Surg Tech:Appleton And Lang:Q1-250

81 Questions | Total Attempts: 326

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Surg Tech:Appleton And Lang:Q1-250

LeRETEST FOR SURG TEST ALL MISSED QUESTIONS


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Adnexa refers to:
    • A. 

      Adrenal Glands

    • B. 

      Sympathetic Nerve Fibers

    • C. 

      Outer Most Layer

    • D. 

      Accessory Organs

  • 2. 
    Ischemic can be defined as:
    • A. 

      A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ.

    • B. 

      A sharp osterior bony projection of the pelvis.

    • C. 

      A painful sensation.

    • D. 

      The transmission of pain impulses to the hip bone.

  • 3. 
    Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes?
    • A. 

      PET

    • B. 

      CT

    • C. 

      MRI

    • D. 

      Ultrasound

  • 4. 
    Blood gas analysis is called:
    • A. 

      BGA

    • B. 

      SAT rate

    • C. 

      ABG

    • D. 

      ABO

  • 5. 
    The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the:
    • A. 

      Trachea

    • B. 

      Larynx

    • C. 

      Epiglottis

    • D. 

      Pharynx

  • 6. 
    The absence of a normal body opening, duct or canal is called:
    • A. 

      Atrophia

    • B. 

      Atrichia

    • C. 

      Ataxia

    • D. 

      Atresia

  • 7. 
    The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as:
    • A. 

      Phalanges

    • B. 

      Carpals

    • C. 

      Metacarpals

    • D. 

      Calcaneus

  • 8. 
    The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the:
    • A. 

      Biceps Brachii

    • B. 

      Deltoid

    • C. 

      Triceps Brachii

    • D. 

      Serratus Anterior

  • 9. 
    Which of the abdominal muscles originates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs?
    • A. 

      Rectus Abdominis

    • B. 

      Transversus Abdominis

    • C. 

      External Oblique

    • D. 

      Ititernal Oblique

  • 10. 
    How many cervical vertebrae are there?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      4

  • 11. 
    The number of pairs of ribs is:
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      7

  • 12. 
    The larger, weight-bearing bone of the lower leg is the:
    • A. 

      Humerus

    • B. 

      Talus

    • C. 

      Fibula

    • D. 

      Tibia

  • 13. 
    The membrane that line closed cavities within the body are called:
    • A. 

      Mucous

    • B. 

      Serous

    • C. 

      Fascial

    • D. 

      Skeletal

  • 14. 
    The epiphyses:
    • A. 

      Ends of long bones

    • B. 

      Shafts of long bones

    • C. 

      Bone-forming cells

    • D. 

      Marrow-filled cavities within bone

  • 15. 
    Oil glands of the skin are called:
    • A. 

      Sudoriferous

    • B. 

      Ceruminous

    • C. 

      Sebaceous

    • D. 

      Hypochlorous

  • 16. 
    The periosteum is:
    • A. 

      The membrane that covers bone

    • B. 

      The membrane that surrounds a joint

    • C. 

      The covering of the internal and external organs of the body and the lining of vessels

    • D. 

      A fibrous connective tissue sheath

  • 17. 
    The white outer layer of the eyeball is the:
    • A. 

      Conjunctiva

    • B. 

      Sclera

    • C. 

      Choroid

    • D. 

      Retina

  • 18. 
    The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the:
    • A. 

      Trochlear

    • B. 

      Oculomotor

    • C. 

      Hypoglossal

    • D. 

      Trigeminal

  • 19. 
    The cranial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is:
    • A. 

      II

    • B. 

      V

    • C. 

      VIII

    • D. 

      XII

  • 20. 
    The part of the body responsible for maintenance of balance and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle, is the:
    • A. 

      Cerebellum

    • B. 

      Cerebrum

    • C. 

      Midbrain

    • D. 

      Pons

  • 21. 
    The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the:
    • A. 

      Cerebellum

    • B. 

      Interbrain

    • C. 

