Quarterly Oasis Test 1 - 2016

37 Questions | Total Attempts: 70

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Quarterly Oasis Test 1 - 2016

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following clients need an OASIS assessment completed at SOC?
    • A. 

      59 yo with Medicaid, receiving SN services for medication management

    • B. 

      79 yo with Medicare, receiving PT services post fall

    • C. 

      17 yo with Medicaid, receiving SN services for tramatic wound care

    • D. 

      31 yo with Medicaid, receiving SN services for wound care to C-section wound

    • E. 

      80 yo with Medicaid, receiving HCA services for bathing assistance

    • F. 

      31 yo with Medicare, receiving SN services for CHF education

    • G. 

      26 yo with private BCBS insurance, receiving PT services post car accident

  • 2. 
    You receive notice that a client you have died in the ambulance on the way to the hospital. Which OASIS do you complete to discharge the patient?
    • A. 

      Transferred to an inpatient facility - patient not discharged from agency

    • B. 

      Transferred to an inpatient facility - patient discharged from agency

    • C. 

      Death at Home

    • D. 

      Discharge from agency

  • 3. 
    A client's new 485 begins on 6/15/16. On which of the following days can their re-cert OASIS be completed?
    • A. 

      6/15

    • B. 

      6/14

    • C. 

      6/12

    • D. 

      6/10

    • E. 

      6/9

  • 4. 
    You receive notice on 4/2/16 that one of your patients went to an inpatient facilty for uncontrolled pain on 4/1/16 and is now back home. Your patient was on observation status. Which OASIS assessments should be completed?
    • A. 

      TRF OASIS effective 4/1/16, ROC OASIS effective 4/2/16

    • B. 

      TRF OASIS effective 4/2/16, ROC OASIS effective 4/2/16

    • C. 

      No OASIS needs to be completed

  • 5. 
    You are notified on 5/5/16 that your patient went to the hospital on 5/1/16, was inpatient status, and returned home 5/3/16. You are going out today (5/5/16) for a visit. Which OASIS assessments would need to be completed?
    • A. 

      TRF OASIS effective 5/1/16, ROC OASIS effective 5/5/16

    • B. 

      TRF OASIS effective 5/5/16, ROC OASIS effective 5/5/16

    • C. 

      TRF OASIS effective 5/1/16, ROC OASIS effective 5/3/16

    • D. 

      No OASIS required

  • 6. 
    You go into the home 3/9/16 to complete a ROC on a patient following their discharge from an inpatient facility, while you are in the home completing your assessment the patient appears to be in respiratory distress. The client is sent back to the hospital and you are notified that they were re-admitted. Which of the following OASIS assessments should be completed.
    • A. 

      ROC OASIS effective 3/9/16, TRF OASIS effective 3/9/16

    • B. 

      TRF OASIS effective 3/9/16

    • C. 

      No OASIS required

  • 7. 
    A hospital contacts your agency on 3/1/16 to inform you that a patient will be discharging within 2-3 days and will need home care services for wound care. You receive notice on 3/3/16 that the client has discharged from the hospital. You contact the patient on 3/3/16 to set up admission, client refuses visit until 3/6/16 due to dressing change not being due until that date. What should you do? 
    • A. 

      Document the patient's refusal of admission in a call log

    • B. 

      Contact the physician and request a physician ordered SOC date of 3/6

    • C. 

      Nothing additional is needed, wait until 3/6 to admit patient

  • 8. 
    You are completing the first re-cert on a patient that receives services under their traditional Medicare insurance.M0110 Episode Timing: Is the Medicare home health payment episode for which this assessment will define a case mix group an "early" episode or a "later" episode in the patient's current sequence of adjacent Medicare home health payment episodes?
    • A. 

      1 - Early

    • B. 

      2 - Later

    • C. 

      UK - Unknown

    • D. 

      NA - Not Applicable: No Medicare case mix group to be defined by this assessment

  • 9. 
    Which diagnoses codes should be included on a client's diagnosis code list for home health?
    • A. 

      All diagnoses codes that the patient currently has

    • B. 

      All diagnoses codes that our home health agency is currently treating

    • C. 

      All diagnoses codes that the patient currently has that may affect their treatment or response to treatment

    • D. 

      All diagnoses codes that the patient has ever had

  • 10. 
    A client is admitted with a triple lumen central line. TPN is administered through 1 line, the other 2 are flushed to maintain patency. Client also has a gastrostomy feeding tube that is only being used for administering crushed medications at this time.M1030 Therapies the patient receives at home: (Mark all that apply).
    • A. 

      1 - Intravenous or infusion therapy (excludes TPN)

    • B. 

      2 - Parenteral nutrition (TPN or lipids)

    • C. 

