Clinical Neurodiagnostic Science Test

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Clinical Neurodiagnostic Science Test - Quiz

Neurodiagnostics is the allied health care profession that records, monitors, and analyzes nervous system function to promote the effective treatment of pathologic conditions.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An abnormal state of the brain resulting from any disease of that organ:

    • A.

      Meningitis

    • B.

      Encephalopathy

    • C.

      Creutzfeldt Jakob's Disease

    • D.

      Reyes Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. Encephalopathy
    Explanation
    Encephalopathy refers to an abnormal state of the brain caused by any disease affecting the organ. It is a broad term that encompasses various conditions characterized by brain dysfunction. Meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, not a disease of the brain itself. Creutzfeldt Jakob's Disease is a rare degenerative brain disorder, and Reyes Syndrome is a condition that primarily affects the liver and brain in children. Therefore, Encephalopathy is the most appropriate answer as it encompasses all diseases affecting the brain.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is NOT associated with renal failure?

    • A.

      Myoclonus

    • B.

      Seizures

    • C.

      Tonus

    • D.

      Uremia

    Correct Answer
    C. Tonus
    Explanation
    Tonus refers to the continuous and partial contraction of muscles. It is not typically associated with renal failure. Renal failure can cause various symptoms, including myoclonus (sudden muscle jerks), seizures, and uremia (buildup of waste products in the blood). However, tonus is not directly related to renal failure and is therefore the correct answer.

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  • 3. 

    During renal failure the patient is insensitive to intermittent photic stimulation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False 

    Correct Answer
    B. False 
    Explanation
    During renal failure, the patient may experience various neurological symptoms, including sensitivity to intermittent photic stimulation. This means that the patient may have abnormal reactions or responses to light stimuli. Therefore, the statement that the patient is insensitive to intermittent photic stimulation during renal failure is incorrect.

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  • 4. 

    Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with: 

    • A.

      Seizures

    • B.

      Myoclonus

    • C.

      Epilepsy

    • D.

      Babinski's Sign

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Myoclonus
    D. Babinski's Sign
    Explanation
    Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain due to liver dysfunction. It is characterized by various neurological symptoms, including myoclonus and Babinski's sign. Myoclonus refers to sudden, brief muscle twitches or jerks, which can be seen in patients with hepatic encephalopathy. Babinski's sign is an abnormal reflex in which the big toe extends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stimulated. Both myoclonus and Babinski's sign are commonly observed in individuals with hepatic encephalopathy.

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  • 5. 

    Which stage of Hepatic Encephalopathy consists of EEG characteristics including high voltage bilaterally symmetrical triphasic waves? 

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    C. III
    Explanation
    Stage III of Hepatic Encephalopathy consists of EEG characteristics including high voltage bilaterally symmetrical triphasic waves.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following may cause metabolic encephalopathy?

    • A.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency

    • B.

      Vitamin B6 deficiency 

    • C.

      Hyperglycemia

    • D.

      Hypoglycemia

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Vitamin B6 deficiency 
    D. Hypoglycemia
    Explanation
    Metabolic encephalopathy refers to a condition where there is dysfunction in the brain due to metabolic abnormalities. Vitamin B6 deficiency can cause metabolic encephalopathy as it is essential for the synthesis of neurotransmitters and myelin formation. Hypoglycemia, on the other hand, can also lead to metabolic encephalopathy as the brain relies heavily on glucose for energy. Inadequate glucose levels can impair brain function and cause neurological symptoms.

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  • 7. 

    Anoxic Encephalopathy is most commonly caused by: 

    • A.

      Respiratory arrest

    • B.

      Cardiac arrest

    • C.

      Hypocalcemia

    • D.

      Hypoglycemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Cardiac arrest
    Explanation
    Anoxic encephalopathy refers to brain damage caused by a lack of oxygen supply to the brain. Cardiac arrest, which is the sudden cessation of the heart's pumping function, can lead to a lack of blood flow and oxygen to the brain. This lack of oxygen can result in anoxic encephalopathy. Respiratory arrest, hypocalcemia, and hypoglycemia can also lead to decreased oxygen supply to the brain, but cardiac arrest is the most common cause of anoxic encephalopathy.

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  • 8. 

    A patient present with an EEG pattern consisting of an alpha coma and burst suppression, the most likely condition would be: 

    • A.