      Pons

    • D. 

      Medulla Oblongata

  • 22. 
    Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the:
    • A. 

      Subarachnoid space

    • B. 

      Arachnoid space

    • C. 

      Pia mater

    • D. 

      Subdural space

  • 23. 
    The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the:
    • A. 

      Auricles

    • B. 

      Ventricles

    • C. 

      Fissures

    • D. 

      Sulci

  • 24. 
    Which of the following structures transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear?
    • A. 

      Exteranl auditory canal

    • B. 

      Tympanic membrane

    • C. 

      Semicircular canal

    • D. 

      Stapes

  • 25. 
    The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the:
    • A. 

      Vestibule

    • B. 

      Sesmicircular canal

    • C. 

      Labyrinth

    • D. 

      Cochlea

  • 26. 
    Cross-matching of blood:
    • A. 

      Determines patient's blood type

    • B. 

      Determines Rh factor of both patient and donor

    • C. 

      Deteremines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBC's with recipient serum

    • D. 

      Determines blood group of donor

  • 27. 
    A defferential count provides an estimate of:
    • A. 

      The amount of hemoglobin

    • B. 

      The volume percentage of red cells

    • C. 

      The percentage of each type of white cell

    • D. 

      Electrolyte percentages

  • 28. 
    Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in:
    • A. 

      Agglutination

    • B. 

      Infectious Hepatitis

    • C. 

      Leukocytosis

    • D. 

      Hyperglycemia

  • 29. 
    In the normal adult, the average number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter of circulating blood is:
    • A. 

      1,000-4,000

    • B. 

      3,000-8,000

    • C. 

      5,000-10,000

    • D. 

      10,000

  • 30. 
    A large superficial vein in the lower extremity, which begins in the foot and extends up the medial side of the leg, the knee, and the thigh, is called the:
    • A. 

      Femoral

    • B. 

      Greater saphenous

    • C. 

      Iliac

    • D. 

      Popliteal

  • 31. 
    The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava is the:
    • A. 

      Azygos

    • B. 

      Hepatic

    • C. 

      Cephalic

    • D. 

      Basilic

  • 32. 
    The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into:
    • A. 

      Two saphenous arteries

    • B. 

      Two femoral arteries

    • C. 

      Internal and external iliac arteries

    • D. 

      Two common iliac arteries

  • 33. 
    The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regulated by the pacemaker of the heart called:
    • A. 

      Sinoatrial node

    • B. 

      Atrioventricular node

    • C. 

      Atrioventricular bundle

    • D. 

      Purkinje fibers

  • 34. 
    The heart valve that closes at the time of the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is:
    • A. 

      Aortic semilumar

    • B. 

      Pulmonary Semilunar

    • C. 

      Bicuspid

    • D. 

      Tricuspid

  • 35. 
    All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT the:
    • A. 

      Thyroid

    • B. 

      Tonsils

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      Thymus

  • 36. 
    The terminal portion of the large intestine is the:
    • A. 

      Sigmoid

    • B. 

      Rectum

    • C. 

      Anus

    • D. 

      Anal canal

  • 37. 
    The appendix is attached to the:
    • A. 

      Ascending colon

    • B. 

      Transverse colon

    • C. 

      Cecum

    • D. 

      Descending colon

  • 38. 
    The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive jaundice is caused by the accumulation of what substance in the blood and tissue?
    • A. 

      Cholesterol

    • B. 

      Bile salts

    • C. 

      Enzymes

    • D. 

      Bilirubin

  • 39. 
    The head of the pancreas is located:
    • A. 

      In the curve of the duodenum

    • B. 

      By the spleen

    • C. 

      On the undersurface of the liver

    • D. 

      In the curve of the descending colon

  • 40. 
    The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the:
    • A. 

      Sphincter of Oddi

    • B. 

      Ileocecal sphincter

    • C. 

      Pyloric sphincter

    • D. 

      Duodenal sphincter

  • 41. 
    The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called the:
    • A. 

