Principles- Airway Mega Quiz

109 Questions | Total Attempts: 456

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Principles- Airway Mega Quiz

A quiz reviewing the material for Test 2 in principles class re: airway management.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In the diagram above, what is A?
    • A. 

      Tongue

    • B. 

      Vallecula

    • C. 

      Epiglottis

    • D. 

      Arytenoids

  • 2. 
    In the diagram above, what is B?
    • A. 

      Vestibular Fold (false cord)

    • B. 

      Vocal cords

    • C. 

      Epiglottis

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 3. 
    In the diagram above, what is C?
    • A. 

      Tongue

    • B. 

      Hyoid bone

    • C. 

      Epiglottis

    • D. 

      Vocal Cords

  • 4. 
    In the diagram above, what is D?
    • A. 

      Tongue

    • B. 

      Vocal cords

    • C. 

      Epiglottis

    • D. 

      Vestibular Fold (False cords)

  • 5. 
    In the diagram above, what is E?
    • A. 

      Arytenoids

    • B. 

      Vestibular fold (false Cord)

    • C. 

      Esophagus

    • D. 

      Epiglottis

  • 6. 
    In the diagram above, what is F?
    • A. 

      Epiglottis

    • B. 

      Esophagus

    • C. 

      Arytenoids

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 7. 
    In the diagram above, what is G?
    • A. 

      Arytenoids

    • B. 

      Esophagus

    • C. 

      Trachea

    • D. 

      Vocal Cords

  • 8. 
    In the above diagram, Identify 1.
    • A. 

      Epiglottis

    • B. 

      Thyroid Cartilage

    • C. 

      Thyrohyoid membrane

    • D. 

      Hyoid bone

  • 9. 
    In the above diagram, Identify 2.
    • A. 

      Epiglottis

    • B. 

      Thyrohyoid Membrane

    • C. 

      Cricothyroid Ligament

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 10. 
    In the above diagram, Identify 4.
    • A. 

      Thyrohyoid membrane

    • B. 

      Cricoid cartilage

    • C. 

      Thyroid Cartilage

    • D. 

      Epiglottis

  • 11. 
    In the above diagram, Identify 5.
    • A. 

      Cricothyroid Ligament

    • B. 

      Thyrohyoid membrane

    • C. 

      Trachea

    • D. 

      Cricothyroid Muscles

  • 12. 
    In the above diagram, Identify 6.
    • A. 

      Cricoid Cartilage

    • B. 

      Trachea

    • C. 

      Thyroid Cartilage

    • D. 

      Hyoid Bone

  • 13. 
    In the above diagram, Identify 8.
    • A. 

      Thyrohyoid membrane

    • B. 

      Cricothyroid Muscles

    • C. 

      Cricothyroid Ligament

    • D. 

      Cricoid Cartilage

  • 14. 
    In the above diagram, what is A?
    • A. 

      Hard/Soft Palates

    • B. 

      Tonsils/Adenoids

    • C. 

      Uvula

    • D. 

      Turbinates

  • 15. 
    In the above diagram, what is B?
    • A. 

      Hard/Soft palates

    • B. 

      Uvula

    • C. 

      Turbinates

    • D. 

      Vallecula

  • 16. 
    In the above diagram, what is C?
    • A. 

      Hard/Soft palate

    • B. 

      Tonsils/Adenoids

    • C. 

      Tongue

    • D. 

      Uvula

  • 17. 
    In the above diagram, what is D?
    • A. 

      Tonsils/ Adenoids

    • B. 

      Epiglottis

    • C. 

      Uvula

    • D. 

      Hard/Soft palate

  • 18. 
    In the above diagram, what is E?
    • A. 

      Vallecula

    • B. 

      Epiglottis

    • C. 

      Hard/Soft palate

    • D. 

      Tongue

  • 19. 
    In the above diagram, what is G?
    • A. 

      Vallecula

    • B. 

      Epiglottis

    • C. 

      Esophagus

    • D. 

      Glottic opening

  • 20. 
    In the above diagram, what is H?
    • A. 

      Vallecula

    • B. 

      Vocal cords

    • C. 

      Esophagus

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 21. 
    In the above diagram, what is I?
    • A. 

      Esophagus

    • B. 

      Turbinates

    • C. 

