The Most Advanced Business Management MCQ Test

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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| Attempts: 508 | Questions: 147
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1. Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?

Explanation

The intent of a system security policy is to provide a brief high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted in the operation of a system. This statement helps to establish the boundaries and rules for the use and management of the system, ensuring that all users understand what actions are allowed and what actions are prohibited. It serves as a guiding document for implementing security measures and helps to maintain the overall security posture of the system.

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The Most Advanced Business Management MCQ Test - Quiz

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2. Which statement is MOST accurate in the majority of organizational structures?

Explanation

In the majority of organizational structures, the Security Officer is responsible for ensuring that recommendations to executive management are full, accurate, and complete. This indicates that the Security Officer plays a crucial role in providing comprehensive and accurate information to the top management, which helps in making informed decisions regarding security measures. This responsibility highlights the importance of the Security Officer in maintaining the integrity and effectiveness of the organization's security practices.

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3. What law provides intellectual property protection to the holders of trade secrets?

Explanation

The Economic Espionage Act provides intellectual property protection to the holders of trade secrets. This law makes it illegal to steal, copy, or distribute trade secrets for economic benefit. It aims to protect businesses from espionage and theft of valuable information that gives them a competitive advantage in the market. By criminalizing these actions, the Economic Espionage Act helps safeguard the intellectual property rights of trade secret holders and promotes innovation and economic growth.

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4. Which one of the following categories of organizations is most likely to be covered by the provisions of FISMA?

Explanation

Defense contractors are most likely to be covered by the provisions of FISMA because they often handle sensitive government information and are involved in national security projects. FISMA, which stands for the Federal Information Security Management Act, is a U.S. federal law that establishes guidelines and standards for securing federal information systems. As defense contractors work closely with government agencies and handle classified information, they are subject to FISMA regulations to ensure the protection of sensitive data and maintain the overall security of government systems.

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5. Beth is the security administrator for a public school district. She is implementing a new student information system and is testing the code to ensure that students are not able to alter their own grades. What principle of information security is Beth enforcing?

Explanation

Beth is enforcing the principle of integrity. Integrity in information security refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data. By testing the code to ensure that students cannot alter their own grades, Beth is ensuring the integrity of the student information system. This means that the data remains unchanged and trustworthy, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering.

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6. Users in the two offices would like to access each other's file servers over the internet. What control would provide confidentiality for those communications?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) would provide confidentiality for the communications between the two offices' file servers over the internet. A VPN creates a secure and encrypted connection between the two networks, ensuring that the data transmitted between them remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. This allows users in both offices to securely access each other's file servers without the risk of interception or eavesdropping.

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7. HAL Systems recently decided to stop offering public NTP services because of a fear that its NTP servers would be used in amplification DDoS attacks. What type of risk management strategy did HAL pursue with respect to its NTP services?

Explanation

HAL Systems pursued a risk avoidance strategy with respect to its NTP services. By deciding to stop offering public NTP services, they are actively avoiding the risk of their NTP servers being used in amplification DDoS attacks. This strategy involves completely eliminating the potential risk by not engaging in the activity that could lead to the risk.

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8. Who is the ideal person to approve an organization's business continuity plan?

Explanation

The ideal person to approve an organization's business continuity plan is the Chief executive officer. As the highest-ranking executive in the organization, the CEO has the authority and responsibility to make strategic decisions that impact the entire organization. Approving the business continuity plan ensures that it aligns with the organization's overall goals and objectives and that it receives the necessary resources and support for successful implementation.

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9. Every year, Gary receives privacy notices in the mail from financial institutions where he has accounts. What law requires the institutions to send Gary these notices?

Explanation

The correct answer is GLBA. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) is a law that requires financial institutions to send privacy notices to their customers, like Gary, explaining their information-sharing practices. This law aims to protect the privacy of individuals' personal and financial information held by financial institutions. FERPA, HIPAA, and HITECH are all different laws related to privacy, but they do not specifically require financial institutions to send privacy notices.

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10. 80. Ben is responsible for the security of payment card information stored in a database. Policy directs that he remove the information from the database, but he cannot do this for operational reasons. He obtained an exception to policy and is seeking an appropriate compensating control to mitigate the risk. What would be his best option?

