Rmapa - Set 6 - Security Management

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Rmapa - Set 6 - Security Management - Quiz

Security Managment is a broad field of management related to asset management, physical security and human resource safety functions. It entails the identification of an organization's information assets and the development, documentation and implementation of policies, standards, procedures and guidelines.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    One supervisor can effectively control only a limited number of people and that limit should not be exceeded. This principle is called:

    • A.

      Unity of command

    • B.

      Supervisory limits

    • C.

      Span of control

    • D.

      Line discipline

    Correct Answer
    C. Span of control
    Explanation
    Span of control refers to the number of subordinates that a supervisor can effectively manage. This principle recognizes that there is a limit to the number of people that one supervisor can oversee and maintain control over. Exceeding this limit can lead to a decrease in efficiency and effectiveness. Therefore, organizations should ensure that supervisors are assigned a manageable number of subordinates to maintain unity of command and effective control.

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  • 2. 

    An important principle of organization is that an employee should be under the direct control of one and only one immediate superior. The principle is:

    • A.

      Unity of command

    • B.

      Supervisory limits

    • C.

      Span of control

    • D.

      Line discipline

    Correct Answer
    A. Unity of command
    Explanation
    Unity of command is the correct answer because it states that an employee should have only one immediate superior who they report to and take orders from. This principle ensures clear communication, accountability, and avoids confusion or conflicting instructions. It helps maintain a clear chain of command and ensures that employees know who their direct supervisor is, preventing any ambiguity or overlapping authority.

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  • 3. 

    From an organizational standpoint, the head of security should report to:

    • A.

      Superintendent buildings

    • B.

      Manager of buildings and grounds

    • C.

      Head housekeeper

    • D.

      A vice-president or higher

    Correct Answer
    D. A vice-president or higher
    Explanation
    The head of security should report to a vice-president or higher because this ensures that security is given a high level of importance within the organization. Reporting to a higher-level executive allows the head of security to have direct access to decision-makers and have their concerns and recommendations taken seriously. It also indicates that security is considered a strategic function that requires top-level oversight and support.

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  • 4. 

    The most conspicuous role of the security department in any organization is that of:

    • A.

      Educational services

    • B.

      Management services

    • C.

      Special services

    • D.

      Protective services

    Correct Answer
    D. Protective services
    Explanation
    The security department in any organization primarily focuses on providing protective services. This includes ensuring the safety and security of the organization's assets, employees, and visitors. They are responsible for implementing security measures, such as access control systems, surveillance cameras, and security personnel, to prevent unauthorized access, theft, vandalism, and other potential threats. Their role also involves conducting risk assessments, developing emergency response plans, and coordinating with law enforcement agencies if necessary. Overall, the security department plays a crucial role in maintaining a secure and safe environment for the organization.

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  • 5. 

    Training sessions consisting of a security awareness program for new employees should be conducted by:

    • A.

      Special training officers

    • B.

      Security personnel

    • C.

      Consultants skilled in training

    • D.

      Member of management

    Correct Answer
    B. Security personnel
    Explanation
    Training sessions consisting of a security awareness program for new employees should be conducted by security personnel because they have the necessary expertise and knowledge in security protocols and procedures. They are trained to educate employees on the importance of security measures, such as password protection, data confidentiality, and physical security. Security personnel can provide practical examples and real-life scenarios to help new employees understand the potential risks and how to mitigate them effectively. Additionally, security personnel are familiar with the company's specific security policies and can tailor the training sessions accordingly.

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  • 6. 

    There are necessary and legitimate exceptions to the principle of unity of command. One condition which sometimes allows for shifting in supervision is:

    • A.

      When order is given by the rank of captain or above

    • B.

      When order is given by the head of a department

    • C.

      When the order is given by the head of internal affairs

    • D.

      During emergencies

    Correct Answer
    D. During emergencies
    Explanation
    During emergencies, the principle of unity of command may be temporarily suspended to allow for more efficient decision-making and coordination. In these situations, it may be necessary for multiple individuals or departments to have authority and give orders to ensure a swift response and resolution to the emergency. This exception recognizes the need for flexibility and adaptability in crisis situations.

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  • 7. 

    Perhaps the most common shortcoming in the security industry is:

    • A.