      Toxic Encephalopathy

    • B.

      Renal Failure

    • C.

      Anoxic Encephalopathy

    • D.

      Hepatic Encephalopathy

    Correct Answer
    C. Anoxic Encephalopathy
    Explanation
    Anoxic encephalopathy is the most likely condition in a patient presenting with an EEG pattern of alpha coma and burst suppression. Anoxic encephalopathy occurs when there is a lack of oxygen supply to the brain, leading to brain damage. The alpha coma pattern on EEG is characteristic of severe brain dysfunction, while burst suppression is a pattern seen in patients with profound brain injury. This combination of findings suggests that the patient has experienced a significant period of oxygen deprivation to the brain, leading to anoxic encephalopathy.

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  • 9. 

    A patent presents with an EEG consisting of slowing of alpha, increase of theta and delta and spindle coma. The most likely condition would be: 

    • A.

      Anoxic Encephalopathy

    • B.

      Toxic Encephalopathy

    • C.

      Hepatic Encephalopathy 

    • D.

      Renal Failure 

    Correct Answer
    B. Toxic Encephalopathy
    Explanation
    Toxic encephalopathy is the most likely condition based on the description of the EEG findings. Slowing of alpha waves, increased theta and delta waves, and the presence of spindle coma are consistent with toxic encephalopathy. This condition is characterized by dysfunction of the brain due to exposure to toxic substances or drugs. Anoxic encephalopathy refers to brain damage caused by lack of oxygen, which is not supported by the given EEG findings. Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with liver dysfunction, and renal failure refers to kidney dysfunction, neither of which are specifically indicated by the EEG findings.

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  • 10. 

    Infections of the brain are caused by: 

    • A.

      Bacteria

    • B.

      Viruses

    • C.

      Fungi

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Infections of the brain can be caused by various microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Bacterial infections such as meningitis can lead to inflammation of the brain and its surrounding tissues. Viral infections like encephalitis can also affect the brain and cause inflammation. Fungal infections, although less common, can occur in individuals with weakened immune systems and can also lead to brain infections. Therefore, all of the mentioned microorganisms can cause infections in the brain.

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  • 11. 

    Meningitis is the inflammation of the brain itself. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Meningitis is not the inflammation of the brain itself, but rather the inflammation of the meninges, which are the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. The inflammation can be caused by bacterial, viral, or fungal infections, and it can lead to serious symptoms such as headache, fever, and neck stiffness. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 12. 

    This condition is associated with a headache, fever, stiff neck and rapid lethargy. 

    • A.

      Viral Meningitis 

    • B.

      Bacterial Meningitis

    • C.

      Tuberculosis Meningitis 

    • D.

      Herpes

    Correct Answer
    B. Bacterial Meningitis
    Explanation
    Bacterial meningitis is the correct answer because it is a condition that is characterized by symptoms such as headache, fever, stiff neck, and rapid lethargy. This type of meningitis is caused by bacteria and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Viral meningitis, tuberculosis meningitis, and herpes can also cause similar symptoms, but bacterial meningitis is specifically associated with these symptoms.

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  • 13. 

    The entry into the CNS of herpes simplex encephalitis is via the: 

    • A.

      Trochlear nerve

    • B.

      Optic nerve

    • C.

      Trigeminal nerve

    • D.

      Vagus nerve

    Correct Answer
    C. Trigeminal nerve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the trigeminal nerve. Herpes simplex encephalitis is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) and it typically enters the central nervous system (CNS) through the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain. HSV can infect the trigeminal ganglion, which is located near the base of the skull, and then travel along the nerve fibers to reach the CNS. This route of entry explains why symptoms of herpes simplex encephalitis often involve the face, such as cold sores or lesions around the mouth or eyes.

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  • 14. 

    In herpes simplex encephalitis the EGG pattern presents a major slow wave abnormality over the occipital lobe. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    In herpes simplex encephalitis, the EEG pattern does not typically present a major slow wave abnormality over the occipital lobe. This statement suggests that there is a significant slow wave abnormality in this specific region, which is not accurate.

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  • 15. 

    Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is believe to be associated with: 

    • A.

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B.

      Measles virus

    • C.

      Influenza 

    • D.

      Coronavirus

    Correct Answer
    D. Coronavirus
  • 16. 

    Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease is caused by a transmissible: 

    • A.

      Virus

    • B.

      Prion

    • C.

      Bacteria

    • D.

      Spore

    Correct Answer
    B. Prion
    Explanation
    Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by a transmissible prion. Prions are abnormal proteins that can cause normal proteins in the brain to become misfolded, leading to the formation of plaques and the progressive degeneration of brain tissue. These misfolded proteins can be transmitted from person to person through contaminated tissues or medical procedures. Unlike viruses, bacteria, or spores, prions do not contain genetic material and are not considered living organisms.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is NOT associated with Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease (CJD)? 

    • A.

      Death

    • B.

      Weakness of the limbs

    • C.

      Unilateral rigidity

    • D.

      Progressive dementia

    Correct Answer
    C. Unilateral rigidity
    Explanation
    Unilateral rigidity is not associated with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). CJD is a rare degenerative neurological disorder that causes rapid mental deterioration, leading to dementia. Symptoms include weakness of the limbs, progressive dementia, and eventually death. However, unilateral rigidity, which refers to stiffness or rigidity in only one side of the body, is not typically seen in CJD.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following EEG patterns is associated with AIDS? 

    • A.

      Disorganization of background rhythms

    • B.

      Diffuse slow activity

    • C.

      Triphasic waves 

    • D.

      Increased Beta

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Diffuse slow activity
    C. Triphasic waves 
    Explanation
    Diffuse slow activity and triphasic waves are EEG patterns associated with AIDS. Diffuse slow activity refers to a generalized slowing of brain activity, which can be seen in patients with AIDS-related encephalopathy. Triphasic waves are a characteristic finding in the EEG of patients with hepatic encephalopathy, which can occur in advanced stages of AIDS due to liver dysfunction. Increased Beta activity is not typically associated with AIDS, and disorganization of background rhythms does not specifically correlate with the disease.

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  • 19. 

    Rasmussen's Encephalitis affects both hemispheres, causes progressive neurological and intellectual deterioration. 

    • A.

      True 

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Rasmussen's Encephalitis is a rare neurological disorder that typically affects only one hemisphere of the brain, causing inflammation and progressive deterioration of neurological and intellectual functions. Therefore, the statement that it affects both hemispheres is incorrect.

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  • 20. 

    Reyes syndromes is associated with which clinical characteristic and EEG pattern? 

    • A.

      Intracranial pressure, triphasic waves

    • B.

      Viral illness, beta

    • C.

      Abnormal fat accumulation, burst suppression

    • D.

      Personality change, GPEDS

    Correct Answer
    C. Abnormal fat accumulation, burst suppression
    Explanation
    Reyes syndrome is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children and teenagers. It is typically associated with the use of aspirin to treat viral infections such as influenza or chickenpox. One of the clinical characteristics of Reyes syndrome is abnormal fat accumulation in the liver and other organs. The EEG pattern associated with Reyes syndrome is burst suppression, which is characterized by alternating periods of high-amplitude electrical activity and periods of electrical silence. This abnormal EEG pattern is often seen in patients with severe brain dysfunction.

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  • 21. 

    A tumor that is characterized by etiology from a physical agent and hereditary factors is known as:

    • A.

      Cryptogenic

    • B.

      Symptomatic

    • C.

      Idiopathic

    • D.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    C. Idiopathic
    Explanation
    An idiopathic tumor refers to a tumor with an unknown cause or origin. In this case, the tumor is characterized by etiology from a physical agent and hereditary factors, which means the cause is not clearly understood or identified. Therefore, the correct answer is "Idiopathic."

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  • 22. 

    A malignant tumor is characterized by being life threatening, invasive and rapid growing.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A malignant tumor is indeed characterized by being life threatening, invasive, and rapid growing. Malignant tumors are cancerous and have the ability to spread to other parts of the body, causing harm and potentially leading to death. They can invade nearby tissues and organs and grow at a fast rate, making them particularly dangerous.

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  • 23. 

    Which grade is associated with rapid tumor growth?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    D. IV
    Explanation
    Grade IV is associated with rapid tumor growth. In the grading system for tumors, grade IV indicates the highest level of malignancy. This means that the tumor cells are highly abnormal and rapidly dividing. Grade IV tumors are often aggressive and have a higher chance of spreading to other parts of the body. Therefore, grade IV tumors require immediate and aggressive treatment.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tumors that cause EEG abnormalities?

