The Ultimate RDA (Registered Dental Assistant) Practice Exam

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The Ultimate RDA (Registered Dental Assistant) Practice Exam

Only the candidates who have graduated from an approved RDA educational program or the ones who have completed a dentist-licensed 15-months of satisfactory enough work experience as a dental assistant are eligible to qualify for RDA examinations. It's not an easy road but more of hard work and expertise. This test will surely help you in achieving your goal.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Buccal tubes

    • B. 

      Bracket

    • C. 

      Archwire

    • D. 

      Springs

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Archwire

    • B. 

      Ligature wire

    • C. 

      Spring

    • D. 

      Separator

  • 3. 
    __ are attached to hooks/buttons that are secured on the band/brackets
    • A. 

      Springs

    • B. 

      Tooth positioners

    • C. 

      Elastic separators

    • D. 

      Elastics

  • 4. 
    After the premature loss of a primary tooth, which special fixed appliance is worn to maintain a space for the permanent tooth
    • A. 

      Bracket

    • B. 

      Space maintainers

    • C. 

      Headgear

    • D. 

      Activator

  • 5. 
    Which removable appliance, usually worn for a specific number of hours each day, is used to apply force to move teeth, restrain or alter cranial facial bone growth, and reinforce the stability of intraoral appliances
    • A. 

      Space maintainer

    • B. 

      Headgear

    • C. 

      Activator

    • D. 

      Tooth positioner

  • 6. 
    __ means that the tooth is in a distal to normal position
    • A. 

      Linguoversion

    • B. 

      Distoversion

    • C. 

      Mesioversion

    • D. 

      Infraversion

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Torsoversion

    • B. 

      Labioversion

    • C. 

      Transversion

    • D. 

      Linguoversion

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Local factor

    • B. 

      Systemic factor

    • C. 

      Developmental factor

    • D. 

      Environmental factor

  • 9. 
    The teeth are retained in position through the process of __, which created and deposits new cells
    • A. 

      Resorption

    • B. 

      Deposition

    • C. 

      Transposition

    • D. 

      Disposition

  • 10. 
    __ are placed in the contact are between the teeth, forcing the teeth to spread to accomodate the orthodontic bands
    • A. 

      Separators

    • B. 

      Plastic rings

    • C. 

      Brackets

    • D. 

      Springs

  • 11. 
    A __ is an abnormal relationship of a tooth or a group of teeth in one arch to the opposing
    • A. 

      Underjet

    • B. 

      Cross-bite

    • C. 

      Overjet

    • D. 

      Open bite

  • 12. 
    When the vertical overlap of the maxillary teeth is greater than the incisal one third of the mandibular anterior teeth, this is termed
    • A. 

      Overjet

    • B. 

      Overbite

    • C. 

      Underjet

    • D. 

      Cross-bite

  • 13. 
    An abnormal horizontal distance between the labial surface of the mandibular anterior teeth and the lavial surface of the maxillary anterior teeth is called 
    • A. 

      Overjet

    • B. 

      Overbite

    • C. 

      Open bite

    • D. 

      Cross bite

  • 14. 
    Which of the folllowing is not considered a removable appliance
    • A. 

      Headgear

    • B. 

      Palatal expansion appliance

    • C. 

      Retainer

    • D. 

      Activator

  • 15. 
    During the __ phase, the development of various tissues takes place
    • A. 

      Morphodifferentiation

    • B. 

      Cytodifferentiation

    • C. 

      Histodifferentiation

    • D. 

      Nasolacrimal

  • 16. 
    In which week of the prenatal developemnt will the face begin to form
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      9

  • 17. 
    In the facial development phase, which stage is responsible for forming the upper portion of the face, forehead, eyes, and nose
    • A. 

      Medial nasal

    • B. 

      Mandibular process

    • C. 

      Frontonasal process

    • D. 

      Stomedeum

  • 18. 
    In the facial developmental phase, which stage is responsible for forming the cheeks, sides of the upper lip, and maxilla
    • A. 

      Medial nasal

    • B. 

      Mandibular process

    • C. 

      Frontonasal process

    • D. 

      Stomedeum

  • 19. 
    Which factors can initiate malformation in the unborn child
    • A. 

      Genetics

    • B. 

      Environment

    • C. 

      Drugs

    • D. 

      Infections

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 20. 
    Fetal alcohol symptoms (fas) in an infant are a result of the mother
    • A. 

      Contracting infections

    • B. 

      Persisting in alcohol consumptions

    • C. 

      Contracting syphilis

    • D. 

      Being exposed to measles

  • 21. 
    If a cleft lip occurs on both sides of the lip, it is called
    • A. 

      Unilateral

    • B. 

      Bilateral

    • C. 

      Complete

    • D. 

      Parkal

  • 22. 
    The first stage of the life cycle of the tooth is called
    • A. 

      Initiation

    • B. 

      Lamina

    • C. 

      Odontogenesis

    • D. 

      Proliferation

  • 23. 
    Enamel-forming cells are called
    • A. 

      Odontoblasts

    • B. 

      Cementoblasts

    • C. 

      Ameloblasts

    • D. 

      Buds

  • 24. 
    The last development stage before eruption is
    • A. 

      Initiation

    • B. 

      Calcification

    • C. 

      Attrition

    • D. 

      Proliferation

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Initiation

    • B. 

      Proliferation

    • C. 

      Calcification

    • D. 

      Attrition

  • 26. 
    The study of microscopic structure and function of tissues is 
    • A. 

      Physiology

    • B. 

      Histology

    • C. 

      Embryology

    • D. 

      Microbiology

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Dentin

    • B. 

      Cementum

    • C. 

      Enamel

    • D. 