      Lack of support by top management

    • B.

      Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisors with tools to discharge their important responsibilities (supervisory training)

    • C.

      Lack of Planning

    • D.

      Lack of monetary resources

    Correct Answer
    B. Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisors with tools to discharge their important responsibilities (supervisory training)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Failure to properly prepare and equip new supervisors with tools to discharge their important responsibilities (supervisory training)". This answer suggests that one of the most common shortcomings in the security industry is the lack of proper training and preparation for new supervisors. This means that new supervisors may not have the necessary skills, knowledge, or resources to effectively carry out their responsibilities, which can lead to inefficiencies and potential security risks.

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  • 8. 

    As a rule, which department of the company administers the recruiting activity?

    • A.

      The security department

    • B.

      Administrative department

    • C.

      Personnel department

    • D.

      Internal affairs

    Correct Answer
    C. Personnel department
    Explanation
    The personnel department is responsible for administering the recruiting activity in a company. This department is specifically dedicated to managing the workforce and ensuring that the company has the right employees in place. They handle tasks such as job postings, screening resumes, conducting interviews, and making hiring decisions. By overseeing the recruiting process, the personnel department plays a crucial role in ensuring that the company attracts and selects qualified candidates to fill job vacancies.

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  • 9. 

    In non-entry level recruiting, the recommended technique is:

    • A.

      “Blind ad”

    • B.

      Open advertisement in newspaper

    • C.

      Advertisement in trade journal

    • D.

      By word of mouth on selective basis

    Correct Answer
    A. “Blind ad”
    Explanation
    The recommended technique in non-entry level recruiting is a "blind ad." This means that the advertisement does not disclose the identity of the company or organization that is hiring. This approach is often used to attract a wider pool of candidates and prevent bias or preconceived notions based on the reputation or size of the company. It allows for a more fair and unbiased evaluation of candidates based solely on their qualifications and fit for the role.

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  • 10. 

    Every applicant’s first interview should be with:

    • A.

      The security manager director

    • B.

      The security supervisor

    • C.

      A security line employee

    • D.

      A personnel interviewer

    Correct Answer
    D. A personnel interviewer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a personnel interviewer because they are responsible for conducting initial interviews with applicants. They are trained to assess the qualifications and suitability of candidates for a particular job position. The security manager director and supervisor may be involved in the hiring process at later stages, but the initial interview is typically conducted by a personnel interviewer. The security line employee is not usually involved in the hiring process and may not have the necessary skills or experience to conduct interviews.

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  • 11. 

    The heart of personnel selection is:

    • A.

      Polygraph test

    • B.

      Review of application

    • C.

      Interview

    • D.

      Background investigation

    Correct Answer
    C. Interview
    Explanation
    The correct answer is interview because it allows employers to directly assess the qualifications, skills, and personality of the candidates. Through interviews, employers can ask specific questions to determine if the candidate is a good fit for the job and the company culture. It provides an opportunity to gauge the candidate's communication skills, problem-solving abilities, and overall suitability for the position. Additionally, interviews allow for a two-way interaction, enabling candidates to ask questions and gather information about the company.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is not recommended policy with regard to security manuals?

    • A.

      It must be updated on regular basis

    • B.

      Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it

    • C.

      The manual should be put in the hands of all regular security personnel

    • D.

      It should include procedural instructions for specific incidents

    Correct Answer
    B. Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Employee should not be allowed to have possession of it". This is because security manuals are important resources that provide guidance on security protocols and procedures. It is recommended to distribute the manual to all regular security personnel so that they have access to the necessary information. However, allowing all employees to possess the manual may increase the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of sensitive security information. Therefore, it is not recommended to allow employees to have possession of the security manual.

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  • 13. 

    Discipline is primarily the responsibility of:

    • A.

      The autocratic theory

    • B.

      The custodial theory

    • C.

      The supportive theory

    • D.

      McGregor’s “Theory X”

    Correct Answer
    A. The autocratic theory
    Explanation
    The autocratic theory suggests that discipline is primarily the responsibility of the leader or manager. This theory emphasizes strict control and authority, with the leader making all decisions and enforcing rules and regulations. In this approach, discipline is maintained through a hierarchical structure and a top-down approach to management. The leader is seen as the ultimate authority figure and is responsible for ensuring that employees follow rules and meet expectations.

