RMA And CMA Quiz 2
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Which of the following is not one of the six nutrient classifications. _______________ is not a fat- soluble vitamin:
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Water
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Vitamins
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Minerals
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Vegetables
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RMA and CMA Quiz 2 assesses knowledge on nutrient classifications, fat-soluble vitamins, and specialized diets. It is designed for medical professionals and students to enhance understanding of nutritional science and dietary management.
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- 2.
_______________ is not a fat- soluble vitamin:
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Vitamin K
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Vitamin B12
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Vitamin D
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Vitamin A
Correct Answer
A. Vitamin B12Explanation
Vitamin B12 is not a fat-soluble vitamin because it is water-soluble. Fat-soluble vitamins, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, are absorbed and stored in the body's fat tissues. In contrast, water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body and are excreted through urine. Vitamin B12 plays a crucial role in the formation of red blood cells and the proper functioning of the nervous system. It is commonly found in animal products such as meat, fish, and dairy.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following choices includes all three of the vitamins that can be formed within the body?
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A, D, K
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A, B1, C
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B1, B2, B12
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E, K, C
Correct Answer
A. A, D, KExplanation
Vitamins A, D, and K can all be synthesized within the body. Vitamin A is produced from beta-carotene, which is found in certain fruits and vegetables. Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight. Vitamin K is produced by bacteria in the intestines. Therefore, the correct answer is A, D, K.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A clear liquid diet consists of the following:
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Plain gelatin
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Tea
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Black coffee
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A, B and C
Correct Answer
A. A, B and CExplanation
A clear liquid diet typically includes plain gelatin, tea, and black coffee. These options are considered clear liquids because they are transparent and do not contain any solid particles. Plain gelatin is a common choice as it is easy to digest and provides some calories. Tea and black coffee are allowed because they do not contain any milk or cream, which can add fat and protein to the diet. Therefore, the correct answer is A, B, and C.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The special needs diet most often prescribed for patients recovering from bone injury is the
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BRAT diet
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High- protein diet
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Bland diet
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Mechanical soft diet
Correct Answer
A. High- protein dietExplanation
Patients recovering from bone injury often require a high-protein diet. Protein is essential for the repair and rebuilding of damaged tissues, including bones. Adequate protein intake can help accelerate the healing process and promote bone strength. Additionally, protein is important for maintaining muscle mass, which is crucial for mobility and overall recovery. A high-protein diet can also help prevent muscle wasting and enhance the immune system, further supporting the healing process.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The “ B” in the BRAT diet is what food?
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Bran
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Broccoli
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Beans
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Bananas
Correct Answer
A. BananasExplanation
The correct answer is Bananas. The BRAT diet is a commonly recommended diet for people with upset stomachs or diarrhea. Each letter in the acronym stands for a different food that is easy to digest. The "B" in the BRAT diet stands for Bananas, which are gentle on the stomach and provide essential nutrients like potassium. Bananas are also a good source of dietary fiber, which can help regulate bowel movements and alleviate diarrhea.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The correct daily fat intake for a patient on a low- fat/ low- cholesterol diet is:
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Between 35 and 45 g
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No fat should be consumed
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Between 20 and 30 g
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Between 5 and 15 g
Correct Answer
A. Between 20 and 30 gExplanation
The correct daily fat intake for a patient on a low-fat/low-cholesterol diet is between 20 and 30 g. This range ensures that the patient is consuming an adequate amount of fat for their daily needs while still adhering to the dietary restrictions of a low-fat and low-cholesterol diet. Consuming too much fat can increase the risk of heart disease and other health problems, while consuming too little fat can lead to deficiencies in essential nutrients. Therefore, the recommended range of 20-30 g strikes a balance between these concerns.Rate this question:
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- 8.
“ Symptoms typically begin 12– 36 hours following ingestion of the bacterium and include vision problems, difficulty swallowing , nausea, and vomiting” describes:
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Bulimia
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Food allergies
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Botulism
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Trichinosis
Correct Answer
A. BotulismExplanation
The given description matches the symptoms of botulism. Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. The symptoms usually start to appear within 12-36 hours after consuming the bacteria. These symptoms include vision problems, difficulty swallowing, nausea, and vomiting. Bulimia and food allergies are not characterized by these specific symptoms. Trichinosis is a parasitic infection that causes muscle pain and swelling, not the symptoms mentioned in the description. Therefore, the correct answer is botulism.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Enables the thyroid gland to perform its function of controlling the rate at which foods are oxidized in the cells” is descriptive of:
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Minerals
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Iodine
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Vitamin B2
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Phosphorus
Correct Answer
A. IodineExplanation
Iodine is necessary for the proper functioning of the thyroid gland, which controls the rate of food oxidation in the cells. Without iodine, the thyroid gland cannot produce enough thyroid hormones, which are essential for metabolism and energy production. Therefore, iodine enables the thyroid gland to perform its function of controlling the rate at which foods are oxidized in the cells.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What vitamin enables the body to use calcium and phos-phorus in a normal way to build bones and teeth?