    • A.

      Size

    • B.

      Depth

    • C.

      Location

    • D.

      Circumference

    Correct Answer
    D. Circumference
    Explanation
    Tumors that cause EEG abnormalities can vary in size, depth, and location. However, the circumference of a tumor is not a characteristic that directly affects EEG abnormalities. The circumference refers to the measurement around the outer edge of a tumor, which does not have a direct impact on the electrical activity in the brain that is measured by an EEG. Therefore, the correct answer is circumference.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are classifications of brain tumors?

    • A.

      Primary brain tumors

    • B.

      Intracranial structures other than the brain

    • C.

      Metastatic brain tumors

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The answer "All of the above" is correct because all three options listed - primary brain tumors, intracranial structures other than the brain, and metastatic brain tumors - are classifications of brain tumors. Primary brain tumors refer to tumors that originate in the brain itself, while intracranial structures other than the brain include tumors that develop in structures such as the meninges or pituitary gland. Metastatic brain tumors are tumors that spread to the brain from other parts of the body. Therefore, all three options are valid classifications of brain tumors.

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  • 26. 

    Primary brain tumors are in what anatomical locations in children?

    • A.

      Midbrain, Cerebrum

    • B.

      Cerebral hemispheres

    • C.

      Pons, Cerebellum

    • D.

      Midrain, Cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    C. Pons, Cerebellum
    Explanation
    Primary brain tumors in children are typically found in the pons and cerebellum. The pons is located in the brainstem, which connects the cerebrum (or cerebral hemispheres) to the spinal cord. The cerebellum, on the other hand, is located at the back of the brain, beneath the cerebrum. These anatomical locations are commonly associated with brain tumors in children, although tumors can occur in other areas of the brain as well.

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  • 27. 

    Most common primary brain tumor, Grade I-IV: 

    • A.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme

    • B.

      Medulloblastomas

    • C.

      Oligodendrogliomas

    • D.

      Astrocytomas

    Correct Answer
    D. Astrocytomas
    Explanation
    Astrocytomas are the most common primary brain tumors, graded from I-IV. They originate from astrocytes, a type of glial cell in the brain. Grade I astrocytomas are low-grade tumors, while Grade IV astrocytomas, also known as glioblastoma multiforme, are the most aggressive and malignant. Medulloblastomas and oligodendrogliomas are also primary brain tumors, but they are less common compared to astrocytomas.

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  • 28. 

    Mixed glioma, Malignant, Butterfly it invades the opposite hemisphere via the corpus callosum: 

    • A.

      Medulloblastoma

    • B.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme

    • C.

      Astrocytomas

    • D.

      Oligodendrogliomas

    Correct Answer
    B. Glioblastoma Multiforme
    Explanation
    Glioblastoma Multiforme is the correct answer because it is a type of malignant brain tumor that can invade the opposite hemisphere via the corpus callosum. This tumor is known for its aggressive nature and ability to spread quickly. Medulloblastoma, Astrocytomas, and Oligodendrogliomas are different types of brain tumors but they do not typically invade the opposite hemisphere via the corpus callosum.

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  • 29. 

    Mixed glioma, slow to rapid growth, most frequent in middle aged adults, common site cerebral hemispheres: 

    • A.

      Medulloblastomas

    • B.

      Ependymomas

    • C.

      Oligodendrogliomas

    • D.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme

    Correct Answer
    C. Oligodendrogliomas
    Explanation
    Oligodendrogliomas are a type of brain tumor that commonly occur in middle-aged adults. They are characterized by a slow to rapid growth rate and are most frequently found in the cerebral hemispheres of the brain. Medulloblastomas, ependymomas, and glioblastoma multiforme are different types of brain tumors that do not match the given description.

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  • 30. 

    Rapid growth, most common tumor in children, located roof of the 4th ventricle, spread down the spinal cord via the spinal fluid: 

    • A.

      Astrocytomas

    • B.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme

    • C.

      Olgiodendrogliomas

    • D.

      Medulloblastomas

    Correct Answer
    D. Medulloblastomas
    Explanation
    Medulloblastomas are the correct answer because they are rapid-growing tumors that are commonly found in children. They are typically located in the roof of the 4th ventricle of the brain and can spread down the spinal cord through the spinal fluid. Astrocytomas, glioblastoma multiforme, and oligodendrogliomas are all types of brain tumors, but they do not specifically match the characteristics described in the question.