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  • 14. 

    Among classical theories of human behavior in the work environment, one emphasizes negative aspects of employee behavior which is known as:

    • A.

      The autocratic theory

    • B.

      The custodial theory

    • C.

      The supportive theory

    • D.

      McGregor’s “Theory X”

    Correct Answer
    D. McGregor’s “Theory X”
    Explanation
    McGregor's "Theory X" emphasizes the negative aspects of employee behavior in the work environment. According to this theory, employees are seen as inherently lazy, unmotivated, and in need of constant supervision. It assumes that employees dislike work and will avoid it if possible, leading to the need for strict control and coercion from management. This theory suggests that employees are primarily motivated by external rewards and punishments rather than intrinsic factors.

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  • 15. 

    Among classical theories of human behavior in the work environment is one which suggests that employees do not inherently dislike work and will actually seek responsibility and better performance if encouraged to do so. It is known as:

    • A.

      McGregor’s “Theory Y”

    • B.

      McGregor’s “Theory X”

    • C.

      The supportive theory

    • D.

      The motivation theory

    Correct Answer
    A. McGregor’s “Theory Y”
    Explanation
    McGregor's "Theory Y" suggests that employees do not inherently dislike work and will actually seek responsibility and better performance if encouraged to do so. This theory assumes that employees are self-motivated, enjoy their work, and are capable of taking on responsibility. It emphasizes the importance of creating a work environment that fosters employee growth and development, and encourages managers to trust and empower their employees. This theory is in contrast to McGregor's "Theory X," which assumes that employees are inherently lazy and need to be closely controlled and motivated through external rewards and punishments.

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  • 16. 

    Dr. Frederick Herzberg developed a position that motivation comes from work itself, not from those factors such as salary and job security. This theory is known as:

    • A.

      The supportive theory

    • B.

      The work motivation theory

    • C.

      The custodial theory

    • D.

      McGregor’s “Theory X”

    Correct Answer
    B. The work motivation theory
    Explanation
    Dr. Frederick Herzberg developed the work motivation theory, which states that motivation comes from the work itself rather than external factors like salary and job security. This theory suggests that individuals are motivated by the intrinsic aspects of their work, such as the sense of achievement, recognition, and personal growth. According to Herzberg, these factors, known as motivators, are crucial for job satisfaction and employee motivation. This theory challenges the traditional belief that external rewards are the primary drivers of motivation and emphasizes the importance of creating meaningful and fulfilling work experiences for employees.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not an advantage of using in-house (career) personnel?

    • A.

      Career personnel develop a loyalty to the department

    • B.

      Career personnel tend to be more ambitious

    • C.

      There is more stability among career personnel

    • D.

      Career personnel constitute a fixed, limited cadre or pool of manpower resources

    Correct Answer
    D. Career personnel constitute a fixed, limited cadre or pool of manpower resources
    Explanation
    One of the advantages of using in-house (career) personnel is that they constitute a fixed, limited cadre or pool of manpower resources. This means that the organization can rely on a consistent and stable workforce, which can lead to better planning and allocation of resources. However, this answer states that it is not an advantage, which is incorrect. Therefore, this answer is the correct answer.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is known to be one of the disadvantages of contract security services?

    • A.

      Turnover

    • B.

      Cost

    • C.

      Manpower resource

    • D.

      Skills

    Correct Answer
    A. Turnover
    Explanation
    One of the disadvantages of contract security services is turnover. This means that there is a high rate of employees leaving the job, which can result in a lack of continuity and experience within the security team. High turnover can also lead to increased costs and time spent on recruiting and training new employees. Additionally, frequent turnover can impact the overall effectiveness and reliability of the security services provided.

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  • 19. 

    Ideally, the person who should conduct the inspection of a security department is:

    • A.

      An outside consultant

    • B.

      The second ranking person

    • C.

      The security director or security manager

    • D.

      The ranking sergeant

    Correct Answer
    C. The security director or security manager
    Explanation
    The security director or security manager should ideally conduct the inspection of a security department because they are responsible for overseeing the department's operations and ensuring compliance with security protocols and procedures. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to assess the department's performance and identify any areas that may need improvement. Additionally, as internal staff, they have a better understanding of the department's specific needs and challenges compared to an outside consultant or lower-ranking personnel.