Explanation

Encrypting the database contents would be Ben's best option as a compensating control to mitigate the risk of storing payment card information. Encryption would ensure that even if unauthorized individuals gain access to the database, they would not be able to read or use the sensitive information without the decryption key. This helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the payment card information, reducing the risk of data breaches and unauthorized use.

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11. Which one of the following is the first step in developing an organization's vital records program?

Explanation

The first step in developing an organization's vital records program is to identify vital records. This involves determining which records are critical to the functioning and continuity of the organization. By identifying these vital records, the organization can prioritize their preservation and ensure that they are properly managed and protected.

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12. Which one of the following security programs is designed to establish a minimum standard common denominator of security understanding?

Explanation

Awareness is the correct answer because it refers to a security program that aims to establish a minimum standard common denominator of security understanding. Awareness programs are designed to educate individuals about potential security risks, threats, and best practices in order to enhance their knowledge and minimize vulnerabilities. These programs typically focus on increasing the overall understanding and consciousness of security measures among individuals within an organization or community.

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13. Henry is the risk manager for Atwood Landing, a resort community in the midwestern United States. The resort's main data center is located in northern Indiana in an area that is prone to tornados. Henry recently undertook a replacement cost analysis and determined that rebuilding and reconfiguring the data center would cost $10 million. Henry consulted with tornado experts, data center specialists, and structural engineers. Together, they determined that a typical tornado would cause approximately $5 million of damage to the facility. The meteorologists determined that Atwood's facility lies in an area where they are likely to experience a tornado once every 200 years. Based upon the information in this scenario, what is the annualized rate of occurrence for a tornado at Atwood Landing's data center?

Explanation

The annualized rate of occurrence for a tornado at Atwood Landing's data center is 0.005. This is calculated by dividing the average frequency of tornadoes (once every 200 years) by the total number of years in a period (1). Therefore, 1 divided by 200 equals 0.005.

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14. A compensating control is _____

Explanation

A compensating control is a control put in place to overcome the shortcomings of another control. This means that when one control is not effective or disabled, a compensating control is implemented to ensure that the system or process remains secure. It acts as an alternative measure to mitigate risks and maintain the desired level of security.

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15. 51. Which one of the following is not normally included in business continuity plan documentation?

Explanation

The statement of accounts is not normally included in business continuity plan documentation. A business continuity plan typically focuses on outlining procedures and strategies to ensure the continuation of critical business operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. The statement of accounts, which typically includes financial information such as income, expenses, and balances, is not directly related to the planning and execution of business continuity measures.

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16. Which one of the following is not normally considered a business continuity task?

Explanation

Electronic vaulting is not normally considered a business continuity task because it is a specific method of data backup and recovery, rather than a broader task related to planning and preparing for business disruptions. Business impact assessment involves identifying potential risks and evaluating their potential impact on the organization. Emergency response guidelines provide instructions for responding to and managing emergencies. Vital records program focuses on identifying and protecting critical records necessary for the organization's operations. In contrast, electronic vaulting specifically refers to the process of regularly backing up data to an offsite location for safekeeping, which is a more specific and technical task.

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17. James is conducting a risk assessment for his organization and is attempting to assign an asset value to the servers in his data center. The organization's primary concern is ensuring that it has sufficient funds available to rebuild the data center in the event it is damaged or destroyed. Which one of the following asset valuation methods would be most appropriate in this situation?

Explanation

In this situation, the most appropriate asset valuation method would be replacement cost. This method considers the cost of replacing the servers in the data center in the event they are damaged or destroyed. It takes into account the current market value of the servers and ensures that sufficient funds are available to rebuild the data center to its original state. This method is ideal for organizations that prioritize the ability to recover from a disaster and ensure business continuity.

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18. Which one of the following is not a requirement for an invention to be patentable?

Explanation

The requirement for an invention to be patentable is that it must be new, nonobvious, and useful. However, there is no requirement that the invention must be invented by an American citizen. Patentability is determined by the novelty, nonobviousness, and utility of the invention, regardless of the nationality of the inventor.

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19. 90. Which one of the following tools is most often used for identification purposes and is not suitable for use as an authenticator?

Explanation

A username is most often used for identification purposes as it helps to uniquely identify a user within a system. It is not suitable for use as an authenticator because it is not a secret or personal piece of information that can verify the identity of the user. Instead, it is typically a public or easily guessable identifier that is used in combination with a password or another form of authentication to verify the user's identity.