      Vocal Cords

    • D. 

      Trachea

  • 22. 
    In the above diagram, what is K?
    • A. 

      Cricoid Cartilage

    • B. 

      Cricothyroid membrane

    • C. 

      Thyroid Cartilage

    • D. 

      Vocal Cords

  • 23. 
    In the above diagram, what is L?
    • A. 

      Vocal Cords

    • B. 

      Cricothyroid membrane

    • C. 

      Cricoid Cartilage

    • D. 

      Glottic Opening

  • 24. 
    In the above diagram, what is N?
    • A. 

      Vocal Cords

    • B. 

      Thyroid Cartilage

    • C. 

      Cricothyroid membrane

    • D. 

      Esophagus

  • 25. 
      For rapid sequence intubation, what is the correct sequence of actions?
    • A. 

      Denitrogenate/oxygenate -- give STP and then 5 min later SCh IV push -- cricoid pressure -- bag ventilate

    • B. 

      Give STP and SCh IV push -- oxygenate -- cricoid pressure -- no bag ventilation -- intubate

    • C. 

      Denitrogenate/oxygenate -- give STP and SCh IV push at same time -- cricoid pressure -- dont bag-ventilate, instead intubate right away

    • D. 

      STP and SCh -- oxygenate -- cricoid pressure -- intubate

  • 26. 
    For RSI, maximum allowable pressure we can bag-ventilate patient is 20cm H2O.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    You are about to intubate your patient and you put your patients head in the "sniff position". This entails...
    • A. 

      Aligning the oral axis, laryngeal axis and the pharyngeal axis in a perpendicular axis as much as possible

    • B. 

      Aligning the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axis with the roof of the mouth

    • C. 

      Aligning the oral, pharyngeal, and laryngeal axis as close to each as possible

  • 28. 
    Which one is not an appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a laryngospasm?
    • A. 

      Administer a higher amount of sevoflurane, as it is a potent bronchodilator

    • B. 

      Provide patient with 100% FiO2, jaw thrust, and positive pressure

    • C. 

      Administer Succinylcholine 10-20mg IV

  • 29. 
    A patient who is difficult to intubate is brought to the OR. Optimal conditions were met for intubation (positioning, drugs, difficult airway cart available, etc). After the first failed attempt at intubation, you are allowed to practice your excellent bag-mask ventilation. After a total of three failed intubation attempts, you are now unable to bag-mask ventilate your patient. You reposition the head and still not able to ventilate. Your CRNA/MDA is also not able to effectively bag-mask the patient. What do you expect will be the next course of action?
    • A. 

      Surgical Airway

    • B. 

      Blind insertion of an LMA. You do not need a direct view.

    • C. 

      Insert a nasal airway, since you cannot insert an oral airway.

  • 30. 
    What is the function of the internal superior laryngeal nerve?
    • A. 

      Sensory between Epiglottis and Vocal Cords

    • B. 

      Motor cricothyroid Muscle, adducts cords

    • C. 

      Sensory below cords; abducts cords; motor for all muscles except cricothyroid

    • D. 

      Sensory Posterior tongue, gag reflex

  • 31. 
    What is the function of the exterior superior laryngeal nerve?
    • A. 

      Sensory between Epiglottis and Vocal Cords

    • B. 

      Motor cricothyroid Muscle, adducts cords

    • C. 

      Sensory below cords; abducts cords; motor for all muscles except cricothyroid

    • D. 

      Sensory Posterior tongue, gag reflex

  • 32. 
    What is the function of the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
    • A. 

      Sensory between Epiglottis and Vocal Cords

    • B. 

      Motor cricothyroid Muscle, adducts cords

    • C. 

      Sensory below cords; abducts cords; motor for all muscles except cricothyroid

    • D. 

      Sensory Posterior tongue, gag reflex

  • 33. 
    What is the function of the glossopharyngal nerve?
    • A. 

      Sensory between Epiglottis and Vocal Cords

    • B. 

      Motor cricothyroid Muscle, adducts cords

    • C. 

      Sensory below cords; abducts cords; motor for all muscles except cricothyroid

    • D. 

      Sensory Posterior tongue, gag reflex

  • 34. 
    What Mallampati class is this?
    • A. 

      Class 3

    • B. 