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  • 20. 

    The process of determining the probability and cost of potential loss is known as:

    • A.

      Probability analysis

    • B.

      Risk assessment

    • C.

      Potential loss analysis

    • D.

      Physical survey

    Correct Answer
    B. Risk assessment
    Explanation
    Risk assessment is the process of evaluating and analyzing potential risks and their impact on an organization. It involves identifying potential threats, assessing their likelihood and potential consequences, and determining the cost of potential loss. This helps organizations prioritize risks and develop strategies to mitigate or manage them effectively.

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  • 21. 

    In conducting background investigations, it is good policy to:

    • A.

      Not let prospective employee know investigation is being conducted

    • B.

      Restrict investigation to “confidential” record checks

    • C.

      Restrict investigation to employment checks

    • D.

      Advise applicant of forthcoming investigation and secure his permission

    Correct Answer
    D. Advise applicant of forthcoming investigation and secure his permission
    Explanation
    It is good policy to advise the applicant of the forthcoming investigation and secure their permission. This ensures transparency and allows the applicant to be aware of the investigation being conducted on them. It also respects their rights and privacy. Additionally, obtaining the applicant's permission demonstrates professionalism and ethical conduct in the hiring process.

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  • 22. 

    The ultimate responsibility for the internal security in a department should rest with:

    • A.

      The president

    • B.

      Chairman of the board

    • C.

      Security director

    • D.

      The line supervisor

    Correct Answer
    D. The line supervisor
    Explanation
    The line supervisor should be ultimately responsible for the internal security in a department because they are directly overseeing the day-to-day operations and activities of the employees. They have a close understanding of the department's functioning and are in the best position to identify and address any security concerns or breaches. While the president, chairman of the board, and security director may have oversight roles, the line supervisor is the one who has the most immediate and direct control over the department's security measures.

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  • 23. 

    The behavioral scientist whose key concept is that every executive relates to his subordinates on the basis of a set of assumptions termed theory X and theory Y was formulated by:

    • A.

      Abraham Maslow

    • B.

      Douglas McGregor

    • C.

      Warren Bennis

    • D.

      B.F. Skinner

    Correct Answer
    B. Douglas McGregor
    Explanation
    Douglas McGregor formulated the theory X and theory Y, which are key concepts in understanding how executives relate to their subordinates. Theory X assumes that employees are inherently lazy and need to be closely monitored and controlled, while theory Y assumes that employees are motivated and can be trusted to take initiative and responsibility. McGregor's theories have had a significant impact on management practices and have influenced the way leaders interact with their teams.

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  • 24. 

    The issuance of weapons to guards is usually not justified:

    • A.

      In a situation where deterrence is needed in handling control of large amounts of cash

    • B.

      In situations in which terrorism is a real threat

    • C.

      In a situation where there would be greater danger to life safety without weapons than with them

    • D.

      In a situation where there is no danger to life safety

    Correct Answer
    D. In a situation where there is no danger to life safety
    Explanation
    Issuing weapons to guards is usually justified in situations where there is a danger to life safety. However, in a situation where there is no danger to life safety, there is no need for guards to be armed. Arming guards in such a situation may create unnecessary risks and escalate potential conflicts. Therefore, it is not justified to issue weapons to guards when there is no threat to life safety.

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  • 25. 

    In issuing policy statements regarding the handling of disturbed persons, the primary consideration is:

    • A.

      Legal liability to the disturbed

    • B.

      Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger

    • C.

      Legal liability to employees and third persons if restraint not achieved

    • D.

      Employee-community public relations

    Correct Answer
    B. Reducing the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminating the immediate danger
    Explanation
    The primary consideration in issuing policy statements regarding the handling of disturbed persons is to reduce the disturbed person to a form of benevolent custody and eliminate the immediate danger. This means that the main focus is on ensuring the safety and well-being of the disturbed person and those around them by taking necessary measures to control the situation and prevent any harm. The other options of legal liability to the disturbed, legal liability to employees and third persons, and employee-community public relations are not the primary considerations in this context.

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  • 26. 

    Spotting the individual loss events that might take place is the primary step in dealing with security vulnerability. This process is called:

    • A.