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  • 31. 

    Slow growing, occurs before age 50, 10% spread via CSF, more common in children:

    • A.

      Ependymomas

    • B.

      Oligodendrogliomas

    • C.

      Medulloblastomas

    • D.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme

    Correct Answer
    A. Ependymomas
    Explanation
    Ependymomas are slow-growing tumors that typically occur before the age of 50. They have a unique characteristic of spreading through the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in about 10% of cases. Ependymomas are more commonly found in children compared to other types of brain tumors listed. This explanation provides the necessary information to identify ependymomas as the correct answer without explicitly stating it.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following are primary intracranial sites other than the brain?

    • A.

      Meninges

    • B.

      Arachnoid Villi

    • C.

      Pituitary Gland

    • D.

      9th cranial nerve

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Meninges
    C. Pituitary Gland
    Explanation
    The primary intracranial sites other than the brain are the meninges and the pituitary gland. The meninges are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The pituitary gland, also known as the "master gland," is located at the base of the brain and is responsible for producing and regulating hormones. The arachnoid villi are not primary intracranial sites, but rather structures within the meninges that help regulate the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The 9th cranial nerve is not an intracranial site, but rather a peripheral nerve that originates in the brainstem and innervates certain structures in the head and neck.

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  • 33. 

    Slow growing, arise from arachnoid villi of the meninges in the CNS, symptoms caused by compression of the brain: 

    • A.

      Medulloblastomas

    • B.

      Meningiomas

    • C.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme

    • D.

      Oligodendrogliomas

    Correct Answer
    B. Meningiomas
    Explanation
    Meningiomas are slow-growing tumors that originate from the arachnoid villi of the meninges in the central nervous system (CNS). These tumors cause symptoms by compressing the brain. Medulloblastomas, glioblastoma multiforme, and oligodendrogliomas are different types of brain tumors but they do not specifically arise from the arachnoid villi of the meninges. Therefore, the correct answer is meningiomas.

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  • 34. 

    A pituitary tumor leads to disruption in which two bodily functions?

    • A.

      Metabolism, breathing

    • B.

      Vision, breathing

    • C.

      Metabolism, hormonal function

    • D.

      Vision, hormonal function

    Correct Answer
    D. Vision, hormonal function
    Explanation
    A pituitary tumor can disrupt vision because it can press against the optic nerves or optic chiasm, leading to visual problems. Additionally, the pituitary gland is responsible for producing and regulating hormones, so a tumor in this gland can disrupt hormonal function by either overproducing or underproducing certain hormones.

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  • 35. 

    Acoustic neuromas result in the compression of the:

    • A.

      Midbrain and pituitary gland

    • B.

      Pons and cerebellum

    • C.

      Thalamus and cerebellum

    • D.

      Hypothalamus and cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    B. Pons and cerebellum
    Explanation
    Acoustic neuromas are tumors that develop on the vestibulocochlear nerve, which connects the ear to the brain. These tumors typically arise from the Schwann cells that cover the nerve. The pons and cerebellum are located in the brainstem, and they play crucial roles in coordinating movement, balance, and posture. When an acoustic neuroma grows, it can compress the pons and cerebellum, leading to symptoms such as hearing loss, dizziness, and problems with coordination. Therefore, the correct answer is Pons and cerebellum.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is NOT a cancer that spreads to the brain:

    • A.

      Breast

    • B.

      Melanoma

    • C.

      Liver

    • D.

      Kidney

    Correct Answer
    C. Liver
    Explanation
    Liver cancer is not a cancer that typically spreads to the brain. Liver cancer primarily affects the liver and can spread to other organs such as the lungs or bones, but it does not commonly spread to the brain. Breast cancer, melanoma, and kidney cancer are known to have a higher likelihood of spreading to the brain.

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  • 37. 

    Increased Intracranial Pressure causes edema of the:

    • A.

      Pleural cavity

    • B.

      Meninges

    • C.

      Optic disc

    • D.

