Oasis Test - Quarter 2 2016

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| By Rebekah Mattocks
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Rebekah Mattocks
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 7 | Total Attempts: 2,051
Questions: 15 | Attempts: 72

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Oasis Test - Quarter 2 2016 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A client's current 485 ends 5/15/16 and you will be re-certifying for another 60 days of home health with a new 485 that starts 5/16/16. What days can the re-cert OASIS and re-cert visit be completed?

    • A.

      5/9/16

    • B.

      5/10/16

    • C.

      5/11/16

    • D.

      5/12/16

    • E.

      5/13/16

    • F.

      5/14/16

    • G.

      5/15/16

    • H.

      5/16/16

    • I.

      5/17/16

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. 5/11/16
    D. 5/12/16
    E. 5/13/16
    F. 5/14/16
    G. 5/15/16
    Explanation
    A clients recertification visit and recertification OASIS must be completed in the last 5 days of their current certification period.

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  • 2. 

    A client discharges from the hospital 5/1/16 with orders for home care. When you call to schedule their admission visit, they refuse admission until 5/3/16. What should you do?

    • A.

      Place call log with documentation of conversation

    • B.

      Tell the client that they cannot receive home care if they refuse admission today

    • C.

      Immediately send an IPO to the physician requesting a physician ordered SOC date of 5/3/16 due to patient refusal

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Place call log with documentation of conversation
    C. Immediately send an IPO to the physician requesting a physician ordered SOC date of 5/3/16 due to patient refusal
    Explanation
    Home care agencies need to admit a client to home care within 48 hours of referral. If the patient refuses, the physician must be contacted immediately to obtain a physician ordered SOC date.

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  • 3. 

    A client that we have had on services was admitted to the hospital on 5/1/16. You are notified on 5/5/16 that they will be discharging from the hospital today. When can you complete their ROC visit and ROC OASIS?

    • A.

      5/5/16

    • B.

      5/6/16

    • C.

      5/8/16

    • D.

      5/9/16

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 5/5/16
    B. 5/6/16
    Explanation
    Home care agencies are required to resume patient care within 48 hours of inpatient discharge. If a patient refuses ROC until a later date, document their refusal.

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  • 4. 

    What is your responsibility as the clinician completing the OASIS and plan of care in regards to diagnosis codes?

    • A.

      Codes must be reviewed to ensure they are pertinent and in correct order of importance to patient's care

    • B.

      Codes must be reviewed and additional codes must be requested if items appear to be missing

    • C.

      Codes and plan of care must be reviewed to ensure that the top 6 diagnosis codes are addressed in interventions and goals

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Codes must be reviewed to ensure they are pertinent and in correct order of importance to patient's care
    B. Codes must be reviewed and additional codes must be requested if items appear to be missing
    C. Codes and plan of care must be reviewed to ensure that the top 6 diagnosis codes are addressed in interventions and goals
    Explanation
    These are all your responsibility when completing an OASIS and plan of care for a patient. If you have any questions about the codes, or believe items need to be changed, contact the Utilization Team.

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  • 5. 

    You admit a client for therapy who has peritoneal dialysis in the home. They complete all cares related to their dialysis independently. (M1030) Therapies the patient receives at home: (Mark all that apply.)

    • A.

      1 - Intravenous or infusion therapy (excludes TPN)

    • B.

      2 - Parenteral nutrition (TPN or lipids)

    • C.

      3 - Enteral nutrition (nasogastric, gastrostomy, jejunostomy, or any other artificial entry into the alimentary canal)

    • D.

      4 - None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 - Intravenous or infusion therapy (excludes TPN)
    Explanation
    Peritoneal dialysis that occurs in the home can be marked as infusion therapy. Other items that are included under option 1 - Infusion therapy includes: SQ infusions, epidurals, intrathecals, insulin pumps, eclipse bulb infusion devices, hemodialysis in the home, flushes of an implanted port or other intravenous line.

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  • 6. 