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C
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B12
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A
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D
Correct Answer
A. DExplanation
Vitamin D enables the body to use calcium and phosphorus in a normal way to build bones and teeth.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The practice of medicine within each state is regulated by:
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The surgeon general of the United States
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The state itself
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The American Medical Association
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The U. S. attorney general
Correct Answer
A. The state itselfExplanation
The correct answer is the state itself. The practice of medicine is regulated at the state level, with each state having its own medical board or regulatory body that sets standards and requirements for medical professionals. This includes licensing and disciplinary actions for physicians, as well as overseeing the practice of medicine within the state. The state has the authority to regulate medical practice in order to protect the health and safety of its residents.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What are the three ways medical licensure may be obtained?
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Reciprocity, registration, examination
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Registration, endorsement, examination
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Endorsement, examination, reciprocity
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Clinical demonstration, registration, examination
Correct Answer
A. Endorsement, examination, reciprocityExplanation
This answer is correct because it lists the three ways medical licensure may be obtained: endorsement, examination, and reciprocity. Endorsement refers to obtaining a license in one state based on the fact that the applicant already holds a license in another state. Examination refers to passing a standardized medical exam to demonstrate knowledge and competence. Reciprocity refers to obtaining a license in one state based on the fact that the applicant already holds a license in another state, without having to retake the examination.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Performing the correct treatment with errors is the defini-tion of:
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Malfeasance
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Misfeasance
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Nonfeasance
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Proximate cause
Correct Answer
A. MisfeasanceExplanation
Misfeasance refers to the act of performing the correct treatment but making errors while doing so. It implies that the person responsible for the treatment has taken action, but their actions were not carried out correctly, resulting in harm or negative consequences. This is different from malfeasance, which involves intentionally performing the wrong treatment, and nonfeasance, which refers to the failure to perform the necessary treatment altogether. Proximate cause, on the other hand, is a legal concept that relates to the cause-and-effect relationship between an action and its consequences.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The physician is liable for the negligent actions of anyone who works for him or her. This is the definition of what legal term?
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Proximate cause
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Standard of care
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Res judicata
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Respondeat superior
Correct Answer
A. Respondeat superiorExplanation
Respondeat superior is a legal term that holds a physician responsible for the negligent actions of their employees. This doctrine establishes that an employer is liable for the actions of their employees when those actions occur within the scope of their employment. In this case, the physician can be held legally accountable for any negligence committed by anyone working for them, ensuring that victims can seek compensation for any harm caused.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What are the three parts of a contract?
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Offer, acceptance, renegotiation
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Offer, counteroffer, acceptance
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Offer, acceptance, consideration
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Offer, refusal, consideration
Correct Answer
A. Offer, acceptance, considerationExplanation
The three parts of a contract are offer, acceptance, and consideration. An offer is a proposal made by one party to another, indicating a willingness to enter into a contract. Acceptance is the agreement by the other party to the terms of the offer. Consideration refers to something of value exchanged between the parties, such as money, goods, or services. These three elements are essential for a valid and enforceable contract.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What legislative act protects healthcare workers from liabil-ity when they provide first aid in an emergency situation?