      Vestibular canal

    Correct Answer
    C. Optic disc
    Explanation
    Increased intracranial pressure can cause edema of the optic disc. The optic disc is the area where the optic nerve enters the eye, and it is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain. When intracranial pressure increases, it can compress the optic nerve, leading to reduced blood flow and fluid accumulation in the optic disc. This can result in swelling and edema of the optic disc, which can cause vision problems and potentially lead to vision loss if left untreated.

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  • 38. 

    An Uncal Herniation results when IIP forces the lower cerebrum through the foreman Magnum, causing compression of cardiac and respiratory center of the medulla.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An Uncal Herniation occurs when the innermost part of the temporal lobe, known as the uncus, shifts and pushes against the brainstem. This can cause compression of important structures in the brain, such as the cranial nerves and the midbrain. However, it does not specifically result in the compression of the cardiac and respiratory centers of the medulla. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 39. 

    Which anatomical location are brain tumors common in adults?

    • A.

      Intra tentorial

    • B.

      Supra tentorial

    • C.

      Cerebrum

    • D.

      Cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    B. Supra tentorial
    Explanation
    Brain tumors are commonly found in the supra tentorial region in adults. This refers to the area of the brain located above the tentorium cerebelli, a membrane that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum. Supra tentorial tumors can occur in various parts of the cerebrum, including the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes. These tumors are more prevalent in adults compared to children.

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  • 40. 

    Which anatomical location are brain tumors more common in children? 

    • A.

      Supra tentorial

    • B.

      Infra tentorial

    • C.

      Cerebrum

    • D.

      Cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    B. Infra tentorial
    Explanation
    Brain tumors are more common in the infra tentorial region in children. The infra tentorial region refers to the area below the tentorium cerebelli, which is a fold of the dura mater that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum. This region includes the cerebellum, which is responsible for coordinating movement and balance. Brain tumors in children often occur in the posterior fossa, which is located in the infra tentorial region and contains the cerebellum.

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  • 41. 

    Complex partial seizures, Inability to recognize sounds, memory loss:

    • A.

      Frontal Lobe

    • B.

      Temporal Lobe

    • C.

      Parietal Lobe

    • D.

      Occipital Lobe

    Correct Answer
    B. Temporal Lobe
    Explanation
    The temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information and plays a crucial role in memory formation. Complex partial seizures, characterized by altered consciousness and abnormal movements, can originate from the temporal lobe. Inability to recognize sounds and memory loss are consistent with dysfunction in this area. Therefore, the temporal lobe is the most likely explanation for the symptoms described.

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  • 42. 

    Personality change, jacksonian seizure, expressive aphasia, impaired contralateral motor control: 

    • A.

      Frontal Lobe

    • B.

      Temporal Lobe

    • C.

      Parietal Lobe

    • D.

      Occipital Lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal Lobe
    Explanation
    The frontal lobe is responsible for personality, behavior, and emotional control. Personality change can occur when there is damage or dysfunction in this area. Jacksonian seizures are a type of seizure that starts in the motor cortex, which is located in the frontal lobe. Expressive aphasia is a language disorder that affects the ability to produce speech, and it can result from damage to the frontal lobe. Impaired contralateral motor control, meaning difficulty in controlling movements on the opposite side of the body, can also be a result of frontal lobe damage. Therefore, all the symptoms mentioned are associated with dysfunction in the frontal lobe.

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  • 43. 

    Cortical sensory loss, unable to draw patterns, unable to calculate, unable to speak of understand spoken words:

    • A.

      Frontal Lobe

    • B.

      Temporal Lobe

    • C.

      Parietal Lobe

    • D.

      Occipital Lobe

    Correct Answer
    C. Parietal Lobe
    Explanation
    The parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information from the body, including touch, temperature, and pain. It also plays a role in spatial awareness and perception. Cortical sensory loss refers to a loss of sensation in the body, which could be caused by damage to the parietal lobe. The inability to draw patterns, calculate, and speak or understand spoken words are all cognitive functions that are not typically associated with the parietal lobe. Therefore, the parietal lobe is not the correct answer.

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  • 44. 

    Unable to see to side opposite of lesion out of either eye: 

    • A.

      Frontal Lobe

    • B.

      Temporal Lobe

    • C.

      Parietal Lobe

    • D.