    You admit a client who lives alone in their own home. They have no one that provides them with assistance other than home care agency staff. (M1100) Patient Living Situation: Which of the following best describes the patient's residential circumstance and availability of assistance?

    • A.

      1: Patient lives alone - Around the clock

    • B.

      2: Patient lives alone - Regular daytime

    • C.

      3: Patient lives alone - Regular nighttime

    • D.

      4: Patient lives alone - Occasional / short-term assistance

    • E.

      5: Patient lives alone - No assistance available

    • F.

      6: Patient lives with other person(s) in the home - Around the clock

    • G.

      7: Patient lives with other person(s) in the home - Regular daytime

    • H.

      8: Patient lives with other person(s) in the home - Regular nighttime

    • I.

      9: Patient lives with other person(s) in the home - Occasional / short-term assistance

    • J.

      10: Patient lives with other person(s) in the home - No assistance available

    • K.

      11: Patient lives in congregate situation (for example, assisted living, residential care home) - Around the clock

    • L.

      12: Patient lives in congregate situation (for example, assisted living, residential care home) - Regular daytime

    • M.

      13: Patient lives in congregate situation (for example, assisted living, residential care home) - Regular nighttime

    • N.

      14: Patient lives in congregate situation (for example, assisted living, residential care home) - Occasional / short-term assistance

    • O.

      15: Patient lives in congregate situation (for example, assisted living, residential care home) - No assistance available

    Correct Answer
    E. 5: Patient lives alone - No assistance available
    Explanation
    Option 5 is the best choice because the patient lives alone, with no assistance available to them.

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  • 7. 

    You admit a client for new tube feeding education. Client recently had a G tube placed for nutrition. Client also has an implanted port that she receives chemo for her at the clinic. Clinic staff administer chemo and flush port.(M1030 Therapies the patient receives at home: (Mark all that apply.) 

    • A.

      1 - Intravenous or infusion therapy (excludes TPN)

    • B.

      2 - Parenteral nutrition (TPN or lipids)

    • C.

      3 - Enteral nutrition (nasogastric, gastrostomy, jejunostomy, or any other artificial entry into the alimentary canal)

    • D.

      4 - None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 - Enteral nutrition (nasogastric, gastrostomy, jejunostomy, or any other artificial entry into the alimentary canal)
    Explanation
    Option 3 is the only appropriate response because client is receiving nutrition through her new G tube. We cannot choose option 1 because all infusion treatment is completed at the clinic and not in the home. If the client was flushing port at home, option 1 could have also been chosen.

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  • 8. 

    You admit a client who is unable to verbally communicate due to surgery on the throat. He is able to write notes to communicate without difficulties.(M1230) Speech and Oral (Verbal) Expression of Language (in patient's own language):

    • A.

      0 - Expresses complex ideas, feelings, and needs clearly, completely, and easily in all situations with no observable impairment.

    • B.

      1 - Minimal difficulty in expressing ideas and needs (may take extra time: makes occasional errors in word choice, grammar or speech intelligibility; needs minimal prompting or assistance).

    • C.

      2 - Expresses simple ideas or needs with moderate difficulty (needs prompting or assistance, errors in word choice, organization or speech intelligibility). Speaks in phrases or short sentences.

    • D.

      3 - Has severe difficulty expressing basic ideas or needs and requires maximal assistance or guessing by listener. Speech limited to single words or short phrases.

    • E.

      4 - Unable to express basic needs even with maximal prompting or assistance but is not comatose or unresponsive (for example, speech is nonsensical or unintelligible).

    • F.

      5 - Patient nonresponsive or unable to speak

    Correct Answer
    F. 5 - Patient nonresponsive or unable to speak
    Explanation
    The patient is unable to make vocalizations. Due to this, option 5 is the correct choice.

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  • 9. 

    You are completing a SOC on a patient with severe dementia that lives in a memory care unit. They are unable to answer your questions with an appropriate response. How do you complete a pain assessment?

    • A.

      Ask the patient to rate their pain on a 0-10 scale. When they do not answer, chart that they denied pain.