      Lamina

  • 28. 
    Primary teeth may erupt with a covering over the enamel, called
    • A. 

      Lines of retzius

    • B. 

      Tome's process

    • C. 

      Perikymata

    • D. 

      Nasmyth's membrane

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is softer than enamel but harder than cementum and bone
    • A. 

      Dentin

    • B. 

      Fibroblast

    • C. 

      Osteoblast

    • D. 

      Osteoclast

  • 30. 
    __ tubules pass through the entire surface of the dentin
    • A. 

      Tertiary

    • B. 

      Mantle

    • C. 

      Circumpulpal

    • D. 

      Dentinal

  • 31. 
    The most pronounced stained contour line, which occurs due to the trauma of birth, is 
    • A. 

      Imbrication

    • B. 

      Contour

    • C. 

      Apposition

    • D. 

      Neonatal

  • 32. 
    The pulp is partially made from __, cells from which connective tissue evolves
    • A. 

      Pulpitis

    • B. 

      Dentinal

    • C. 

      Collagen

    • D. 

      Fibroblasts

  • 33. 
    The the pulp is damaged due to an injury, the tissue may become inflamed, causing
    • A. 

      Dentinal hypersensitivity

    • B. 

      Pulpitis

    • C. 

      Dysplasia

    • D. 

      Fibroblasts

  • 34. 
    The __ consists of portions of the tooth structure, supporting hard and soft dental tissues, and the alveolar bone
    • A. 

      Enamel

    • B. 

      Dentin

    • C. 

      Periodontium

    • D. 

      Cementum

  • 35. 
    The collagen fibers that act as anchors between the alveolar bone and teeth are called
    • A. 

      Lines of owen

    • B. 

      Lines of von ebner

    • C. 

      Sharpey's fibers

    • D. 

      Tome's process

  • 36. 
    The bones of the mandible and maxilla are formed by
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Alveolus

    • D. 

      Lamina

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Osteoblasts

    • B. 

      Osteoclasts

    • C. 

      Alveolus

    • D. 

      Lamina

  • 38. 
    The tooth-bearing extended areas of bone in each arch are called the
    • A. 

      Alveolar crest

    • B. 

      Alveolus

    • C. 

      Alveolar process

    • D. 

      Lamina dura

  • 39. 
    At the __, two coritical bone plates come together between each tooth
    • A. 

      Alveolar crest

    • B. 

      Alveolus

    • C. 

      Alveolar process

    • D. 

      Lamina dura

  • 40. 
    On a dental radiograph, the radiopaque line, or __, represents the thin, compact alveolus bone lining the socket
    • A. 

      Alveolar crest

    • B. 

      Periodontal ligament

    • C. 

      Alveolar process

    • D. 

      Lamina dura

  • 41. 
    The periodontal ligament, like all connective tissue, is formed by __ cells
    • A. 

      Odontoblasts

    • B. 

      Fibroblasts

    • C. 

      Osteoblasts

    • D. 

      Osteoclasts

  • 42. 
    __ mucosa flows into the tissue of the cheeks, lips, and inside the floor of the mandible
    • A. 

      Circular

    • B. 

      Alveolar

    • C. 

      Oblique

    • D. 

      Apical

  • 43. 
    Free gingiva is also known as 
    • A. 

      Interdental

    • B. 

      Epithlial

    • C. 

      Attatched

    • D. 

      Marginal

  • 44. 
    The mucogingival junction is the line of demarcation between the __ gingiva and __ mucosa
    • A. 

      Free, dentinal

    • B. 

      Attached, alveolar

    • C. 

      Interdental, alveolar

    • D. 

      Sulcus, dentinal

  • 45. 
    The space between the unattached gingiva and the tooth is the 
    • A. 

      Attached gingiva

    • B. 

      Marginal gingiva

    • C. 

      Interdental gingiva

    • D. 

      Gingival sulcus

  • 46. 
    In the floor of the gingival sulcus, the __ attachment attaches to the enamel surface of the teeth
    • A. 

      Sulcus

    • B. 

      Marginal

    • C. 

      Interdental

    • D. 

      Epithelial

  • 47. 
    In a healthy mouth, the gingival sulcus space would not exceed __ millimeters in depth
    • A. 

      2-3

    • B. 

      3-4

    • C. 

      4-5

    • D. 

      2-4

  • 48. 
    Which dentistry specialty deals with the recognition, prevention, and treatment of malalignment and irregularities of the teeth, jaws, and face
    • A. 

      Endodontics

    • B. 

      Radiology

    • C. 

      Oral pathology

    • D. 

      Orthodontics

  • 49. 
    The orthodontic team consists of the
    • A. 

      Dentist

    • B. 

      Receptionist and business staff

    • C. 

      Laboratory technician

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 50. 
    Which orthodontic team members may pour and trim diagnostic models and construct orthodontic appliances
    • A. 

      Laboratory technician

    • B. 

      Orthodontic assistant

    • C. 

      Office coordinator

    • D. 

      Business office staff

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is an ideal occlusion relationship
    • A. 

      Transversion of on tooth

    • B. 

      Labial or buccal version toward the lip

    • C. 

      Maxillary and mandibular teeth are in maximum contact and normally spaced

    • D. 

      Infraversion in the arch

  • 52. 
    The established system for classifying malocclusion is called __ classification
    • A. 

      Transversion

    • B. 

      Angle's

    • C. 

      Pasteur's

    • D. 

      Interceptive

  • 53. 
    A common treatment considered preventive or interceptive
    • A. 

      Treatment of adults

    • B. 

      Treatment of children in the last stage of mixed dentition

    • C. 

      Treatment of children entering full dentition

    • D. 

      Extraction of teeth to prevent overcrowding

  • 54. 
    Common treatments that fall under corrective orthodontics include which of the following
    • A. 

