Skin Disorders

68 Questions

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Skin Disease Quizzes & Trivia

All disorders and diseases of skin.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A Eccymosis is a
    • A. 

      Visible dilation of small cutaneous blood vessels

    • B. 

      Pinhead sized macules of blood in the skin

    • C. 

      Local collection of pus in a cavity

    • D. 

      Larger accumulation of blood in the skin

  • 2. 
    A Macule is a sold mass in the skin, usually greater than 0.5 cm in diameter
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    A blackhead is also called a
    • A. 

      Bulla

    • B. 

      Comedo

    • C. 

      Wheal

    • D. 

      Pustule

  • 4. 
    A Keloid is a excessive hard, smooth and pinkish scar above the skin surface
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    This is a streak-like linear atrophic pink purple or white lesion of the skin due to changes in connective tissue and stretching of the skin.
    • A. 

      Fissure

    • B. 

      Stria

    • C. 

      Excoriation

    • D. 

      Erosion

  • 6. 
    Which type of eczema is also called contact eczema
    • A. 

      Exogenous

    • B. 

      Endogenous

  • 7. 
    Atopic eczema and Seborrhoeic belong to which type of eczema
    • A. 

      Endogenous

    • B. 

      Exogenous

  • 8. 
    Allergic contact eczema is due typ which type of hypersensitivity reaction
    • A. 

      Type 1

    • B. 

      Type 2

    • C. 

      Type 3

    • D. 

      Type 4

  • 9. 
    Allergic contact eczema where skin lesions only occur after exposure to the sun is called
    • A. 

      Phototoxic contact eczema

    • B. 

      Photoallergic contact dermatitis

  • 10. 
    Seborrhoeic eczema in infants is also known as cradle cap
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    Clinically Is it acute or chronic eczema that shows Lichenification
    • A. 

      Acute

    • B. 

      Chronic

    • C. 

      Both

  • 12. 
    This non infectious, inflammatory disease of the skin is characterised by well-defined erythematous plaques with large, adherent, silvery scales.
    • A. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • B. 

      Lichen planus

    • C. 

      Psoriasis

  • 13. 
    In which disorder does a larger lesion, called a herald patch appear first followed 7-10 days later by a bilaterally symmetrical eruptions.
    • A. 

      Lichen Planus

    • B. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • C. 

      Acne

    • D. 

      Rosacea

  • 14. 
    Which disorder begins in middle age or later and is characterised by telangiectasis - clearly visible dilated blood vessels in the skin.
    • A. 

      Lichen Planus

    • B. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • C. 

      Rosacea

    • D. 

      Acne

  • 15. 
    Which disorder presents itself with greasy skin, open comedomes and closed comedomes
    • A. 

      Rosacea

    • B. 

      Acne

    • C. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • D. 

      Pigmented naevi

  • 16. 
    Pityriasis Rosea is the  disorder that may lead to hypertrophy of the nose - rhinophyma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    Which disorder has a primary lesion that is slightly raised, salmon coloured oval patch with a feine, wrinkled scale resembling cigarette paper.
    • A. 

      Rosacea

    • B. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • C. 

      Lichen Planus

    • D. 

      Acne

  • 18. 
    Rosacea is the disorder that appears in the fifth or sixth decade and effects women preferentially
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Which disorder is characterised by white lacy patterns on the papule surface
    • A. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • B. 

      Lichen Planus

    • C. 

      Rosacea

  • 20. 
    Koebners Phenomenon is the occurrence of papules along a scratch line which appears in which disorder
    • A. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • B. 

      Lichen Planus

    • C. 

      Rosacea

  • 21. 
    Lichen planus has NOT been associated with which disease
    • A. 

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B. 

      Primary biliary cirrhosis

    • C. 

      Tuberculosis

    • D. 

      Chronic active hepatitis

  • 22. 
    In acne sebum excretion is normal
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    This is a disorder of the pilosecaceous apparatus
    • A. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • B. 

      Rosacea

    • C. 

      Acne

    • D. 

      Lichen Planus

  • 24. 
    Oral isotretinoin a derivative of retinoic acid is used to treat which disease
    • A. 

      Pityriasis Rosea

    • B. 

      Stubborn Rosacea

    • C. 

      Acne

    • D. 

      Lichen Planus

    • E. 

      Both B & C

  • 25. 
    Pigmented naevi is also called warts
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    Pigmented naevi (moles) are composed of clusters of normal melanocytes
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    A simple pigmented naevi is classified as
    • A. 

      Non dysplastic

    • B. 

      Dysplastic

  • 28. 
    Critea for classifying a dysplastic nevi DO NOT  include which of the following
    • A. 

      Over 5 mm

    • B. 

      Irregular pigmentation

    • C. 

      Asymmetry

    • D. 

      Distinct borders

  • 29. 
    Which disorder appears to be stuck on and is characterised by prominent follicular plugging
    • A. 

      Pigmented naevi

    • B. 

      Seborrhoiec keratosis

    • C. 

      Sebeceous hyperplasia

  • 30. 
    A disorder that is a port wine stain and appears at birth as a reddish or violacious macular discolouration is called
    • A. 

      Salmon Patch

    • B. 

      Naevus flammeus

    • C. 

      Cherry haemangioma

    • D. 

      Spider angioma

  • 31. 
    What is the difference between a salmon patch and naevus flammeus
    • A. 

      They are the same

    • B. 

      The naevus flammeus fades in early life

    • C. 

      The salmon patch fades in early life

  • 32. 
    Strawberry haemangioma are also called capillary haemangioma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 33. 
    This appears as a tiny central red spot from which fine vessels radiate
    • A. 

      Strawberry haemangioma

    • B. 