      Class 1

    • C. 

      Class 2

    • D. 

      Class 4

  • 35. 
    What Mallampati class is this?
    • A. 

      Class 2

    • B. 

      Class 3

    • C. 

      Class 1

    • D. 

      Class 4

  • 36. 
    What Mallampati class is this?
    • A. 

      Class 4

    • B. 

      Class 1

    • C. 

      Class 2

    • D. 

      Class 3

  • 37. 
    What Mallampati Class is this?
    • A. 

      Class 2

    • B. 

      Class 1

    • C. 

      Class 4

    • D. 

      Class 3

  • 38. 
    All of the following are effective ways to decrease the risk for aspiration EXCEPT...
    • A. 

      Increase gastric Ph

    • B. 

      Rapid Sequence Induction

    • C. 

      Deep extubation

    • D. 

      Increase gastric Motility

  • 39. 
    What method is most reliable in confirming immediate tracheal intubation?
    • A. 

      Chest Xray

    • B. 

      ETCO2

    • C. 

      Fogging of ETT

    • D. 

      Visualization of chest rising

  • 40. 
    Cricoid pressure prevents against active regurgitation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    Identify the patient at risk for aspiration:
    • A. 

      40 y/o male with shoulder injury

    • B. 

      20 y/o emergency appendectomy

    • C. 

      60 y/o bilateral inguinal hernia

    • D. 

      50 y/o hypertensive patient who took his BP meds with sips of H2O

  • 42. 
    Which of the following characterisics may be difficult to mask ventilate?
    • A. 

      Beard

    • B. 

      Endentulous

    • C. 

      CPAP at home

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 43. 
    What is the indication for a Rapid Sequence Induction? (RSI)
    • A. 

      Surgeon is scrubbed in and is awaiting anxiously for you to intubate

    • B. 

      Pt is obese and has a history of GERD

    • C. 

      Pt can’t tolerate laying down flat and must induce fast

    • D. 

      Pt is anxious and must induce fast

  • 44. 
    Which is NOT a contraindication of the use of a LMA?
    • A. 

      Lithotomy position

    • B. 

      Trauma case requiring fast intubation

    • C. 

      Patient at 26 weeks gestation

    • D. 

      MAC case requiring no neuro-muscular blockade

  • 45. 
    What is the Murphy Eye?
    • A. 

      The view seen when looking through a laryngoscope

    • B. 

      One of the single unpaired cartilages in the larynx

    • C. 

      A side vent near the distal end of an endotracheal tube

    • D. 

      A modification of the atlanto-occipital position

  • 46. 
    How is laryngospasm treated?
    • A. 

      Immediate dose of rocuronium to relax all muscles

    • B. 

      Aggressive positive pressure to pry open the cords

    • C. 

      Administration of succinycholine 10-20 mg

    • D. 

      Call for help, you have never done this before

  • 47. 
    What are the most commonly used sizes of oral airways?
    • A. 

      Whatever best fits in the patients mouth

    • B. 

      Sizes 1, 2, 3

    • C. 

      Sizes 8, 9, 10

    • D. 

      Sizes 80, 90, 100

  • 48. 
    Which of the following would not put pt at risk for difficult airway?
    • A. 

      Wide Palate

    • B. 

      Pregnancy

    • C. 

      Pt wearing a Halo

    • D. 

      Thyromental distance

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Oral airway

    • B. 

      Re-intubate until more awake

    • C. 

      Nasal Airway

    • D. 

      Nasal Cannula 2L O2

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      Size 3

    • B. 

      Size 2.5

    • C. 

      Size 4

    • D. 

      Size 5

    • E. 

      None, use ETT for this pt.

  • 51. 
    You are the SRNA for Mr. Mick who is having a hydrocele removed. This is a short procedure and requires no neuromuscular blockade. He is 6'2" and weighs 105 kg. what size LMA should you choose?
    • A. 

      Size 6

    • B. 

      Size 5

    • C. 

      Size 3

    • D. 

      Size 8

    • E. 

      None, use ETT for this pt.

  • 52. 
    You are the SRNA assigned to Ms. Bowser, who is having a minor foot surgery. This will be a short procedure with no need for paralysis. Ms. Bowser is 5'4" and weighs 52 kg. What size LMA should you choose?
    • A. 