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20. If a company has no written policy notifying employees of its right to monitor network activity, what must it do to be in compliance with certain privacy laws or principles?

Explanation

To be in compliance with certain privacy laws or principles, if a company has no written policy notifying employees of its right to monitor network activity, it must not capture any network traffic related to monitoring employee's activity. This means that the company should refrain from monitoring or recording any data or information about the employees' network activities without their knowledge or consent. This is important to protect the privacy rights of the employees and ensure compliance with privacy laws.

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21. What are the rights and obligations of individuals and organizations with respect to the collection, use, retention, and disclosure of personal information related to?

Explanation

The rights and obligations of individuals and organizations with respect to the collection, use, retention, and disclosure of personal information pertain to privacy. Privacy refers to the right of individuals to keep their personal information confidential and control its use. It involves protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access, ensuring the security and confidentiality of personal information, and obtaining consent before collecting or using personal data. Privacy rights also include the obligation to handle personal information responsibly and in compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

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22. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be required to quantify the impact associated with a potential disaster to a commercial enterprise?

Explanation

Acquiring information from government agencies about the likelihood of a natural disaster occurring is least likely to be required to quantify the impact associated with a potential disaster to a commercial enterprise. While it is important to be aware of the likelihood of a natural disaster, quantifying the impact would primarily involve identifying the organization's key business functions, identifying critical computer systems, and estimating the financial impact based on the duration of an outage. The likelihood of a natural disaster is relevant for disaster preparedness and mitigation, but not directly for quantifying the impact.

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23. Which of the following best defines a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Explanation

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is the process of analyzing all business functions to determine the impact of an outage. This involves assessing the potential consequences and effects of a disruption or outage on various aspects of the organization, including operations, finances, reputation, and customer satisfaction. By conducting a BIA, organizations can identify critical processes and functions that need to be prioritized for recovery, develop appropriate contingency plans, and allocate resources effectively to minimize the impact of an outage on the business.

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24. Governance involves ______

Explanation

Governance involves the organizational structure that includes standards, procedures, and policies. This means that governance encompasses the framework and framework of an organization, including the rules and guidelines that guide its operations. It includes the establishment of standards, the development of procedures, and the implementation of policies to ensure that the organization operates in a transparent, accountable, and ethical manner.

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25. What is essential to get from an employee or contractor when they leave an organization?

Explanation

When an employee or contractor leaves an organization, it is essential to retrieve their badge. This is important to ensure that the person no longer has access to the company's premises or resources. By collecting the badge, the organization can prevent unauthorized entry and protect sensitive information or assets. Additionally, it helps maintain security and control over the physical premises.

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26. Match the following numbered wireless attack terms with their appropriate lettered descriptions:
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27. Under the Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA), what type of offenses do not require prompt action by an internet service provider after it receives a notification of infringement claim from a copyright holder?

Explanation

The DMCA requires internet service providers to take prompt action when they receive a notification of infringement claim from a copyright holder. However, the transmission of information over the provider's network by a customer does not fall under the category of offenses that require prompt action. The other options, such as storage of information, caching of information by the provider, and caching of information in a provider search engine, may require prompt action by the internet service provider.

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28. Which one of the following is not one of the three common threat modeling techniques?

Explanation

The three common threat modeling techniques are focused on assets, focused on attackers, and focused on software. These techniques involve identifying and analyzing potential threats and vulnerabilities related to the assets, attackers, and software involved in a system or application. However, the technique focused on social engineering is not one of the three common techniques. Social engineering refers to the manipulation of individuals to gain unauthorized access or sensitive information, and while it is an important aspect to consider in security, it is not one of the primary techniques used in threat modeling.

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29. Which one of the following elements of information is not considered personally identifiable information that would trigger most United States (U.S.) state data breach laws?

Explanation

A student identification number is not considered personally identifiable information that would trigger most U.S. state data breach laws. While social security number, driver's license number, and credit card number are all considered personally identifiable information and are protected by data breach laws, a student identification number typically does not contain enough personal information to be considered as such. It is often a randomly generated or assigned number that is used solely for identification purposes within an educational institution and does not reveal any sensitive personal details.