      Hiatus

    • B. 

      Meatus

    • C. 

      Sphincter

    • D. 

      Fundus

  • 42. 
    The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called:
    • A. 

      Glomeruli

    • B. 

      Convoluted tubules

    • C. 

      Bowman's capsules

    • D. 

      Calyces

  • 43. 
    The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the:
    • A. 

      Prostatic

    • B. 

      Cavernous

    • C. 

      Membranous

    • D. 

      Penile

  • 44. 
    The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the:
    • A. 

      Inguinal canal

    • B. 

      Cremaster muscle

    • C. 

      Vas deferens

    • D. 

      Spermatic cord

  • 45. 
    The long, coiled tube in which sperm mature is the:
    • A. 

      Vas deferens

    • B. 

      Epididymis

    • C. 

      Ejaculatory duct

    • D. 

      Seminal Vesicle

  • 46. 
    Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by:
    • A. 

      Urine

    • B. 

      Feces

    • C. 

      Nose and mouth

    • D. 

      Sex organs

  • 47. 
    Microbial death occurs when an organism is:
    • A. 

      Reproducing at a slower rate

    • B. 

      Reproduced in population

    • C. 

      No longer capable of reproduction

    • D. 

      Exposed to heat

  • 48. 
    What immune protection is available to the fetus?
    • A. 

      Natural active

    • B. 

      Natural passive

    • C. 

      Active artificial

    • D. 

      Passive artificial

  • 49. 
    Clostridium tetani causes:
    • A. 

      Gangrene

    • B. 

      Nosocomial infection

    • C. 

      Lockjaw

    • D. 

      Malaria

  • 50. 
    The organism most frequently found in burns:
    • A. 

      Clostridium Perfingens

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • C. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • D. 

      Hemolytic streptococci

  • 51. 
    A bacterial pathogen frequently invading damaging skin is:
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • C. 

      Pseudomonas septica

    • D. 

      Candida albicans

  • 52. 
    The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is:
    • A. 

      Fibrinogen

    • B. 

      Prothrombin

    • C. 

      Fibrin

    • D. 

      Thrombin

  • 53. 
    A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by:
    • A. 

      Primary

    • B. 

      Secondary

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 54. 
    A CDC guideline that addresses the care of "sharps" includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Needles should ALWAYS be recapped

    • B. 

      Needles should not be bent or broken by hand

    • C. 

      Needles should not be removed from disposable syringes

    • D. 

      Needles should be discarded in puncture-resistant containers for disposal

  • 55. 
    To promote healing, a surgical wound must have all of the following requisites EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Suture closure of dead space

    • B. 

      Drains to remove fluid or air

    • C. 

      A moderately tight dressing

    • D. 

      Tight sutures to create tension

  • 56. 
    The solutions used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available is:
    • A. 

      0.9% NaCl

    • B. 

      Dextrose 5% in water

    • C. 

      Lactated Ringer's Solution

    • D. 

      Dextran

  • 57. 
    Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Gelfoam

    • B. 

      Collastat

    • C. 

      Avitene

    • D. 

      Helistat

  • 58. 
    An antibiotic used intra-operatively is:
    • A. 

      Diazepam

    • B. 

      Ketoralac

    • C. 

      Cyclogyl

    • D. 

      Gentamicin

  • 59. 
    A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is:
    • A. 

      Protamine

    • B. 

      Pitocin

    • C. 

      Procainamide HCl

    • D. 

      Phenylephrhine

  • 60. 
    A mydriatic drug, Neo-Synephrine, is used to:
    • A. 

      Constrict the pupil

    • B. 

      Dilate the pupil

    • C. 

      Anesthetize the eye

    • D. 

      Lower intra-ocular pressure

  • 61. 
    An agent that keeps the cornea moist during surgery and is used for irrigation as well is:
    • A. 

      Mannitol

    • B. 

      Miochol

    • C. 

      Chymar

    • D. 