      Braces

    • B. 

      Bands

    • C. 

      Retainers

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 55. 
    The process that allows teeth to be moved by eliminating tissue no longer needed by the body is called
    • A. 

      Deposition

    • B. 

      Resorption

    • C. 

      Buccoversion

    • D. 

      Linguoversion

  • 56. 
    __ is an example of fixed orthodontic appliance
    • A. 

      Retainer

    • B. 

      Braces

    • C. 

      Headgear

    • D. 

      Activator

  • 57. 
    Which fixed appliance is either welded to the bands or bonded directly to the teeth
    • A. 

      Band

    • B. 

      Bracket

    • C. 

      Buccal tube

    • D. 

      Ligature wire

  • 58. 
    Which specialty practice provides dental care for children and the compromised child patient
    • A. 

      Orthdontics

    • B. 

      Pedodontics

    • C. 

      Endodontics

    • D. 

      General dentistry

  • 59. 
    Which treatment room area is designed with several chairs arranged in a single open area
    • A. 

      Quiet room

    • B. 

      Prevention room

    • C. 

      Open bay

    • D. 

      Reading room

  • 60. 
    Fear is a major factor in children's behavior problems. objective fears are based on 
    • A. 

      Suggestions from others

    • B. 

      Concerns developed from others

    • C. 

      Attitudes from others

    • D. 

      The child's experience

  • 61. 
    A behavior management technique called __ consists of telling the child the name of the instruments, showing it to the child, and then demonstrating how it is used
    • A. 

      Voice control

    • B. 

      Subjective

    • C. 

      Nonverbal

    • D. 

      Tell, show, and do

  • 62. 
    The __ behavior management technique pairs a timid child in the dental chair with a cooperative child or similar age
    • A. 

      Positive reinforcement

    • B. 

      Distraction

    • C. 

      Modeling

    • D. 

      Nonverbal communications

  • 63. 
    Children who are involved in contact sports should be fitted for
    • A. 

      Fixed spaced maintainers

    • B. 

      Removable space maintainers

    • C. 

      Dental matrices

    • D. 

      Mouth guards

  • 64. 
    Behavior modifications is sometimes necessary. fixed appliances, such as cribs and rakes, are used to prevent 
    • A. 

      Thumb sucking

    • B. 

      Tongue thrust

    • C. 

      Modeling

    • D. 

      Pulpotomy

  • 65. 
    Which custom matrix is designed and used on primary teeth
    • A. 

      T-band

    • B. 

      Tofflemire

    • C. 

      Space maintainer

    • D. 

      Staineless steel crown

  • 66. 
    Which custom made matrix bands are used on primary teeth for class 2 restoration
    • A. 

      T-band

    • B. 

      Tofflemire

    • C. 

      Spot-welded

    • D. 

      Stainless steel crown

  • 67. 
    If the pulp has been exposed through mechanical of traumatic means but there is a chance for a favorable response, which procedure is a medicated
    • A. 

      Direct pulp capping

    • B. 

      Pulpotomy

    • C. 

      Apexogenesis

    • D. 

      Pulpectomy

  • 68. 
    For the young permanent teeth, a pulpotomy maintains pulp vitality and allows enough time for the root end to develop and close. in these cases, the treatment is called
    • A. 

      Direct pulp capping

    • B. 

      Pulpectomy

    • C. 

      Apexogenesis

    • D. 

      Avulsed

  • 69. 
    Which procedure involves the complete removal of the dental pulp
    • A. 

      Pulpectomy

    • B. 

      Apexogenesis

    • C. 

      Pulpotomy

    • D. 

      Pulp capping

  • 70. 
    Which condition occurs when the teeth are forcibly driven into the alveolus so the only a portion of the crown is visible
    • A. 

      Displaced tooth

    • B. 

      Avulsed tooth

    • C. 

      Traumatic intrusion

    • D. 

      Apexogensis

  • 71. 
    When a tooth has been completely removed from the mouth, it is called
    • A. 

      Displaced

    • B. 

      Traumatic intrusion

    • C. 

      Apexogenesis

    • D. 

      Avulsed

  • 72. 
    Dentists should report suspicious signs of child abuse to a 
    • A. 

      Social service agency

    • B. 

      Local police department

    • C. 

      Child protective services

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 73. 
    Which of the following apply to sealants
    • A. 

      Prevent tooth decay

    • B. 

      Reduce tooth decay

    • C. 

      Both a & b

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 74. 
    Sealants are placed and the patient is instructed to have them checked once every
    • A. 

      2 years

    • B. 

      6 months - a year

    • C. 

      5 years

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 75. 
    The enamel surface is etched in preparation for sealant. application time varies from
    • A. 

      30 - 60 seconds

    • B. 

      30 -90 seconds

    • C. 

      5 minutes

    • D. 

      15- 30 seconds

  • 76. 
    __ sealant material is known as self cure or auto polymerization
    • A. 

      Light-cured

    • B. 

      Chemically cured

    • C. 

      Surgical

    • D. 

      Mechanical

  • 77. 
    The height of holding the curing light is __ mm directly above the occlusal surface
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      8

  • 78. 
    Keeping the sealant procedure area dry is accomplished by
    • A. 

      Asking the patient to keep the tongue still

    • B. 

      Placing cotton rolls on both the buccal and lingual of the mandibular

    • C. 

      Placing cotton rolls on the buccal of the maxillary

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 79. 
    The purpose and use of the dri-angles is to
    • A. 

      Reduce saliva flow

    • B. 

      Assist in retracting the tongue

    • C. 

      Both a and b

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 80. 
    The ADA represents
    • A. 

      Hygienists

    • B. 