      3 - Enteral nutrition (nasogastric, gastrostomy, jejunostomy, or any other artificial entry into the alimentary canal)

    • D. 

      4 - None of the above

  • 11. 
    You admit a client who was recently discharged from a SNF. She suffered a fall and fracture 4 months ago, went to ER, and was hospitalized. She also had an ER visit 5 months ago due to hypoglycemia. Client reports that she is having more health difficulties due to her husband recently dying, and she has been more depressed recently. She has difficulty following her medication regimen and reports that she missed her insulin dose this am. She has 4 ordered medications, and also takes 2 supplements.(M1033) Risk for Hospitalization: Which of the following signs or symptoms characterize this patient as at risk for hospitalization? (Mark all that apply)
    • A. 

      1- History of falls (2 or more falls - or any fall with an injury - in the past 12 months)

    • B. 

      2 - Unintentional weight loss of a total of 10 pounds or more in the past 12 months

    • C. 

      3 - Multiple hospitalizations (2 or more) in the past 6 months

    • D. 

      4 - Multiple emergency department visits (2 or more) in the past 6 months

    • E. 

      5 - Decline in the mental, emotional, or behavioral status in the past 3 months

    • F. 

      6 - Reported or observed history of difficulty complying with any medical instructions (for example, medications, diet, exercise) in the past 3 months

    • G. 

      7 - Currently taking 5 or more medications

    • H. 

      8 - Currently reports exhaustion

    • I. 

      9 - Other risk(s) not listed in 1-8

    • J. 

      10 - None of the above

  • 12. 
    A client is admitted following hospital discharge for CHF exacerbation. Also has dx of COPD. This is his 2nd hospital admission in 6 months. Patient will receive 2 weeks of SN for education and assessment, PT, and OT to eval and treat. (M1034) Overall Status: Which description best fits the patient's overall status? (check one)
    • A. 

      0 - The patient is stable with no heightened risk(s) for serious complications and death (beyond those typical of the patient's age)

    • B. 

      1 - The patient is temporarily facing high health risk(s) but is likely to return to being stable without heightened risk(s) for serious complications and death (beyond those typical of the patient's age).

    • C. 

      2 - The patient is likely to remain in fragile health and have ongoing high risk(s) of serious complications and death.

    • D. 

      3 - the patient has serious progressive conditions that could lead to death within a year.

    • E. 

      UK - the patient's situation is unknown or unclear.

  • 13. 
    A client routinely lives alone, but her 2 daughters will be taking turns and staying with her for the next 2 months to help her recover. Someone will be with her 24 hours a day.(M1100) Patient Living Situation: which of the following best describes the patient's residential circumstance and availability of assistance? (check one box only)
    • A. 

      01 - Patient lives alone, Availability of Assistance: Around the Clock

    • B. 

      05 - Patient lives alone, Availability of Assistance: No assistance available

    • C. 

      06 - Patient lives with other person(s) in the home, Availability of Assistance: Around the Clock

    • D. 

      10 - Patient lives with other person(s) in the home, Availability of Assistance: No assistance available

  • 14. 
    A client has reading glasses, but they report that they never wear them and don't know where they are. When you assess if they can read their medication bottle, they are unable to without their glasses. When the client grabs a magnifying glass, they are able to appropriately read their medication label.(M1200) Vision (with corrective lenses if the patient usually wears them):
    • A. 

      0 - Normal vision: sees adequately in most situations; can see medication labels, newsprint

    • B. 

      1 - Partially impaired: cannot see medication labels or newsprint, but can see obstacles in path, and the surrounding layout; can count fingers at arm's length

    • C. 

      2 - Severely impaired: cannot locate objects without hearing or touching them or patient non-responsive

  • 15. 
    You perform a 0-10 pain scale on a client and they report their pain is currently at a 4, when they transfer pain increases to an 8.(M1240) Has this patient had a formal Pain Assessment using a standardized, validated pain assessment tool (appropriate to the patient's ability to communicate the severity of pain)?
    • A. 

      0 - No standardized, validated assessment conducted

    • B. 

      1 - Yes, and it does not indicate severe pain

    • C. 

      2 - Yes, and it indicates severe pain

  • 16. 
    A client reports that they have severe pain whenever they attempt to climb stairs or walk long distances. Due to this, they have started staying in downstairs bedroom and spouse gets the mail so they do not need to walk to the mailbox. They do not report pain in any other situations.(M1242) Frequency of Pain Interfering with patient's activity or movement:
    • A. 

      0 - Patient has no pain

    • B. 

      1 - Patient has pain that does not interfere with activity or movement

    • C. 

      2 - Less often than daily

    • D. 

      3 - Daily, but not constantly

    • E. 