      Cherry Haemangioma

    • C. 

      Spider angioma

  • 34. 
    This disorder is caused by the persistence of dilated foetal capillaries in the dermis
    • A. 

      Cherry haemangioma

    • B. 

      Strawberry Haemangioma

    • C. 

      Spider angioma

    • D. 

      Salmon Patch

  • 35. 
    A strawberry haemangioma appears during the second to fifth week of life.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    After puberty naevus flammeus lesions do NOT become
    • A. 

      Thickened

    • B. 

      Nodular

    • C. 

      Papular

    • D. 

      Soft

  • 37. 
    A wen is also known as
    • A. 

      Skin Tag

    • B. 

      Epidermoid Cysts

    • C. 

      Seborrhoeic keratosis

  • 38. 
    What is NOT a clinical warning sign of melanomas
    • A. 

      Shrinking of pre existing mole

    • B. 

      Enlargment of pre existing mole

    • C. 

      Itching or pain in pre existing mole

    • D. 

      Change in colour within a pigmented lesion

    • E. 

      Increased irregularity of the borders

  • 39. 
    A malignant melanoma arises from melanocytes
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    A Rodent ulcer is
    • A. 

      A fast growing expanding ulcerative basal cell carcinoma

    • B. 

      A slow growing expanding ulcerative basal cell carcinoma

  • 41. 
    Impetigo is caused by which bacteria
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus Aureus

    • B. 

      B- haemolytic streptococci

    • C. 

      Both

    • D. 

      Neither

  • 42. 
    Impetigo is contagious
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 43. 
    The varicella zoster virus reactivates to form which disorder
    • A. 

      Chicken Pox

    • B. 

      Herpes zoster

    • C. 

      Herpes Simplex

  • 44. 
    Candida (Monilia) albicans is a _______________- found in the mouth and vagina of healthy individuals.
  • 45. 
    Candida infection can develop from long term corticosteroid or antibiotic treatment
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    Dermatophytoses is also known as
    • A. 

      Candidiasis

    • B. 

      Tinea

    • C. 

      Warts

  • 47. 
    Athletes foot is what sort of tinea
    • A. 

      Tinea unguis

    • B. 

      Tinea pedis

    • C. 

      Tinea cruris

    • D. 

      Tinea corporis

  • 48. 
    Jock itch is known as which type of tinea
    • A. 

      Tinea unguis

    • B. 

      Tinea cruris

    • C. 

      Tinea corporis

    • D. 

      Tinea pedis

  • 49. 
    Ringworm is known as what type of Tinea
    • A. 

      Tinea unguis

    • B. 

      Tinea cruris

    • C. 

      Tinea pedis

    • D. 

      Tinea corporis

  • 50. 
    Onychomycosis which affects the nails is what type of Tinea
    • A. 

      Tinea unguis

    • B. 

      Tinea cruris

    • C. 

      Tinea pedis

    • D. 

      Tinea corporis

  • 51. 
    What disorder can be treated with salicylic, lactic acid preparations, liquid nitrogen, carbon dioxide snow therapy- cryotherapy, electrocoagulation - cautery, laser energy or curettage
    • A. 

      Warts

    • B. 

      Moles

    • C. 

      Herpes simplex

    • D. 

      Herpes zoster

  • 52. 
    Cellulitis usually follows trauma or other existing skin disease
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    Furuncle is a bacterial infection of the hair follicles
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    Staph aureus causes does NOT usually cause this disorder
    • A. 

      Furuncle

    • B. 

      Folliclitis

    • C. 

      Cellulitis

    • D. 

      Carbuncle

  • 55. 
    Alopecia can be a complication of Cellulitis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 56. 
    Herpes simplex is a bacterial infection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
    Pityrosporum orbiculare causes which type of tinea
    • A. 

      Tinea Pedis

    • B. 

      Tinea Unguis

    • C. 

      Tinea versicolour

    • D. 

      Tinea corporis

  • 58. 
    Petechiae is
    • A. 

      Visual accumulation of pus in skin

    • B. 

      Flake arising from the horny layer

    • C. 

      Slit or linear rupture in skin

    • D. 

      Pinhead sized macules of blood in the skin

  • 59. 
    Which of the following best describes folliclitis
    • A. 

      Superficial nodule or pustule with central hair

    • B. 

      Punched out ulcerative lesions

    • C. 

      Aggregate of connected furuncles

    • D. 

      Supperative inflammation of dermis

  • 60. 
    Ephelis is better known as a wart
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    Which is NOT a benign skin tumour
    • A. 

      Pigmented naevi

    • B. 

      Seborrhoeic keratosis

    • C. 

      Sebaceous hyperplasia

    • D. 

      Squamos cell carcinoma

  • 62. 
    Basal Cell carcinoma often arises from exposure to UV or xray radiation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    Spider angioma's may arise  in association with
    • A. 

      A. weight gain

    • B. 

      B. pregnancy

    • C. 

      C, hepatic dysfunction

    • D. 

      D. b & c

  • 64. 
    A dermatofibroma is also called a histiocytoma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    An acrochordon is also called a
    • A. 

      Skin Tag

    • B. 

      Epidermoid Cyst

    • C. 

      Ephelis

    • D. 

      Lentigo

  • 66. 
    Guttate psoriasis is what type of rash
    • A. 

      Well defined erythematous plaques with large silvery scales

    • B. 

      Drops of dark red paint

    • C. 

      White lacy patterns on papule surface

  • 67. 
    Topical corticosteroids aggravate rosacea
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    Rosacea resembles acne except there are no
    • A. 

      Skin redness

    • B. 

      Comedomes

    • C. 

      Pustules

    • D. 

      Papules