      Loss event probability

    • B.

      Threat assessment process

    • C.

      Loss event profile

    • D.

      Actual threat analysis

    Correct Answer
    C. Loss event profile
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Loss event profile." The loss event profile refers to the process of identifying and analyzing individual loss events that may occur in order to assess security vulnerabilities. This step is crucial in understanding and managing potential threats and risks. By creating a loss event profile, organizations can develop strategies to mitigate and prevent these events from happening.

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  • 27. 

    The likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events is known as:

    • A.

      Loss event probability

    • B.

      Loss event profile

    • C.

      Treat analysis control

    • D.

      Threat target control

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss event probability
    Explanation
    Loss event probability refers to the likelihood or probability of risks affecting the assets becoming actual loss events. This means that it measures the chance of potential risks actually resulting in losses. It is an important concept in risk management as it helps organizations assess and prioritize their risks based on the probability of occurrence. By understanding the loss event probability, organizations can take appropriate measures to mitigate and control these risks effectively.

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  • 28. 

    The impact or effect on the enterprise if the loss occurs is known as:

    • A.

      Loss event profile

    • B.

      Loss event probability

    • C.

      Loss event criticality

    • D.

      Security survey analysis

    Correct Answer
    C. Loss event criticality
    Explanation
    Loss event criticality refers to the impact or effect on the enterprise if a loss occurs. It assesses the severity of the loss and the potential consequences it may have on the organization. By understanding the criticality of different loss events, the enterprise can prioritize its resources and efforts towards mitigating the most significant risks. This allows for effective risk management and decision-making to minimize the impact of potential losses.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is considered to be one of the 3 basic functions of risk management?

    • A.

      Lock control

    • B.

      Barrier control

    • C.

      Disaster management

    • D.

      Loss control

    Correct Answer
    D. Loss control
    Explanation
    Loss control is considered to be one of the three basic functions of risk management. It involves implementing measures to minimize or prevent losses that may occur due to various risks. This can include implementing safety protocols, conducting risk assessments, and implementing risk mitigation strategies. Loss control aims to reduce the financial impact of losses on an organization and ensure the continuity of its operations.

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  • 30. 

    Oscar Neuman published a classic in which he presented ideas and applied strategies from the New York public housing project to aid in reducing the risk of being victimized and reducing fear of crime when on the streets. What is the name of this book?

    • A.

      Crime Prevention

    • B.

      Crime Reduction

    • C.

      Defensible Space

    • D.

      Crime in Architectural Planning

    Correct Answer
    C. Defensible Space
    Explanation
    Oscar Neuman's book, "Defensible Space," presents ideas and strategies from the New York public housing project that aim to reduce the risk of being victimized and alleviate the fear of crime while on the streets. The concept of "defensible space" refers to the design and organization of physical environments in a way that discourages criminal activity and promotes a sense of safety and security among residents. The book explores how architectural planning can contribute to crime prevention and reduction by creating spaces that are easily surveilled, clearly defined, and well-maintained.

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  • 31. 

    From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction:

    • A.

      The identity of experienced consultants

    • B.

      An effective security plan

    • C.

      An architect with knowledge of physical security

    • D.

      The building site itself

    Correct Answer
    D. The building site itself
    Explanation
    The building site itself is the first factor to be considered in facility construction from a security perspective because it sets the foundation for the overall security of the facility. Factors such as the location, accessibility, surrounding environment, and potential vulnerabilities of the site need to be assessed to determine the level of security measures required. Without a secure building site, even the most experienced consultants, effective security plan, or knowledgeable architect may not be able to mitigate security risks effectively. Therefore, the building site itself plays a crucial role in ensuring the overall security of the facility.

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  • 32. 

    A critical on-site examination and analysis of an industrial plant business, home or public or private institution to ascertain the present security status, to identify deficiencies or excesses to determine the protection needed and to make recommendations to improve the overall security is the definition of:

    • A.

      Security survey

    • B.

      Risk analysis

    • C.

      Full-field inspection

    • D.

      Crime prevention assessment

    Correct Answer
    A. Security survey
    Explanation
    A security survey refers to the process of conducting a thorough examination and analysis of a facility or institution to evaluate its current security status. This includes identifying any weaknesses or strengths in the existing security measures and determining the level of protection required. The purpose of a security survey is to make recommendations for improving the overall security of the premises. It involves assessing potential risks, vulnerabilities, and threats to ensure the safety and protection of the facility, its occupants, and assets.