      Assistants

    • C. 

      Dentist

    • D. 

      Laboratory technician

  • 81. 
    The ADAA represents
    • A. 

      Hygienists

    • B. 

      Assistants

    • C. 

      Dentists

    • D. 

      Laboratory technician

  • 82. 
    An endodontist handles
    • A. 

      Oral care in children

    • B. 

      Removal of 3rd molars

    • C. 

      Root canal therapy

    • D. 

      Removal of calculus

  • 83. 
    Orthodontics is the specialty of performing
    • A. 

      Root canal therapy

    • B. 

      Straightening of the teeth

    • C. 

      Extraction of 3rd molars

    • D. 

      Treatment of surrounding tissues

  • 84. 
    Pediatric dentistry is the specialty concerned with
    • A. 

      Geriatric patients

    • B. 

      Extraction of 3rd molars

    • C. 

      Oral care of children

    • D. 

      Straightening teeth with braces

  • 85. 
    The specialty concerned with the diagnosis and treatment of the diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissues of the tooth is
    • A. 

      Endodontics

    • B. 

      Orthodontics

    • C. 

      Periodontics

    • D. 

      Pediatric dentistry

  • 86. 
    Which of the following is not considered an auxiliary personnel member
    • A. 

      Dental assistant

    • B. 

      Dental hygienist

    • C. 

      Dental service technician

    • D. 

      Dental receptionist

  • 87. 
    Dental assistants should be aware of a patient demonstrating nonverbal communication. which of the following expressions are considered nonverbal communication
    • A. 

      Facial expressions

    • B. 

      Tightening of hands on the chair arm

    • C. 

      Muffled noise made by the patient

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 88. 
    The office HIPAA manual must include a job description for each employee
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 89. 
    The office manual must have a HIPAA plan with dates of training for each employees
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 90. 
    In order to maintain security of personal health information, locks must be placed on all cabinets in the dental office
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 91. 
    The dental office does not have a right to charge for copying and transferring patient information
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    The area of law that governs dentistry is
    • A. 

      Civil law

    • B. 

      Criminal law

    • C. 

      Dental jurisprudence

    • D. 

      Common law

  • 93. 
    The area of law that clearly defines moral judgement is
    • A. 

      Civil law

    • B. 

      Criminal law

    • C. 

      Common law

    • D. 

      Ethics

  • 94. 
    In each state, what is enacted by each legislative body to make rules and regulations
    • A. 

      State board of dentistry

    • B. 

      Statutes

    • C. 

      Dental practice act

    • D. 

      Reciprocity

  • 95. 
    What gives state guidelines for eligibility for licensing and identifies the grounds by which the license can be suspended or repealed
    • A. 

      Dental jurisprudence

    • B. 

      Dental practice act

    • C. 

      State board of dentistry

    • D. 

      Statutes

  • 96. 
    Delegated functions that require increased responsibility and skill are called
    • A. 

      Expanded function

    • B. 

      Dental jurisprudence

    • C. 

      Laws

    • D. 

      Contracts

  • 97. 
    In some states, an individual who has passed the requirements for one state may apply for a __ agreement in another state to be allowed to perform dental skills without retaking a written or clinical exam
    • A. 

      Contract

    • B. 

      Consent

    • C. 

      Reciprocity

    • D. 

      Malpractice

  • 98. 
    Expanded functions are specific advanced functions that require increased skill and responsibility. like all functions that the auxillary performs, the expanded functions fall under the __, which means let the master answer
    • A. 

      American dental association

    • B. 

      Dental practice act

    • C. 

      Good samaritan law

    • D. 

      Doctrine of respondeat superior

  • 99. 
    Binding agreement between 2 or more people is called
    • A. 

      Contract

    • B. 

      Informed consent

    • C. 

      Implied consent

    • D. 

      Tort

  • 100. 
    Contract that can be written or verbal and that describes specifically what each party in the contract will do is called
    • A. 

      Informed consent

    • B. 

      Expressed contract

    • C. 

      Breach of contract

    • D. 

      Termination contract

  • 101. 
    The __ is the enforcement authority for transactions, code set indentifiers, and securtiy, 
    • A. 

      PHI

    • B. 

      CDT

    • C. 

      CMS

    • D. 

      HHS

  • 102. 
    • A. 

      Noncompliance

    • B. 

      Due care

    • C. 

      Negligence

    • D. 

      Abandonment

  • 103. 
    The dentist and the dental team members have the responsibility and duty to perform due care in treating all patients. failure to do this is called
    • A. 

      Assault

    • B. 

      Sufficient care

    • C. 

      Malpractice

    • D. 

      Abandonment

  • 104. 
    Tort law protects an individual from causing injury to another person's reputation, name, or character. this injury is called
    • A. 

      Invasion of privacy

    • B. 

      Defamation of character

    • C. 

      Assault and battery

    • D. 

      Fraud

  • 105. 
    The area of law covering any wrongful act that is a breach in due care, and where injury has resulted from the action is called
    • A. 

      Malpractice

    • B. 

      Ethics

    • C. 

      Civil law

    • D. 

      Torts

  • 106. 
    If a child refused treatment and the dental personnel threatened and restrained the child without parental consent, what charges could be brought
    • A. 

      Civil law

    • B. 

      Criminal law

    • C. 

      Assault and battery

    • D. 

      Invasion of privacy

  • 107. 
    General term for the situation in which care is given without intent to do bodily harm and without compensation for this care is called
    • A. 

      The americans with disabilities act

    • B. 

      Invasion of privacy

    • C. 

      Doctrine of respondeat superior

    • D. 

      Good samaritan act

  • 108. 
    What national mandate stipulates that individuals must not be discriminated against because of their disabilities
    • A. 