    • B.

      Ask the staff to rate the patients pain

    • C.

      Complete the Pain AD form to assess for non-verbal signs of pain

    Correct Answer
    C. Complete the Pain AD form to assess for non-verbal signs of pain
    Explanation
    The Pain AD form is available in MobileWyse and should be used to assess patients for pain who are not able to appropriately rate their pain on a 0-10 scale.

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  • 10. 

    When assessing a clients pain, client states that the pain does "slow them down" every day and they have to take a pain pill during the middle of the night to get back to sleep due to the pain. (M1242) Frequency of Pain Interfering with patient's activity or movement:

    • A.

      0 - Patient has no pain

    • B.

      1 - Patient has pain that does not interfere with activity or movement

    • C.

      2 - Less often than daily

    • D.

      3 - Daily, but not constantly

    • E.

      4 - All of the time

    Correct Answer
    E. 4 - All of the time
    Explanation
    All of the time would be the best option because the patient has pain that interferes with their activities and it occurs at all hours of the day.

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  • 11. 

    A client has a shallow pressure ulcer on coccyx that is 25% slough, 75% red tissue. What stage is this pressure ulcer?

    • A.

      Stage I

    • B.

      Stage II

    • C.

      Stage III

    • D.

      Stage IV

    Correct Answer
    C. Stage III
    Explanation
    This pressure ulcer must be a stage 3 due to the fact that there is slough. Stage I and stage II pressure ulcers will not have slough present.

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  • 12. 

    A client is admitted with a stage III pressure ulcer for wound care. After performing wound care, the client is being discharged due to the wound being closed. How would you answer this question on their DC OASIS?(M1306) Does this patient have at least one Unhealed Pressure Ulcer at Stage II or Higher or designated as Unstageable? (Excludes Stage I pressure ulcers and healed Stage II pressure ulcers) 

    • A.

      0 - No

    • B.

      1 - Yes

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 - Yes
    Explanation
    Stage III and stage IV pressure ulcers never heal and disappear, they can close. Due to this you can never backstage a stage III or IV pressure ulcer and they will always be marked as present on an OASIS, even if they are closed.

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  • 13. 

    Please mark ALL that are included as surgical wounds on the OASIS.

    • A.

      Orthopedic pin sites

    • B.

      Surgical incisions

    • C.

      Surgical excision of a pressure ulcer

    • D.

      Muscle flap repair to pressure ulcer

    • E.

      Central lines, implanted infusion devices

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Orthopedic pin sites
    B. Surgical incisions
    C. Surgical excision of a pressure ulcer
    D. Muscle flap repair to pressure ulcer
    E. Central lines, implanted infusion devices
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all of the options listed: Orthopedic pin sites, Surgical incisions, Surgical excision of a pressure ulcer, muscle flap repair to pressure ulcer, and Central lines, implanted infusion devices. These are all examples of surgical wounds that would be documented in the OASIS.

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  • 14. 

    Mark all types of skin issues that can be captured under: (M1350) Does this patient have a skin lesion or open wound (excluding bowel ostomy), other than those described above, that is receiving intervention by the home health agency?

    • A.

      Diabetic Ulcers

    • B.

      Chest Tubes

    • C.

      Edema

    • D.

      Burns

    • E.

      Cellulitis

    • F.

      Arterial Ulcers

    • G.

      Traumatic Wounds

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Diabetic Ulcers
    B. Chest Tubes
    C. Edema
    D. Burns
    E. Cellulitis
    F. Arterial Ulcers
    G. Traumatic Wounds
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all types of skin issues that can be captured under the question. Diabetic ulcers, chest tubes, burns, cellulitis, arterial ulcers, and traumatic wounds are all examples of skin lesions or open wounds that may require intervention by a home health agency. Edema, although not specifically mentioned in the question, can also be considered a skin issue as it involves swelling and fluid accumulation in the tissues. Therefore, all the options listed in the answer are types of skin issues that can be captured under the question.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 12, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Rebekah Mattocks
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