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  • 33. 

    There are two generally accepted definitions of risk. There are most commonly known to risk managers and security officers as:

    • A.

      Potential risk and dynamic risk

    • B.

      Profit risk and dynamic risk

    • C.

      Potential risk and pure risk

    • D.

      Pure risk and dynamic risk

    Correct Answer
    D. Pure risk and dynamic risk
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pure risk and dynamic risk". Pure risk refers to situations where there is only a possibility of loss or no loss at all, such as natural disasters or accidents. On the other hand, dynamic risk involves situations where there is a possibility of both loss and gain, such as investing in the stock market. These two definitions are commonly used by risk managers and security officers to assess and manage different types of risks.

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  • 34. 

    The most effective deterrent to shoplifting is;

    • A.

      Highly competent and educated security officers

    • B.

      Widespread use of sensor devices

    • C.

      Well positioned CCTV’s

    • D.

      Well trained personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Well trained personnel
    Explanation
    Well trained personnel are the most effective deterrent to shoplifting because they are able to identify suspicious behavior, intervene in a timely manner, and handle situations professionally. Highly competent and educated security officers may also be effective, but without proper training, they may not know how to effectively prevent or handle shoplifting incidents. Widespread use of sensor devices and well positioned CCTV's can certainly assist in deterring shoplifting, but they are not as effective as having well trained personnel on the ground who can actively monitor and respond to potential thefts.

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  • 35. 

    A simplified answer to the question of why employees steal is:

    • A.

      Sickness in family

    • B.

      To feed drug habit

    • C.

      To live on a higher level

    • D.

      The theft triangle

    Correct Answer
    D. The theft triangle
    Explanation
    The theft triangle is a theory that suggests three factors contribute to employee theft: opportunity, pressure, and rationalization. Opportunity refers to the ease with which an employee can steal without getting caught. Pressure refers to the financial or personal stress that motivates an employee to steal. Rationalization refers to the mental justification an employee creates to convince themselves that stealing is acceptable. Therefore, the theft triangle provides a comprehensive explanation for why employees steal.

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  • 36. 

    Many experts agree that the most important deterrent to internal theft is:

    • A.

      Threat of dismissal

    • B.

      Fear of discovery

    • C.

      Threat of prosecution

    • D.

      Conscience pangs

    Correct Answer
    B. Fear of discovery
    Explanation
    The fear of discovery is considered the most important deterrent to internal theft because employees are less likely to engage in theft if they believe there is a high chance of being caught. The fear of facing consequences such as disciplinary actions, loss of job, or damage to their reputation acts as a strong deterrent for employees. This fear creates a sense of accountability and encourages employees to think twice before engaging in any dishonest behavior.

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  • 37. 

    Crime analysis is a key element in focusing the use of police ad security resources to address crime problems. Data collection and analysis are two specific steps. The other two are:

    • A.

      Inspection and discovery of facts

    • B.

      Response and feedback

    • C.

      Feedback and corrective action

    • D.

      Dissemination and feedback

    Correct Answer
    D. Dissemination and feedback
    Explanation
    Dissemination and feedback are the other two specific steps in crime analysis. Dissemination refers to the distribution or sharing of information and findings from the analysis with relevant stakeholders such as law enforcement agencies, policymakers, and the community. This helps in creating awareness about crime patterns and trends, enabling better decision-making and resource allocation. Feedback, on the other hand, involves receiving input and responses from these stakeholders, which can further inform and improve the analysis process. Both dissemination and feedback are crucial in ensuring the effectiveness and impact of crime analysis efforts.

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  • 38. 

    It is generally accepted that insurance rates are dependent upon two primary variables. These are:

    • A.

      Cost of claims and competitors rates

    • B.

      Competition among insurance companies and frequency of claims

    • C.

      Cost of claims and frequency of claims

    • D.