      American dental association principles of ethics

    • B. 

      Satute of limitation

    • C. 

      Americans with disabilities act

    • D. 

      Doctrine of repondeat superior

  • 109. 
    Each patient has the right to know and understand any procedure that is performed. the form patients sign that indicates they understand and accept treatment is called
    • A. 

      An expressed contract

    • B. 

      Implied contract

    • C. 

      Informed consent

    • D. 

      Implied consent

  • 110. 
    When a dentist sits down and the patient opens his or her mouth, what type of consent does this indicate
    • A. 

      Informed

    • B. 

      Implied contract

    • C. 

      Implied

    • D. 

      Expressed contract

  • 111. 
    In the dental care setting, what is the most frequently exercised law
    • A. 

      Civil

    • B. 

      Criminal

    • C. 

      Common

    • D. 

      Ethics

  • 112. 
    In accordance with the health insurance portability and accountability act of 1996, if any part of the dental office chooses to transmit any transactions electronically they fall under the __ act
    • A. 

      Ada

    • B. 

      Hhs

    • C. 

      Phi

    • D. 

      Hipaa

  • 113. 
    In a dental office, patient records need to be protected. which of the following is considered identifiable information and protected by PHI
    • A. 

      Post op instructions

    • B. 

      Name

    • C. 

      Aseptic techniques

    • D. 

      Birth date

    • E. 

      Telephone conversations

    • F. 

      Telephone numbers

  • 114. 
    HIPAA requires that the dental patient receive written notice of information practices, and an accounting of disclosures. the __ officer provides information to the patient about individual rights and how information may be used
    • A. 

      Civil rights

    • B. 

      Privacy

    • C. 

      Information

    • D. 

      Public

  • 115. 
    The circulatory body system carries life sustaining substances such as nutrients and oxygen throughout the body
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 116. 
    Anatomy means the study of body structure
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 117. 
    Physiology is the study of how the body functions
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 118. 
    The sagittal plane divides the body into upper and lower sections
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    The frontal plane divides the body into left and right halves
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 120. 
    The dorsal cavity is in the anterior portion of the body
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 121. 
    Cancellous bone consists of a meshwork of interconnecting bone called trabeculae
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 122. 
    __ refers to the part of the body closet to the point of attachment
    • A. 

      Inferior

    • B. 

      Superior

    • C. 

      Dorsal

    • D. 

      Proximal

  • 123. 
    Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right halves
    • A. 

      Frontal

    • B. 

      Transverse

    • C. 

      Horizontal

    • D. 

      Sagittal

  • 124. 
    Which of the following planes divides the body into front and back sections
    • A. 

      Transverse

    • B. 

      Frontal

    • C. 

      Mid-sagittal

    • D. 

      Sagittal

  • 125. 
    The dorsal cavity comprises the spinal cavity and the
    • A. 

      Thoracic cavity

    • B. 

      Abdominal cavity

    • C. 

      Pelvic cavity

    • D. 

      Cranial cavity

  • 126. 
    The basic unit of all biological systems and the smallest functioning unit of the body is called a
    • A. 

      Cell

    • B. 

      Tissue

    • C. 

      Organ

    • D. 

      Muscle

  • 127. 
    The sterilization area of the dental office should be near the treatment room
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 128. 
    Dental treatment rooms are also called operatories
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 129. 
    A reclined position with the nose and knees on the same plane may be called a supine position
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 130. 
    The decor of which of the following rooms should be changed as often as needed to keep the atmosphere friendly and positive for patients as they enter the dental office
    • A. 

      Restroom

    • B. 

      Dentist's private office

    • C. 

      Reception room

    • D. 

      Sterilizing area

  • 131. 
    The dental business office may include which of the following
    • A. 

      Appointment scheduling

    • B. 

      Filing system

    • C. 

      Toothbrush center

    • D. 

      Computer terminals

    • E. 

      Patient records

  • 132. 
    • A. 

      Turn on the master switches, lights, dental units, vacuum system, and air compressor

    • B. 

      Turn off the water supply to the manual processing tanks

    • C. 

      Change into appropriate clinical clothing ad follow OSHA guidelines

    • D. 

      Turn on the communication systems

  • 133. 
    The __ should be well ventilated because of chemical fumes and exhaust from equipment
    • A. 

      Reception area

    • B. 

      Business area

    • C. 

      Treatment room

    • D. 

      Sterilizing room

  • 134. 
    Dental stools for staff should be made available that provide and meet which of the following requirements
    • A. 

      Fixed back rest for vertical adjustment

    • B. 

      Good support, comfort

    • C. 

      Fixed back rest to support lumbar region

    • D. 

      Thin seat

  • 135. 
    One characteristic of good assistant positions is
    • A. 

      Good visibility 4-6 inches above the operator

    • B. 

      That the front edge of the assistant stool is even with the patient's elbow

    • C. 

      That the assistant's feet are touching the floor

    • D. 

      That the assistant is positioned on the stool so that weight is on outside edge of seat

  • 136. 
    The special needs patient is defined as a 
    • A. 

      Child patient

    • B. 

      Pregnant patient

    • C. 

      Hearing impaired patient

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 137. 
    Smooth transfer of instruments and materials occurs when the assistant is able to anticipate the operator's needs
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 138. 
    The assistant passes and receives instruments with the right hand when working with a right handed dentist
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 139. 
    Using one hand for instrument transfer frees the other hand for evacuation
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 140. 
    The reverse palm thumb grasp is sometimes called the thumb to nose grasp
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 141. 
    The way an instrument is grasped also dictates how it is exchanged
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 142. 
    The pen grasp is used to hold instruments that have straight shanks
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 143. 
    The modified pen grasp provides more control and strength in some procedures
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 144. 
    Proper instrument transfer is accomplished when which of the following is maintained
    • A. 