      Size 4

    • B. 

      Size 3

    • C. 

      Size 6

    • D. 

      Size 2

    • E. 

      None, use ETT instead.

  • 53. 
    You are the SRNA assigned to Mr. Matisse. He is having a short procedure to remove a sebaceous cyst. He is 5'5" and weighs 173 kg. he also has a past history of GERD. The procedure will be short and requires no neuromuscular blockade. What size LMA should you use?
    • A. 

      Size 6

    • B. 

      Size 3

    • C. 

      Size 5

    • D. 

      Size 4

    • E. 

      None, use an ETT for this pt.

  • 54. 
    What size LMA should you use on a 5 month old child who weighs 8 kg?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      1.5

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      2.5

  • 55. 
    What size LMA should you use on a 4 yr old girl who weighs 22 kg?
    • A. 

      1.5

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      2.5

  • 56. 
    What size LMA should you use on a 9 yr old boy who weighs 46 kg?
    • A. 

      Size 2

    • B. 

      Size 5

    • C. 

      Size 3

    • D. 

      Size 4

  • 57. 
    According the manufacturer, which of the following is appropriate regarding insertion of an LMA?
    • A. 

      Insert the LMA completely deflated and only inflate once it is in place within the airway

    • B. 

      Secure the LMA 3cm to right of the midline once it is in place.

    • C. 

      Insert LMA fully inflated and just slide into place.

    • D. 

      Provide plenty of lubrication both in front and back of airway to facilitate insertion.

  • 58. 
    How much FGF should be used with an LMA airway?
    • A. 

      Low, 2L min

    • B. 

      Minimal 300 ml/min

    • C. 

      High, at least 4L/min

    • D. 

      3x Tidal Volume

  • 59. 
    You are looking for an LMA that will allow you to insert an NGT easily. Which specialized LMA might you pick?
    • A. 

      Proseal LMA

    • B. 

      Classic

    • C. 

      FastTrach

    • D. 

      FiberOptic

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is a risk associated with high pressure ETT cuffs?
    • A. 

      Increase risk for Sore throat

    • B. 

      Spontaneous extubation

    • C. 

      More ischemic damage to tracheal mucosa

    • D. 

      Increase risk for aspiration

  • 61. 
    Prior to intubating a pt you should...
    • A. 

      HyperVentilate

    • B. 

      HyperNitrogenate

    • C. 

      Allow CO2 to rise

    • D. 

      HyperOxygenate

  • 62. 
    What size ETT would you choose for a 3 month old child?
    • A. 

      3.5 mm

    • B. 

      5mm

    • C. 

      6mm

    • D. 

      2.5 mm

  • 63. 
    What size ETT would you choose for a 10 month old baby?
    • A. 

      2.5 mm

    • B. 

      4.0 - 4.5 mm

    • C. 

      5 mm

    • D. 

      3 - 3.5 mm

  • 64. 
    What size ETT would you choose for a 10 yr old child?
    • A. 

      5 mm

    • B. 

      7.5 mm

    • C. 

      6.5 mm

    • D. 

      3.5 mm

  • 65. 
    What size ETT would commonly pick for an adult female?
    • A. 

      8.5 mm

    • B. 

      6 mm

    • C. 

      3 mm

    • D. 

      7.5 mm

  • 66. 
    What size ETT would be most appropriate for an adult male?
    • A. 

      8 mm

    • B. 

      7 mm

    • C. 

      6 mm

    • D. 

      10 mm

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is a double lumen airway device which can be blindly inserted into the hypopharynx to ventilate the lunges regardless of where the tip is placed?
    • A. 

      TrachLite

    • B. 

      Combitube

    • C. 

      FastTrach LMA

    • D. 

      TTJV

  • 68. 
    Which of the following uses transillumination of the neck to accomplish intubation?
    • A. 

      Combitube

    • B. 

      FiberOptic Laryngoscope

    • C. 

      TrachLite

    • D. 

      Eschmann Stylet

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is a technique used to provide oxygenation via a high-pressure delivery system and involves insertion of a large bore IV through the cricothyroid membrane?
    • A. 

      Retrograde intubation

    • B. 

      Eschmann Stylet

    • C. 

      TrachLite

    • D. 