      Occipital Lobe

    Correct Answer
    D. Occipital Lobe
    Explanation
    The occipital lobe is responsible for processing visual information, including the ability to see objects and images. Lesions or damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual deficits, such as the inability to see the side opposite of the lesion out of either eye. This is because the occipital lobe plays a crucial role in processing visual signals from both eyes and integrating them to form a complete visual perception.

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  • 45. 

    Seen in the early development and in slow growing tumors:

    • A.

      Focal polymorphic (Arrhythmic Delta)

    • B.

      Focal theta or slowing of the background activity

    • C.

      Loss of background activity/ attenuation

    • D.

      IRDA

    Correct Answer
    B. Focal theta or slowing of the background activity
    Explanation
    Focal theta or slowing of the background activity is seen in the early development and in slow-growing tumors. This indicates that there is abnormal electrical activity in a specific area of the brain, resulting in a decrease in the normal background brain waves. This finding can be suggestive of a localized brain abnormality or pathology, such as a tumor, which may not be rapidly progressing.

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  • 46. 

    Primary indicator of cerebral tumors, usually indicates deeper lesions: 

    • A.

      Focal polymorphic (Arrhythmic Delta)

    • B.

      Focal theta or slowing of the background activity

    • C.

      Loss of background activity/ attenuation

    • D.

      IRDA

    Correct Answer
    A. Focal polymorphic (Arrhythmic Delta)
    Explanation
    Focal polymorphic (Arrhythmic Delta) is the correct answer because it refers to a specific type of brain wave pattern that is often seen in cerebral tumors. This pattern is characterized by irregular and disorganized delta waves, which are slow brain waves typically associated with deep brain structures. Therefore, the presence of focal polymorphic (Arrhythmic Delta) waves on an EEG is a primary indicator of cerebral tumors, suggesting the presence of deeper lesions in the brain.

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  • 47. 

    Seen in tumors near the cortical surface: 

    • A.

      Focal polymorphic (Arrhythmic Delta)

    • B.

      Focal theta or slowing of the background activity

    • C.

      Loss of background activity/ attenuation

    • D.

      IRDA

    Correct Answer
    C. Loss of background activity/ attenuation
    Explanation
    Loss of background activity/attenuation refers to a pattern seen in tumors near the cortical surface. It indicates a decrease or absence of normal brain activity in the background, which can be observed on an electroencephalogram (EEG). This pattern is often associated with the presence of a tumor affecting the cortical tissue and disrupting normal brain function. The loss of background activity/attenuation can help clinicians identify the location and extent of the tumor and guide further diagnostic and treatment decisions.

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  • 48. 

    Seen in deep midline lesions and infratentorial tumors: 

    • A.

      Focal polymorphic (Arrhythmic Delta)

    • B.

      Focal theta or slowing of the background activity 

    • C.

      Loss of background activity/ attenuation

    • D.

      IRDA

    Correct Answer
    D. IRDA
    Explanation
    IRDA stands for "Infratentorial Rhythmic Delta Activity." It is seen in deep midline lesions and infratentorial tumors. This abnormal brain wave pattern is characterized by rhythmic delta activity that is arrhythmic, meaning it does not follow a regular pattern. IRDA can be detected on an electroencephalogram (EEG) and is often associated with structural abnormalities in the brain.

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  • 49. 

    Focal spike activity is seen in up to __ of patients with hemispheric tumors. 

    • A.

      20%

    • B.

      25%

    • C.

      30%

    • D.

      35%

    Correct Answer
    C. 30%
    Explanation
    Focal spike activity is a type of abnormal electrical activity in the brain that can be detected using electroencephalography (EEG) in patients with hemispheric tumors. This activity is characterized by sharp and brief bursts of electrical discharges. The given answer of 30% suggests that this type of abnormal activity is observed in approximately 30% of patients with hemispheric tumors.

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  • 50. 

    Reduction of blood flow due to occlusion of a vessel: 

    • A.

      Ischemic stroke 

    • B.

      Hemorrhagic stroke 

    • C.

      Arteriovenous Malformation (AVM) 

    • D.

      Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) 

    Correct Answer
    A. Ischemic stroke 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs when there is a reduction or blockage of blood flow to the brain due to the occlusion of a blood vessel. This can be caused by a blood clot or atherosclerosis. Without sufficient blood supply, the brain cells do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to their damage or death. Ischemic strokes are the most common type of stroke, accounting for about 87% of all strokes.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 01, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Themes
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