      4 - All the time

  • 17. 
    Patient reports pain with movement. Pain also woke them up last night. They were able to fall back asleep after changing position and using a heating pad. (M1242) Frequency of Pain Interfering with patient's activity or movement:
    • A. 

      0 - Patient has no pain

    • B. 

      1 - Patient has pain that does not interfere with activity or movement

    • C. 

      2 - Less often than daily

    • D. 

      3 - Daily but not constantly

    • E. 

      4 - All of the time

  • 18. 
    When completing a skin assessment, client appears to have a stage I pressure ulcer to the coccyx. When asking the patient about it, client reports that they used to have a pressure sore there that went straight down to the bone.(M1306) Does this patient have at least one Unhealed Pressure Ulcer at stage II or higher or designated as unstageable? (Excludes Stage I pressure ulcers and healed stage II pressure ulcers)
    • A. 

      0 - No

    • B. 

      1 - Yes

  • 19. 
    Client currently has a stage II pressure ulcer to the elbow. Rest of skin is CDI with no other history of pressure ulcers.(M1320) Status of Most Problematic Pressure Ulcer that is Observable: (Excludes pressure ulcer that cannot be observed due to a non-removable dressing/device)
    • A. 

      0 - Newly Epithelialized

    • B. 

      1 - Fully Granulating

    • C. 

      2 - Early/Partial granulation

    • D. 

      3 - Not healing

    • E. 

      NA - No observable pressure ulcer

  • 20. 
    Client has a history of a stage IV pressure ulcer to the coccyx that closed 2 years ago with no current issues.(M1320) Status of Most Problematic Pressure Ulcer that is Observable: (Excludes pressure ulcer that cannot be observed due to a non-removable dressing/device)
    • A. 

      0 - Newly epithelialized

    • B. 

      1 - Fully granulating

    • C. 

      2 - Early/partial granulation

    • D. 

      3 - Not healing

    • E. 

      NA - No observable pressure ulcer

  • 21. 
    Please select all that are considered surgical wounds on the OASIS.
    • A. 

      Central IV line

    • B. 

      Peripheral IV line

    • C. 

      Skin graft donor site

    • D. 

      Stage IV pressure ulcer that recently had a muscle flap placed

    • E. 

      Thoracostomy (chest tube)

    • F. 

      I & D with drain placement

    • G. 

      Staple sites

  • 22. 
    Client recently had knee surgery. Incision is approximated and closed with staples. Small amounts of scabbing noted. No S/S of infection. (M1324) Status of most problematic surgical wound that is observable
    • A. 

      0 - Newly epithelialized

    • B. 

      1 - Fully granulating

    • C. 

      2 - Early/partial granulation

    • D. 

      3 - Not Healing

  • 23. 
    Select all the items below that can be counted in the OASIS question:(M1350) Does the patient have a skin lesion or open wound (excluding bowel ostomy), other than those described above, that is receiving intervention by the home health agency?
    • A. 

      Diabetic ulcers

    • B. 

      Skin tears

    • C. 

      Burns

    • D. 

      Rashes

    • E. 

      Edema

    • F. 

      Persistent redness

    • G. 

      Cellulitis

    • H. 

      Peripheral IV site

    • I. 

      Central Line insertion site

    • J. 

      Tracheostomy

    • K. 

      Thoracostomy

    • L. 

      Urostomy

    • M. 

      Bowel ostomy

  • 24. 
    At SOC, you assess the patient ambulating. They deny feeling SOB and you do not notice any. Patient reports that he does get SOB at night when laying down supine and uses 02 to alleviate. Client does not use 02 during the day. (M1400) When is the patient dyspneic or noticeably short of breath?
    • A. 

      0 - Patient is not short of breath

    • B. 

      1 - When walking more than 20 feet, climbing stairs

    • C. 

      2 - With moderate exertion (for example, while dressing, using commode or bedpan, walking distances less than 20 feet)

    • D. 

      3 - With minimal exertion (for example, while eating, talking, or performing other ADLs) or with agitation

    • E. 

      4 - At rest (during day or night)

  • 25. 
    When walking with the patient, they deny any feelings of dyspnea. After walking 40 feet, patient sits down and appears to be breathing at an elevated rate. You did not notice this with any other levels of activity and patient denies feeling short of breath at any other times. (M1400) When is the patient dyspneic or noticeably short of breath?
    • A. 

      0 - Patient is not short of breath

    • B. 

      1 - When walking more than 20 feet, climbing stairs

    • C. 

      2 - With moderate exertion (for example, while dressing, using commode or bedpan, walking distances less than 20 feet)

    • D. 

      3 - With minimal exertion (for example, while eating, talking, or performing other ADLs) or with agitation

    • E. 

      4 - At rest (during the day or night)

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