      TTJV

  • 70. 
    Which of the following involves insertion of a 14-18 gauge needle through the cricothyroid membrane and threading a wire cephalad to guide the ETT?
    • A. 

      Retrograde Intubation

    • B. 

      TTJV

    • C. 

      Percutanous Cricothyrotomy

    • D. 

      Eschmann Stylet

  • 71. 
    How far would you plan to insert an ETT in a 64 yr old woman?
    • A. 

      12 cm

    • B. 

      21 cm

    • C. 

      17 cm

    • D. 

      25 cm

  • 72. 
    How far would you plan to insert an ETT on a 12 yr old girl?
    • A. 

      21 cm

    • B. 

      12 cm

    • C. 

      18 cm

    • D. 

      9 cm

  • 73. 
    Which pt would not be at an increased risk for aspiration?
    • A. 

      Mrs. Luiz who states she had a little sip of water this morning from a dixie cup to take her pills.

    • B. 

      Mr. Rogers, an emergency Crani coming from the trauma bay to the OR.

    • C. 

      Ms. Minns who is obese and has a history of GERD

    • D. 

      Mr. Jerkface who has no prior medical history, has been chewing gum and munching on ice cubes to lessen his hunger from being NPO.

  • 74. 
    A 25 year old male is scheduled for an emergency appendectomy. It is assumed that the patient’s stomach is not empty, therefore high risk of aspiration. Which of the following IS NOT a way to reduce the risk of aspiration?
    • A. 

      Cricoid Pressure during intubation

    • B. 

      Administration of H2 blocker (Famotidine/ Ranitidine)

    • C. 

      Administration of a prokinetic ( Metoclopramide (Reglan))

    • D. 

      Keep the patient NPO for 6 hours to guarantee an empty stomach

    • E. 

      Rapid Sequence Intubation

  • 75. 
    Which nerve is responsible for the sensory, afferent limb of the gag reflex?
    • A. 

      Glossopharangeal (IX)

    • B. 

      Vagus (X)

    • C. 

      Trigeminal (V)

    • D. 

      Spinal Accessory (XII)

  • 76. 
    Which nerve is responsible for the motor, efferent limb of the gag reflex?
    • A. 

      Glossopharangeal (IX)

    • B. 

      Vagus (X)

    • C. 

      Trigeminal (V)

    • D. 

      Spinal Accessory (XII)

  • 77. 
    A previously healthy male present with an open femur fracture from an MVA and needs to be repaired under GA. He is on a backboard with cervical collar in place. What  should the plan be?
    • A. 

      Remove the neck collar and intubate as usual

    • B. 

      Avoid GA and perform a regional block for the procedure

    • C. 

      Intubate with a technique that does not require neck movement

  • 78. 
    Which Patients are  NOT at a higher risk for neck injury during intubation?
    • A. 

      Trauma patients

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis patients

    • C. 

      Down’s syndrome patients

    • D. 

      Osteoarthritic patients

  • 79. 
    What are some of the congenital conditions associated with difficult airway management?
    • A. 

      Pierre Robin

    • B. 

      Treacher Collins

    • C. 

      Down’s Syndrome

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 80. 
    What is NOT true about Nasopharyngeal airways?
    • A. 

      An advantage is that the patient can tolerate semi-awake

    • B. 

      A disadvantage is bleeding

    • C. 

      Measure from patient’s lip to ear lobe

    • D. 

      All of above are true

  • 81. 
    What is true about LMA’s?
    • A. 

      LMA’s cannot be used in patient’s with a latex allergy

    • B. 

      Size #5 LMA suits large adults over 100 kg

    • C. 

      All of them have a 15 mm connector

    • D. 

      The LMA Classic is disposable

    • E. 

      Once in place make sure that tube is taped to the right side

  • 82. 
    According to Dr. Groom’s lecture, what is the MOST reliable way to check ETT placement?
    • A. 

      Chest Rise

    • B. 

      Breath Sound

    • C. 

      ETCO2 wave form

    • D. 

      SaO2

  • 83. 
    What is the earliest manifestation of bronchial intubation?
    • A. 

      Decreased Sa02

    • B. 

      Increased C02

    • C. 

      Increase in peak inspiratory pressure

    • D. 