      Cost of claims and government regulations

    Correct Answer
    C. Cost of claims and frequency of claims
    Explanation
    Insurance rates are determined by the cost of claims and the frequency of claims. The cost of claims refers to the amount of money that insurance companies have to pay out for covered losses. Higher costs of claims will result in higher insurance rates. The frequency of claims refers to the number of claims that are filed by policyholders. Higher frequencies of claims indicate a higher likelihood of future claims, which will also result in higher insurance rates. Therefore, both the cost and frequency of claims play a significant role in determining insurance rates.

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  • 39. 

    The basic types of protection which security personnel realize as best can be described by the following:

    • A.

      Fidelity Bonds

    • B.

      Surety Bonds

    • C.

      Burglary/Robbery/Theft Insurance

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because fidelity bonds, surety bonds, and burglary/robbery/theft insurance are all types of protection that security personnel consider to be the best. Fidelity bonds provide coverage for losses resulting from employee dishonesty, surety bonds guarantee the performance of a contract or obligation, and burglary/robbery/theft insurance provides coverage for losses resulting from these specific crimes. Therefore, all three options mentioned in the question are valid types of protection that security personnel rely on.

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  • 40. 

    Bonds which require than an employee be investigated by the bonding company to limit the risk of dishonesty, and if that trust is violated, the insurance company must indemnify the employer, are called:

    • A.

      Surety Bonds

    • B.

      Fidelity Bonds

    • C.

      Insurance Bonds

    • D.

      Blanket Bonds

    Correct Answer
    B. Fidelity Bonds
    Explanation
    Fidelity bonds are a type of bond that requires an employee to be investigated by the bonding company to minimize the risk of dishonesty. If the employee violates the trust, the insurance company is obligated to compensate the employer. This type of bond is specifically designed to provide coverage for losses resulting from employee dishonesty or fraudulent acts.

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  • 41. 

    Protection for a corporation, if there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain period of time, is known as a:

    • A.

      Contract Bond

    • B.

      Blanket Bond

    • C.

      Surety Bond

    • D.

      Fiduciary Bond

    Correct Answer
    C. Surety Bond
    Explanation
    A surety bond provides protection for a corporation in case there is a failure to perform specified acts within a certain period of time. It is a contract between the corporation (principal), the party requiring the bond (obligee), and a third party (surety). The surety guarantees that the principal will fulfill their obligations, and if they fail to do so, the surety will compensate the obligee for any resulting losses. This type of bond helps to ensure that the corporation fulfills its contractual obligations and provides financial security to the obligee.

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  • 42. 

    The urban planning and design process which integrates crime prevention techniques with neighborhood design is known as:

    • A.

      Urban Development Planning

    • B.

      Conceptual Modeling in Architecture

    • C.

      Environmental Design

    • D.

      Environmental Security (E/S)

    Correct Answer
    D. Environmental Security (E/S)
    Explanation
    Environmental Security (E/S) is the correct answer because it refers to the urban planning and design process that incorporates crime prevention techniques with neighborhood design. This approach aims to create a safe and secure environment by considering factors such as lighting, landscaping, and building layout to deter criminal activities. By integrating crime prevention measures into the design of urban spaces, E/S seeks to enhance the safety and well-being of residents while promoting a sense of community and social interaction.

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  • 43. 

    The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as:

    • A.

      Natural Surveillance Techniques

    • B.

      Image and Milieu

    • C.

      Soft Area protection

    • D.

      Territoriality Cleansing

    Correct Answer
    B. Image and Milieu
    Explanation
    The ability of design to counteract the perception that the area is isolated and criminally vulnerable is known as "Image and Milieu." This refers to the use of design elements and strategies to create a positive and safe perception of an area, making it less attractive to potential criminals. By improving the visual appeal and overall atmosphere of the environment, it can enhance feelings of safety and security for residents and visitors.

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  • 44. 

    The greatest ongoing threat to any business is:

    • A.

      Shoplifting

    • B.

      Shrinkage

    • C.

      Internal Theft

    • D.

      Pilferage

    Correct Answer
    C. Internal Theft
    Explanation
    Internal theft refers to theft or unauthorized use of company resources by employees or insiders. This can include stealing inventory, embezzlement, or fraudulent activities. Internal theft poses a significant threat to businesses as it can result in financial losses, damage to reputation, and compromised security. Unlike shoplifting or pilferage, which involve external individuals, internal theft is more difficult to detect and prevent as it involves individuals with access and knowledge of the company's operations. Therefore, internal theft is considered the greatest ongoing threat to any business.