      The operator's view remains on the oral cavity

    • B. 

      Safety and comfort are maintained for the patient

    • C. 

      Stress and fatigue for the operator and the assistant are reduced

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 145. 
    Selecting the correct instrument grasp allows
    • A. 

      The operator control of the instrument

    • B. 

      Greater tactile sensation for the operator

    • C. 

      Reduced fatigue for the operator

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 146. 
    • A. 

      The fingers always rest on the occlusal surface

    • B. 

      The evacuator tip is placed approximately one tooth distal to the tooth being worked on

    • C. 

      The bevel of the tip is held parallel to buccal or lingual surface of the teeth

    • D. 

      The bevel of the tip is parallel to the apex surface of the teeth

    • E. 

      The opening should be even with the occlusal surface

    • F. 

      The primary working end should always be placed toward the cheek

  • 147. 
    Name the grasp type when the instrument is held between the pad of the index finger, with the side of the middle finger on the opposite side of the thumb
    • A. 

      Reverse palm thumb

    • B. 

      Palm

    • C. 

      Pen

    • D. 

      Thumb to nose

  • 148. 
    The __ grasp is used to hold instruments that have angled shanks
    • A. 

      Thumb to nose

    • B. 

      Modified pen

    • C. 

      Pen

    • D. 

      Palm

  • 149. 
    The two handed transfer is used for which of the following procedure
    • A. 

      Surgical forceps

    • B. 

      Air water syringe

    • C. 

      Dental handpiece

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 150. 
    • A. 

      Reverse palm thumb

    • B. 

      Modified pen

    • C. 

      Palm thumb

    • D. 

      Pen

  • 151. 
    An example of shearing stress and strain is __, or grinding of the teeth
    • A. 

      Dimensional change

    • B. 

      Corrosion

    • C. 

      Tarnish

    • D. 

      Bruxism

  • 152. 
    Which of the following is not a type of stress and strain
    • A. 

      Tensile

    • B. 

      Dimensional

    • C. 

      Compressive

    • D. 

      Shearing

  • 153. 
    The ability of a material to withstand compressive stresses without fracture is known as
    • A. 

      Malleability

    • B. 

      Ductility

    • C. 

      Palliative

    • D. 

      Viscosity

  • 154. 
    __ is the result of chemical or electrochemical reactions with pure metal in the oral environment, causing deep pitting and roughness
    • A. 

      Tarnishing

    • B. 

      Corrosion

    • C. 

      Shearing

    • D. 

      Ductility

  • 155. 
    __ is the physical property of being capable of distortion or deformation by an applied force, and then returning to the original shape once the force is removed
    • A. 

      Flow

    • B. 

      Retention

    • C. 

      Elasticity

    • D. 

      Solubility

  • 156. 
    __, or creep and slump, is continuous deformation of a solid
    • A. 

      Flow

    • B. 

      Elasticity

    • C. 

      Solubility

    • D. 

      Ductility

  • 157. 
    Change in dental material may result from various causes. all of the following are causes of dimensional change except
    • A. 

      Tarnish

    • B. 

      Setting process

    • C. 

      Exposure to cold

    • D. 

      Exposure to heat

  • 158. 
    Seepage of saliva and debris from the oral cavity between the tooth structure and the restorative materials called
    • A. 

      Flow

    • B. 

      Ductility

    • C. 

      Malleability

    • D. 

      Microleakage

  • 159. 
    The ability of a material to transmit heat is called
    • A. 

      Dimensional change

    • B. 

      Microleakage

    • C. 

      Thermal conductivity

    • D. 

      Stress and stain

  • 160. 
    Which property may take a dental material useful as a base or liner where it is not exposed to the oral fluid
    • A. 

      Viscosity

    • B. 

      Solubility

    • C. 

      Wettability

    • D. 

      Galvanism

  • 161. 
    Materials that are placed directly in the cavity preparation (direct restorative materials) are kept in place by
    • A. 

      Chemical retention

    • B. 

      Mechanical retention

    • C. 

      Viscosity

    • D. 

      Stress and stain

  • 162. 
    Thicker the material, the less it flows; therefore, it is said to be more __ than a thin material that flows easily
    • A. 

      Viscous

    • B. 

      Wettable

    • C. 

      Luting

    • D. 

      Soluble

  • 163. 
    The ability of a material to flow over a surface is called
    • A. 

      Viscosity

    • B. 

      Wettability

    • C. 

      Luting

    • D. 

      Solubility

  • 164. 
    Dental cements are mixed to a precise ratio. zinc phosphate cement has reached the __ stage when the material follows the spatula about 1 inch above the mixing slab
    • A. 

      Luting

    • B. 

      Base

    • C. 

      Liner

    • D. 

      Putty

  • 165. 
    __ is placed as a thin layer on the walls and floor of cavity preparation to protect the pulp from bacteria and irritants
    • A. 

      Base

    • B. 

      Liner

    • C. 

      Cement

    • D. 

      Varnish

  • 166. 
    Bases are applied between the tooth and the restoration to protect the pulp. however, bases will not protect the pulp from
    • A. 

      Chemical irritation

    • B. 

      Temperature change

    • C. 

      Sedation (of the pulp itself)

    • D. 

      Mechanical injury

  • 167. 
    One of the oldest cements, which comes in a powder/liquid form and is a luting and base cement, is called 
    • A. 

      Zinc oxide eugenol

    • B. 

      Polycarboxylate

    • C. 

      Glass ionomer

    • D. 

      Zinc phosphate

  • 168. 
    When zinc phosphate powder and liquid are mixed, a chemical reaction ocurs and heat is released. the reation is called
    • A. 