      Unequal chest rise (in practice)

  • 84. 
    Proper tube location can be reconfirmed by palpating the cuff in the…
    • A. 

      Thyrocricoid membrane

    • B. 

      Sternal notch

    • C. 

      Above the cricoid cartilage

    • D. 

      You crazy, that’s impossible to feel!

  • 85. 
    What at is an appropriate  intubating dose of Succinylcholine?
    • A. 

      20 mg

    • B. 

      1 - 1.5 mg/kg

    • C. 

      3 mg/kg

    • D. 

      6 mg/kg

  • 86. 
    You are attempting to intubate Mrs. Bennet, a 54 yr old woman coming in for a hysterectomy. You attempt to intubate her and fail, though are still able to BMV. Since this is your first failed attempt what should your next step be?
    • A. 

      Reposition her, use cricoid pressure and consider giving more muscle relaxant.

    • B. 

      Use a straight blade and neck hyperflexion. Consider using one specialized laryngoscopes (fiberoptic)

    • C. 

      Do a Retrograde Intubation

    • D. 

      Cancel the case.

  • 87. 
    It is now your second attempt to intubate Mrs. Bennet and you are having no better luck here than the first time around. You fail to intubate. What should your next step be?
    • A. 

      Reposition her, use cricoid pressure and consider giving more muscle relaxant.

    • B. 

      Use a straight blade and neck hyperflexion. Consider using one specialized laryngoscopes (fiberoptic)

    • C. 

      Do a Retrograde Intubation

    • D. 

      Cancel the case.

  • 88. 
    It is now your 3rd time attempting to intubate Mrs. Bennet. You give it one last try and sadly fail. When you go to BMV Mrs. bennet you find you are now unable to BMV her. What should you do now?
    • A. 

      Reposition her, use cricoid pressure and consider giving more muscle relaxant.

    • B. 

      Use a straight blade and neck hyperflexion. Consider using one specialized laryngoscopes (fiberoptic)

    • C. 

      Attempt inserting a FastTrach LMA or Combitube to assure an airway.

    • D. 

      Wake her up and cancel case

  • 89. 
    You are attempting to intubate Mr. Parker and after your first failed attempt at intubating him find you are unable to BMV. The patient is in an optimal position yet you still CAN'T  bag mask ventilate. What is your next step?
    • A. 

      Reposition him, use cricoid pressure and consider giving more muscle relaxant.

    • B. 

      Use a straight blade and neck hyperflexion. Consider using one specialized laryngoscopes (fiberoptic)

    • C. 

      Insert an LMA Combitube, if unable to do that attempt TTJV

    • D. 

      Cancel the case

  • 90. 
    You are the SRNA for a hernia repair on Mr. Suresh. 15 years ago Mr. Suresh had a portion of his lower jaw blown off in a shooting accident. It was repaired but he still has multiple scars. His lower jaw is very small, and he has limited mobility due to the accident. He has an old trach scar on his neck as well, since he had a trach for a while after the accident while his jaw was repaired. What is your plan to intubate this pt?
    • A. 

      Oh, HELL NO. Is one little hernia really *that* bad? Cancel procedure.

    • B. 

      Attempt an awake intubation, in anticipation of a difficult airway.

    • C. 

      Use RSI to intubate the pt.

    • D. 

      Intubate as you normally would but have emergency equipment available should his airway be as hard as you are anticipating.

  • 91. 
    Which of the following is not one of the nerve block performed during an awake intubation?
    • A. 

      Trigeminal Block

    • B. 

      Superior Laryngeal nerve block

    • C. 

      Transtracheal block

    • D. 

      Glossopharyngeal block

  • 92. 
    Which nerve block provides a dense block of the supraglottic region and involves depositing anesthetic above and below the thyrohyoid membrane?
    • A. 

      Trigeminal Block

    • B. 

      Superior Laryngeal nerve block

    • C. 

      Transtracheal block

    • D. 

      Glossopharyngeal block

  • 93. 
    Which of the following involves insertion of a needle through the cricothyroid membrane and applying anesthetic directly into airway and onto vocal cords?
    • A. 

      Trigeminal Block

    • B. 

      Superior Laryngeal nerve block

    • C. 

      Transtracheal block

    • D. 