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Good Samaritan Act
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Patients’ Bill of Rights
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Occupational Safety and Health Act
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Red Cross Act
Correct Answer
A. Good Samaritan ActExplanation
The Good Samaritan Act is a legislative act that protects healthcare workers from liability when they provide first aid in an emergency situation. This act encourages individuals to assist others in need without fear of legal repercussions. It provides legal protection to healthcare workers who act in good faith and within their scope of practice while providing emergency care. This legislation recognizes the importance of prompt and effective first aid in saving lives and promotes a culture of helping others in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Civil law is concerned with:
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Felonies and contracts
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Felonies and misdemeanors
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Torts and contracts
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Torts and misdemeanors
Correct Answer
A. Torts and contractsExplanation
Civil law is a branch of law that deals with private disputes between individuals or organizations. It focuses on resolving conflicts and providing remedies for harm caused by one party to another. Torts are civil wrongs that result in harm or injury to someone, and contracts are legally binding agreements between parties. Therefore, civil law is concerned with both torts and contracts, making "Torts and contracts" the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A healthcare professional initiates care of a patient without completing the care or finding an acceptable substitute. This is known as:
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Breach of contract
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Abandonment
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Termination of contract
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Assumption of risk
Correct Answer
A. AbandonmentExplanation
Abandonment refers to the act of a healthcare professional initiating care of a patient but then leaving without completing the care or finding a suitable replacement. This can be considered a breach of the professional's duty to provide care and can have serious consequences for the patient's health and well-being. It is important for healthcare professionals to fulfill their obligations and ensure continuity of care for their patients.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Intentionally persuading people to do things they do not want to do is known as:
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Duress
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Undue influence
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Fraud
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Breach of contract
Correct Answer
A. Undue influenceExplanation
Undue influence refers to the act of intentionally persuading or manipulating someone into doing something against their will or better judgment. It involves taking advantage of a person's vulnerability, trust, or dependence to gain control over their decision-making process. This can be done through various tactics such as emotional manipulation, coercion, or exploitation of a position of power. Unlike duress, which involves the use of threats or force, undue influence focuses on psychological manipulation and abuse of trust. Fraud and breach of contract are separate concepts that do not specifically involve the intentional persuasion of someone against their will.Rate this question:
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- 20.
__________ are ethical decisions that pertain to certain life issues.
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Biogenetics
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Bioethics
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Medi- ethics
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Genetic ethics
Correct Answer
A. BioethicsExplanation
Bioethics refers to the ethical decisions that are related to life issues, such as medical procedures, genetic research, and end-of-life care. It involves considering the moral implications and consequences of these decisions, taking into account factors such as patient autonomy, justice, and the overall well-being of individuals and society. Bioethics seeks to provide guidelines and frameworks for making ethical choices in the field of healthcare and life sciences.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Genetic engineering– related bioethical issues include:
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Artificial insemination
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Gene therapy
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In vitro fertilization
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Stem cell research
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B and D
Correct Answer
A. B and DExplanation
The correct answer is B and D. Artificial insemination and stem cell research are both related to genetic engineering and have bioethical issues associated with them. Artificial insemination involves the manipulation of genetic material to achieve pregnancy, which raises ethical concerns about the selection and manipulation of genes. Stem cell research involves the use of genetically modified cells, which raises ethical questions about the source of the cells and the potential for misuse or exploitation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Copying one cell to create a genetically identical organism is known as:
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In vitro fertilization
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Gene therapy
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Cloning
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Stem cell research— embryonic
Correct Answer
A. CloningExplanation
Cloning is the correct answer because it involves the process of creating a genetically identical organism by copying one cell. This can be done through various methods such as somatic cell nuclear transfer or cell division. Cloning has been used in scientific research and has the potential for various applications in fields like agriculture and medicine.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A physician who decides to terminate the physician- patient relationship must notify the patient in writing and address the following items:
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The date when care will no longer be provided
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The intent to terminate the relationship and why
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An offer to refer the patient to another physician
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A physician may not terminate the physician- patient relationship
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All of the above
Correct Answer
A. All of the aboveExplanation
When a physician decides to terminate the physician-patient relationship, it is important to notify the patient in writing. This notification should include the date when care will no longer be provided, the intent to terminate the relationship and the reason for it, as well as an offer to refer the patient to another physician. Therefore, all of the given items should be addressed when terminating the physician-patient relationship.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Altering or eliminating harmful genes or inserting normal genes into defective cells is known as:
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Gene therapy
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Gene manipulation
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Stem cell research
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Cloning
Correct Answer
A. Gene therapyExplanation
Gene therapy involves altering or eliminating harmful genes or inserting normal genes into defective cells. This process aims to treat genetic disorders by replacing or repairing the faulty genes responsible for the condition. It holds potential for treating a wide range of diseases, including inherited disorders and certain types of cancer. Gene manipulation refers to the alteration or manipulation of genes in general, which can include gene therapy but also encompasses other techniques such as genetic engineering. Stem cell research involves studying and using stem cells for medical purposes, while cloning is the process of creating genetically identical copies of an organism.Rate this question:
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- 25.