      BSS

  • 62. 
    A drug used to treat metabolic acidosis is:
    • A. 

      Inderal

    • B. 

      Pronestyl

    • C. 

      Sodium Bicarbonate

    • D. 

      Isuprel

  • 63. 
    An ultra-short acting drug useful during intubation to produce paralysis and also to produce muscle relaxation when used in  diluted solutions:
    • A. 

      Sublimaze

    • B. 

      Valium

    • C. 

      Versed

    • D. 

      Anectine

  • 64. 
    Neuroleptoanalgesia combines:
    • A. 

      A narcotic and anticholinergic

    • B. 

      A tranquilizer and narcotic

    • C. 

      Anti-inflammatory and a tranquilizer

    • D. 

      A muscle relaxant and a tranquilizer

  • 65. 
    An antimuscarinic:
    • A. 

      Controls pain

    • B. 

      Prevents nausea

    • C. 

      Limits salivation

    • D. 

      Reverses muscle relaxation

  • 66. 
    A Bier block provides:
    • A. 

      Anesthesia to a distal portion of an extremity

    • B. 

      Anesthesia below the diaphragm

    • C. 

      Anesthetic block surronding peripheral nerve

    • D. 

      Anesthetic block to a nerve group

  • 67. 
    Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called:
    • A. 

      Petechiae

    • B. 

      Peyronies

    • C. 

      Purigos

    • D. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

  • 68. 
    Epistaxis can be defined as:
    • A. 

      Gene interaction

    • B. 

      Bleeding from the nose

    • C. 

      Congenital urethral defect

    • D. 

      Extrachromosomal replication

  • 69. 
    A ganglion is a:
    • A. 

      Chemical substance secreted by the ova

    • B. 

      Necrotic death of tissue

    • C. 

      Missing segment

    • D. 

      Collection of nerve endings

  • 70. 
    The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the ________ pleura.
    • A. 

      Bronchial

    • B. 

      Pulmonary

    • C. 

      Visceral

    • D. 

      Parietal

  • 71. 
    The vocal cords are located in the:
    • A. 

      Larynx

    • B. 

      Pharynx

    • C. 

      Windpipe

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 72. 
    One of the principle muscles of the pelvic floor is:
    • A. 

      Sartorius

    • B. 

      Levator ani

    • C. 

      Internal Oblique

    • D. 

      Rectus abdominis

  • 73. 
    The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the:
    • A. 

      Calf of the leg

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Stomach's greater curvature

    • D. 

      Thigh

  • 74. 
    The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the:
    • A. 

      Temporal

    • B. 

      Sphenoid

    • C. 

      Ethmoid

    • D. 

      Parietal

  • 75. 
    The adult vertebral column has ___ bones
    • A. 

      33

    • B. 

      28

    • C. 

      26

    • D. 

      32

  • 76. 
    The nucleus pulposus is the:
    • A. 

      Cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk

    • B. 

      Result of a ruptured disk

    • C. 

      Outer layer of fibrocartilage

    • D. 

      Covering of the intervertebral disk

  • 77. 
    A large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes is the:
    • A. 

      Ossicle

    • B. 

      Hypoglossal canal

    • C. 

      Foramen ovale

    • D. 

      Foramen magnum

  • 78. 
    An infection of the bone is:
    • A. 

      Osteoarthritis

    • B. 

      Osteomyelitis

    • C. 

      Osteoporosis

    • D. 

      Osteomalacia

  • 79. 
    A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a:
    • A. 

      Trochanter

    • B. 

      Trochlea

    • C. 

      Tubercle

    • D. 

      Condyle

  • 80. 
    A jelly-like substance in the eye's posterior cavity is called:
    • A. 

      Choroid

    • B. 

      Palpebra

    • C. 

      Vitreous humor

    • D. 

      Aqueous humor

  • 81. 
    The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the:
    • A. 

      Membranous canal

    • B. 

      External auditory canal

    • C. 

      Eustachian tube

    • D. 

      Semicircular canal