      Exothermic

    • B. 

      Viscosity

    • C. 

      Light cure

    • D. 

      Mechanical

  • 169. 
    Glass ionomer material has the following properties, except that is 
    • A. 

      Mechanically bonds to tooth structure

    • B. 

      Chemically bonds to tooth structure

    • C. 

      Has nonirritating qualities

    • D. 

      Comes with a solvent

  • 170. 
    Bonding agents bond to all of the following except
    • A. 

      Varnish

    • B. 

      Enamel

    • C. 

      Dentin

    • D. 

      Pocelain

  • 171. 
    Which cement is said to be kind to the pulp and was the first cement that could chemically bond to the tooth structure
    • A. 

      Composite

    • B. 

      Polycarboxylate

    • C. 

      Amalgam

    • D. 

      Mechanical

  • 172. 
    Adhesion of dental materials to enamel is accomplished by
    • A. 

      Dimensional change

    • B. 

      Acid etching

    • C. 

      Exothermic reaction

    • D. 

      Mechanical reaction

  • 173. 
    The __ layer of debris prevents contact between intact dentin and the bonding agent/adhesive
    • A. 

      Smear

    • B. 

      Liner

    • C. 

      Microleakage

    • D. 

      Sedative

  • 174. 
    The angle that is formed by the junction of the wall of the preparation and the untouched surface of the tooth is called the
    • A. 

      Line angle

    • B. 

      Axial wall

    • C. 

      Cavosurface margin

    • D. 

      Pulpal floor

  • 175. 
    Trituration is the __ means of combining dental alloy and mercury
    • A. 

      Mechanical

    • B. 

      Chemical

    • C. 

      Light cure

    • D. 

      Self cure

  • 176. 
    Which material dominates the field of aesthetic restorations
    • A. 

      Glass ionomer

    • B. 

      Composite

    • C. 

      Bonding agents

    • D. 

      Polycarboxylate

  • 177. 
    Materials to prepare the teeth for the restoration include which of the following
    • A. 

      Amalgam

    • B. 

      Bases

    • C. 

      Composite

    • D. 

      Bonding agents

    • E. 

      Microfill composites

    • F. 

      Cements

  • 178. 
    __ dental cement cures by a chemical reaction between two materials
    • A. 

      Self curing

    • B. 

      Light curing

    • C. 

      Noncuring

    • D. 

      Heat-curing

  • 179. 
    __ material is used with endodontic spots
    • A. 

      Self curing

    • B. 

      Light curing

    • C. 

      Noncuring

    • D. 

      Heat curing

  • 180. 
    A __ is used to condense the base into place on the floor of the cavity
    • A. 

      Explorer

    • B. 

      Spoon excavator

    • C. 

      Plastic filling

    • D. 

      Large spoon excavator

  • 181. 
    • A. 

      Cover floor of cavity preparation

    • B. 

      Cavosurface margin

    • C. 

      Leave enough room for restoration

    • D. 

      Occlusal margin

    • E. 

      Should not be on pins

    • F. 

      Convenience form

    • G. 

      Should not be in retentive grooves

    • H. 

      Outline form

  • 182. 
    A thin layer of cavity varnish is placed on the dentin. the cavity varnish must dry __ seconds before placing a second layer
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      60

  • 183. 
    Cavity liners are placed on the __ of the cavity preparation
    • A. 

      Occlusal line angle

    • B. 

      Deepest portion

    • C. 

      Axial wall

    • D. 

      Gingival wall

  • 184. 
    Which dental dam instrument has a working end that is a sharp projection used to provide holes in the dam
    • A. 

      Clamp

    • B. 

      Punch

    • C. 

      Forceps

    • D. 

      Pliers

  • 185. 
    Dental dam clamps are designed to be used on a specific teeth. one of the basic parts of the clamp is the arched metal joining the two jaws of the clamp together, called the
    • A. 

      Points

    • B. 

      Wings

    • C. 

      Bow

    • D. 

      Hole

  • 186. 
    Scissors are used to cut the __ during removal of the dam from the patient's mouth
    • A. 

      Stabilizing cord

    • B. 

      Interseptal

    • C. 

      Face napkin

    • D. 

      Floss

  • 187. 
    There are many advantages to using the dental dam, but certain conditions contraindicate its use. which of the following are contraindications
    • A. 

      Provides greater visibility

    • B. 

      Latex allergies

    • C. 

      Respiratory congestion

    • D. 

      Herpetic lesions

    • E. 

      Retracts tongue

    • F. 

      Provide greater accessibility

  • 188. 
    The most commonly used matrix in an amalgam restoration is the
    • A. 

      Strip

    • B. 

      Shell

    • C. 

      Tofflemire

    • D. 

      Automatrix

  • 189. 
    The __ matrix is used without a retainer for an amalgam restoration
    • A. 

      Strip

    • B. 

      Shell

    • C. 

      Tofflemire

    • D. 

      Automatrix

  • 190. 
    Which part of the tofflemire matrix retainer holds the ends of the matrix band in place in the diagonal slot
    • A. 

      Spindle

    • B. 

      Vise

    • C. 

      Guide channels

    • D. 

      Inner knob

  • 191. 
    After the tofflemire matrix is assembled and positioned on the tooth, the band of the matrix should extend more than __ mm beyond the gingival margin
    • A. 

      2.0

    • B. 

      1.0

    • C. 

      1.75

    • D. 

      3.0

  • 192. 
    The sectional matrix system is most often used on class 2 restorations, and is __ than a tofflemire system
    • A. 

      Thicker

    • B. 

      Thinner

    • C. 

      Clearer

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 193. 
    On anterior teeth when the incisal edge is involved, a class 5 __ type matrix is used to restore the tooth
    • A. 