All but one of the following are principles of both the AMA and the AAMA Code of Ethics:
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Freedom of choice
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Responsibility to improve the community
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Continued study
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Human dignity
Correct Answer
A. Freedom of choiceExplanation
The correct answer is Freedom of choice. Both the AMA (American Medical Association) and the AAMA (American Association of Medical Assistants) Code of Ethics uphold the principles of responsibility to improve the community, continued study, and human dignity. However, freedom of choice is not a principle that is shared by both organizations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
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Ethics are difficult to enforce
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Unlawful behavior is always unethical
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Unethical behavior rarely results in a penalty
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Unethical behavior is always unlawful.
Correct Answer
A. Unethical behavior is always unlawful.Explanation
The statement "Unethical behavior is always unlawful" is incorrect because unethical behavior does not always violate the law. While some unethical actions may be illegal, there are also many unethical behaviors that are not explicitly prohibited by the law. Ethics and laws are not synonymous, as ethical standards are often subjective and vary across different cultures and contexts. Unethical behavior may not always result in a legal penalty, but it can still have negative consequences in terms of reputation, trust, and relationships.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of these is not an intentional tort?
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Fraud
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Duress
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Battery
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Shoplifting
Correct Answer
A. ShopliftingExplanation
An intentional tort refers to a deliberate act that causes harm to another person or their property. Fraud, duress, and battery all involve intentional actions that result in harm. Shoplifting, on the other hand, is not typically considered an intentional tort because it involves the act of stealing goods from a store, which is a criminal offense rather than a civil wrong. While shoplifting is intentional in nature, it is not classified as an intentional tort in the legal sense.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Physical touching of another person without the person’s consent is the definition of:
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Battery
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Assault
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Duress
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Undue influence
Correct Answer
A. BatteryExplanation
Battery is defined as the intentional and harmful or offensive physical contact with another person without their consent. It involves the actual touching of another person, which distinguishes it from assault, which is the threat or attempt to cause harm. Duress and undue influence are unrelated to physical touching and refer to coercion or manipulation in different contexts. Therefore, the correct answer is Battery.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of these is not one of the four Ds of negligence?
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Duty
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Direct cause
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Duplicity
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Dereliction of duty
Correct Answer
A. DuplicityExplanation
The four Ds of negligence are Duty, Direct cause, Dereliction of duty, and Damages. Duplicity is not one of the four Ds of negligence.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A physician’s license may be revoked or suspended for the following reasons:
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Conviction of a crime
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Refusal to accept new patien
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Unprofessional conduct
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A and C
Correct Answer
A. A and CExplanation
A physician's license may be revoked or suspended for the following reasons: conviction of a crime and unprofessional conduct. Both of these reasons demonstrate a violation of the ethical and professional standards expected of physicians. Conviction of a crime suggests that the physician's actions may have been illegal or unethical, while unprofessional conduct indicates a failure to adhere to the accepted standards of behavior within the medical profession. These violations can undermine the trust and confidence that patients place in their physicians, leading to the potential revocation or suspension of the physician's license.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The following are included in the Patients’ Bill of Rights:
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Complaints and appeals
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Information disclosure
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Confidentiality of health information
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A, B, and C
Correct Answer
A. A, B, and CExplanation
The Patients' Bill of Rights includes complaints and appeals, information disclosure, and confidentiality of health information. These rights ensure that patients have the ability to voice their concerns, receive necessary information about their healthcare, and have their personal health information kept private and secure. This protects the rights and autonomy of patients, allowing them to make informed decisions about their own healthcare and ensuring that their privacy is respected.Rate this question:
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- 32.
There are four degrees of felonies. Which is the most serious?
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First
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Second
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Third
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Fourth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The most serious degree of felony is the first degree. This is because first-degree felonies typically involve the most serious crimes and carry the harshest penalties. These crimes often include murder, rape, or large-scale drug trafficking. The severity of the crime and the potential harm caused are taken into account when determining the degree of felony.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Civil law is concerned with: a.acts b.c.d.e. Felonies and contr Felonies and contr
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Felonies and misdemeanors
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Contracts and misdemeanors
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Torts and contracts
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Torts and misdemeanors
Correct Answer
A. Torts and contractsExplanation
Civil law is concerned with torts and contracts. Torts refer to civil wrongs or injuries caused to another person or their property, which can result in a legal liability. Contracts, on the other hand, are legally binding agreements between parties that outline their rights and obligations. Therefore, civil law focuses on resolving disputes related to torts (such as personal injury cases) and contracts (such as breach of contract disputes).Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 27, 2011Quiz Created by
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