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  • 45. 

    Pilferage is defined as stealing in small quantities over a long period of time. The taking of property entrusted to someone’s care is called:

    • A.

      Mistake of fact

    • B.

      Misprison of a felony

    • C.

      Uttering

    • D.

      Embezzlement

    Correct Answer
    D. Embezzlement
    Explanation
    Embezzlement is the correct answer because it refers to the act of dishonestly taking or misappropriating funds or property entrusted to one's care. Unlike other options, such as Mistake of fact, Misprison of a felony, and Uttering, which are unrelated to the specific act of taking property entrusted to someone's care, embezzlement accurately describes the described behavior of stealing in small quantities over a long period of time.

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  • 46. 

    The theft triangle consists of the following components:

    • A.

      Desire, skill and training

    • B.

      Motivation, skill and opportunity

    • C.

      Opportunity, desire and skill

    • D.

      Motivation, opportunity and rationalization

    Correct Answer
    D. Motivation, opportunity and rationalization
    Explanation
    The correct answer is motivation, opportunity, and rationalization. These three components make up the theft triangle, which explains the factors that contribute to someone committing a theft. Motivation refers to the individual's desire or need for something that they do not possess. Opportunity refers to the chance or circumstances that enable the theft to occur. Rationalization refers to the internal justification or excuse that the individual creates to justify their actions. Together, these three factors create a conducive environment for theft to take place.

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  • 47. 

    A line item budget is the traditional and most frequently used method of budgeting. Two other commonly used budgeting techniques include:

    • A.

      Management and program budgets

    • B.

      Capital and program budgets

    • C.

      Program and exception item budgets

    • D.

      Fund allocation and capital budgets

    Correct Answer
    B. Capital and program budgets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Capital and program budgets. This means that in addition to line item budgeting, organizations also use capital and program budgets as budgeting techniques. Capital budgets focus on the allocation of funds for long-term investments, such as purchasing assets or infrastructure improvements. Program budgets, on the other hand, allocate funds specifically for different programs or projects within the organization. By using these additional budgeting techniques, organizations can ensure that they allocate funds strategically and in line with their long-term goals and objectives.

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  • 48. 

    A management tool wherein there is a systematic method of achieving agreed upon goals set in advance is known as:

    • A.

      Matrix Management

    • B.

      Proactive Management

    • C.

      Scheduling Management

    • D.

      Management by Objective

    Correct Answer
    B. Proactive Management
    Explanation
    Proactive management is a management tool that involves a systematic approach to achieving pre-established goals. It emphasizes taking initiative, anticipating problems, and implementing strategies to prevent them. This approach focuses on being proactive rather than reactive, allowing managers to identify potential issues and address them before they become significant problems. Proactive management helps organizations stay ahead of the curve, improve efficiency, and achieve their objectives effectively.

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  • 49. 

    The activity concerned with proposals for the future, an analysis of those proposals and method for achieving them is known as:

    • A.

      Effective Management

    • B.

      Evaluation Techniques

    • C.

      Planning

    • D.

      Budgeting

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning
    Explanation
    Planning is the correct answer because it involves the process of setting goals, identifying objectives, and determining the best course of action to achieve them. It includes analyzing proposals for the future and developing strategies to achieve those goals. Planning is an essential activity in management as it helps in organizing resources, making informed decisions, and ensuring that the organization is on track towards its desired outcomes.

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  • 50. 

    A key element in focusing the use of police and security resources to address crime problems is commonly called:

    • A.

      Data collection and analysis

    • B.

      Systematic evaluation of data available

    • C.

      Crime analysis

    • D.

      Analysis and feedback

    Correct Answer
    C. Crime analysis
    Explanation
    Crime analysis is the correct answer because it refers to the process of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data to identify patterns, trends, and potential solutions to crime problems. By using crime analysis, law enforcement agencies can make informed decisions about resource allocation and develop effective strategies to prevent and respond to crime. This involves gathering data, evaluating it systematically, and using the findings to inform decision-making and provide feedback on the effectiveness of interventions. Crime analysis plays a crucial role in focusing police and security resources on addressing crime problems efficiently and effectively.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 27, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Rssmc
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