsible for maintenance of balance and muscle...
What immune protection is available to the fetus?
The head of the pancreas is located:
A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of...
A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is:
The heart valve that closes at the time of the right ventricle begins...
Clostridium tetani causes:
Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or...
One of the principle muscles of the pelvic floor is:
The membrane that line closed cavities within the body are called:
All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT the:
A Bier block provides:
The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the...
The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar...
The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are...
The organism most frequently found in burns:
The solutions used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not...
The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and...
The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is...
The long, coiled tube in which sperm mature is the:
The adult vertebral column has ___ bones
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the:
Neuroleptoanalgesia combines:
The terminal portion of the large intestine is the:
An antimuscarinic:
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor...
An ultra-short acting drug useful during intubation to produce...
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