      Stainless steel

    • B. 

      Crown form

    • C. 

      Celluloid matrix strip

    • D. 

      Sectional

  • 194. 
    The sectional matrix system benefits tooth contour by
    • A. 

      Restoring anatomic contacts

    • B. 

      Stabilizing matrix

    • C. 

      Producing tight contact

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 195. 
    Plastic matrix strip is used with which material
    • A. 

      Composite

    • B. 

      Glass ionomer

    • C. 

      Compomer

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 196. 
    Plastic matrix strip can be made of any of the following except
    • A. 

      Tinting

    • B. 

      Nylon

    • C. 

      Celluloid

    • D. 

      Acetate

  • 197. 
    Strip matrix is held in place by which of the following
    • A. 

      212 clamp

    • B. 

      Tofflemire

    • C. 

      Clip retainer

    • D. 

      Wedge

  • 198. 
    Occlusal edge of the tofflemire matrix band should extend no more than __ mm above the highest cusp
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      1.5

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 199. 
    All of the following are matrices except
    • A. 

      Tofflemire

    • B. 

      Auto

    • C. 

      Plastic

    • D. 

      Dental dam

  • 200. 
    To ensure contact with the adjacent tooth, the tofflemire matrix band
    • A. 

      Needs to be contoured

    • B. 

      Requires application of pressure with a burnisher

    • C. 

      With explorer indicates no gap between band and preparation

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 201. 
    The guide channels toward the operator's right would be placed in the __ quadrant
    • A. 

      Maxillary right

    • B. 

      Mandibular left

    • C. 

      A and b

    • D. 

      Maxillary left

  • 202. 
    The automatrix is a __ shaped stainless steel band
    • A. 

      Convex

    • B. 

      Conical

    • C. 

      Flat

    • D. 

      Coiled

  • 203. 
    BSI is a system requiring wearing personal protective equipment to prevent contact with all body fluids
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 204. 
    Asepsis means the creation of an environment free of disease causing microorganisms
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 205. 
    Employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and OPIM during the time when employees are at work
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 206. 
    When a disinfecting solution meets all the claims listed and safety concerns are noted, the FDA will assign an EPA number that must appear on the label of the solution
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 207. 
    Microorganisms may be missed because they appear as a mist or dry clear on the surfaces that are touched
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 208. 
    When removing protective clothing, OSHA states that special care is to be taken with items that are considered potentially infectious
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 209. 
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      US public health service

    • D. 

      ADA

  • 210. 
    Name the agency that is part of the US public health service, a division of the US department of health and human services, and a source of many regulations
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      ADA

    • D. 

      OPIM

  • 211. 
    In 1992, OSHA established the bloodborne pathogens standard, which mandates that facilities must do which of the following
    • A. 

      Provide sterile environment

    • B. 

      Protect workers from infectious hazards

    • C. 

      Provide automatic handwashing system

    • D. 

      Provide antimicrobial soap

    • E. 

      Protect workers from chemical hazards

    • F. 

      Protect workers from physical hazards

  • 212. 
    An employee who would have any occupational exposure to blood would be a category __ by job classification
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 213. 
    Items in the dental office, such as sterilizers and PPE, are regulated by the __, which holds mannufacturers responsible for problems that develop
    • A. 

      ADA

    • B. 

      FDA

    • C. 

      EPA

    • D. 

      ADAA

  • 214. 
    Name the agency that regulates disposal of hazardous waste after it leaves the office
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      OSHA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      EPA

  • 215. 
    What cycle is perpetuated when pathogens are allowed to pass from dentist to patient or from patient to dentist
    • A. 

      Material safety data sheet

    • B. 

      Cross contamination

    • C. 

      Pathogen standard

    • D. 

      Standard exposure

  • 216. 
    If a dental assistant is hired, but the assistant has not had the hepatitis b immunization, who pays for the vaccine series
    • A. 

      Dentist

    • B. 

      Assistant

    • C. 

      Accountant

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 217. 
    Updating the patient's health history at each appointment is necessary. information should be updated both in writing and 
    • A. 

      Fax transmission

    • B. 

      Over the phone

    • C. 

      Verbally

    • D. 

      Email

  • 218. 
    Patients could be infected with HBV and HIV and have no symptoms. this condition is called
    • A. 

      Cross contamination

    • B. 

      Antimicrobial

    • C. 

      Asymptomatic

    • D. 

      Transient

  • 219. 
    One of the primary concerns of handwashing is to remove the __ microorganisms because they constitute the group that includes hepatitis
    • A. 

      Transient

    • B. 

      Causative

    • C. 

      Bloodborne

    • D. 

      Saliva

  • 220. 
    During handwashing procedure, proper chemical antisepsis is accomplished with
    • A. 

      Chlorhexidine digluconate

    • B. 

      Triclosan

    • C. 

      Para chlorometaxylenol

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 221. 
    The minimal handwashing before and after patient care requires __ seconds
    • A. 

      60

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      90

  • 222. 
    The __ regulates the gloves used in the health care industry
    • A. 

      FDA

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      OSHA

    • D. 

      CDC

  • 223. 
    __ gloves are used for patient treatment whenever the dental assistant anticipates contact with saliva or blood
    • A. 

      Polynitrile

    • B. 

      Nitrile

    • C. 

      Utility

    • D. 

      Vinyl

  • 224. 
    Which of the following is considered to be a high level disinfectant
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Glutaraldehyde

    • C. 

      Iodopher

    • D. 

      Sodium hypochlorite

  • 225. 
    Which of the following is considered to be an intermediate level disinfectant
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Chlorine dioxide

    • C. 

      Glutaraldehyde

    • D. 

      Iodopher