      Glossopharyngeal block

  • 94. 
    Which of the following involves moving the pts tongue to the side and injecting Lidocaine on either side of the tongue to produce a block?
    • A. 

      Trigeminal Block

    • B. 

      Superior Laryngeal nerve block

    • C. 

      Transtracheal block

    • D. 

      Glossopharyngeal block

  • 95. 
    What are criteria for extubating a pt who was very difficult to intubate?
    • A. 

      Once the pt can open their eyes, has 4/4 train of four, and is bucking the tube you may extubate.

    • B. 

      Pt should be fully awake, with protective reflexes intact. Extubate over jet stylet or fiberoptic scope.

    • C. 

      Do a deep extubation to prevent bucking and biting the tube.

  • 96. 
    Which nerve innervates the area pictured in Green?
    • A. 

      Glossopharyngeal

    • B. 

      Interior Superior Layngeal nerve

    • C. 

      Trigeminal

    • D. 

      Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

  • 97. 
    Which nerve innervates the area pictured in Blue?
    • A. 

      Glossopharyngeal

    • B. 

      Interior Superior Layngeal nerve

    • C. 

      Trigeminal

    • D. 

      Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

  • 98. 
    Which nerve innervates the area pictured in Red?
    • A. 

      Glossopharyngeal

    • B. 

      Interior Superior Layngeal nerve

    • C. 

      Trigeminal

    • D. 

      Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

  • 99. 
    You are caring for 19 yr old who is having laser surgery within the airway. What special ETT would you choose?
    • A. 

      Combitube

    • B. 

      Flex Tip Tube

    • C. 

      Tube with methylene blue inside cuff.

    • D. 

      LMA

  • 100. 
    What is the proper technique for BMV'ing a pt with a normal airway.
    • A. 

      Gently place mask on their face and just keep enough pressure to keep it in place. Allow pt to spontaneously ventilate.

    • B. 

      Two hand approach. Thumbs on mask and knuckles displace jaw forward.

    • C. 

      Left hand hold mask with thumb and index finger in C formation. Other fingers grasp mandile extend atlantooccipital joint.

    • D. 

      Slide the LMA in against the upper palate and when you feel resistance it is in far enough.

  • 101. 
    When extubating a child with a normal airway you would hope to see all of the follwing prior to extubation EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Kid bringing their knees to their chest

    • B. 

      Attempting to swallow and cough

    • C. 

      Eyes closed, train of four 3/4 strong twitches

    • D. 

      Ability to squeeze hand upon request

  • 102. 
    High Pressure Cuffs are more commonly recommended because of their low incidence of mucosal damage.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 103. 
    While extubating a patient that was under general anesthesia the SRNA observes paroxysmal coughing and choking consistent with laryngospasm. Stimulation of what nerve causes this response?
    • A. 

      Superior(external) Laryngeal Nerve

    • B. 

      Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

    • C. 

      Superior(internal) Laryngeal Nerve

    • D. 

      Glossopharyngeal Nerve

  • 104. 
    What is the most common cause of adverse respiratory events in closed claims reviewed by the ASA?
    • A. 

      Aspiration

    • B. 

      Inadequate Ventilation

    • C. 

      Airway Obstruction

    • D. 

      Esophogeal Intubation

  • 105. 
    Which of the following NOT a paired cartilage of the upper airway?
    • A. 

      Cuneiform

    • B. 

      Arytenoid

    • C. 

      Cricoid

    • D. 

      Corniculate

  • 106. 
    A major difference in a patient with deep and lightly anesthetized patient is the response to suctioning.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 107. 
    What affect does the administration of Nitrous Oxide have on the volume of the cuff of an inflated endotracheal tube?
    • A. 

      Deflates Cuff

    • B. 

      Inflates Cuff

    • C. 

      Has minimal effect on cuff

  • 108. 
    A nasal airway would be contraindicated in all of the following patients EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      9 y.o scheduled for appendectomy

    • B. 

      54 y.o with Basilar Skull Fracture

    • C. 

      65 y.o on coumadin x 3 months

    • D. 

      39 y.o with epitaxis

  • 109. 
    All of these patients would be indentified as difficult to intubate EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Narrow Palate

    • B. 

      Snorer/ Sleep Apnea

    • C. 

      Mallampati Class 3 or 4

    • D. 

      Thyromental distance < 6cm