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30. You are completing your business continuity planning effort and have decided that you wish to accept one of the risks. What should you do next?

Explanation

After completing the business continuity planning effort and deciding to accept a risk, the next step should be to document the decision-making process. This is important for several reasons. Firstly, it provides a record of the rationale behind accepting the risk, which can be useful for future reference or audits. Secondly, it ensures that the decision is communicated to relevant stakeholders and helps in maintaining transparency. Lastly, documenting the decision-making process allows for better accountability and helps in monitoring the effectiveness of the decision in the long run.

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31. Tony is developing a business continuity plan and is having difficulty prioritizing resources because of the difficulty of combining information about tangible and intangible assets. What would be the most effective risk assessment approach for him to use?

Explanation

The most effective risk assessment approach for Tony to use would be a combination of quantitative and qualitative risk assessment. This approach would allow him to consider both tangible and intangible assets in his prioritization of resources. Quantitative risk assessment involves assigning numerical values to risks based on probability and impact, while qualitative risk assessment involves a more subjective evaluation of risks based on expert judgment and experience. By combining these two approaches, Tony can gather a comprehensive understanding of the risks involved and make informed decisions about resource allocation in his business continuity plan.

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32. Which one of the following principles imposes a standard of care upon an individual that is broad and equivalent to what one would expect from a reasonable person under the circumstances?

Explanation

Due care is a principle that imposes a standard of care upon an individual that is broad and equivalent to what one would expect from a reasonable person under the circumstances. It requires individuals to take reasonable measures to prevent harm or injury to others and to act in a manner that is in line with accepted standards and practices. This principle applies to various fields, including law, business, and healthcare, and it serves as a benchmark for determining whether an individual has acted responsibly and reasonably in a given situation.

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33. When developing a business impact analysis, the team should first create a list of assets. What should happen next?

Explanation

After creating a list of assets, the next step in developing a business impact analysis is to determine the value of each asset. This involves assessing the importance and worth of each asset to the organization. By assigning a value to each asset, the team can prioritize their efforts and focus on protecting the most critical assets. Identifying vulnerabilities, determining risks, and identifying threats would come later in the process, after the value of each asset has been established.

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34. Mike recently implemented an intrusion prevention system designed to block common network attacks from affecting his organization. What type of risk management strategy is Mike pursuing?

Explanation

Mike is pursuing a risk mitigation strategy by implementing an intrusion prevention system. Risk mitigation involves taking proactive measures to reduce the impact or likelihood of risks. In this case, Mike is implementing a system that can identify and block common network attacks, thereby reducing the risk of these attacks affecting his organization. This strategy aims to minimize potential damages and protect the organization's assets.

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35. The International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium uses the logo shown here to represent itself online and in a variety of forums. What type of intellectual property protection may it use to protect its rights in this logo?

Explanation

The International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium may use trademark protection to protect its rights in the logo. A trademark is a form of intellectual property that provides exclusive rights to use a particular logo, symbol, or design in connection with a specific product or service. By registering the logo as a trademark, the consortium can prevent others from using a similar logo that may cause confusion among consumers and dilute the consortium's brand identity. Trademark protection helps to establish and maintain the consortium's reputation and distinguish its services from others in the market.

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36. 32. What government agency is responsible for the evaluation and registration of trademarks?

Explanation

The correct answer is USPTO. USPTO stands for the United States Patent and Trademark Office, which is a government agency responsible for evaluating and registering trademarks. The USPTO plays a crucial role in protecting intellectual property rights by granting trademark registrations to qualified applicants. They ensure that trademarks are unique and not infringing on existing trademarks, allowing businesses to differentiate their products and services in the market.

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37. Which one of the following individuals is normally responsible for fulfilling the operational data protection responsibilities delegated by senior management, such as validating data integrity, testing backups, and managing security policies?

Explanation

The data custodian is typically responsible for fulfilling the operational data protection responsibilities delegated by senior management. This includes tasks such as validating data integrity, testing backups, and managing security policies. The data custodian is responsible for the day-to-day management and protection of the data, ensuring its availability, confidentiality, and integrity. They work closely with the data owner, who is responsible for determining the overall data strategy and making decisions regarding data access and usage. The user is the individual who interacts with the data, while the auditor is responsible for assessing and evaluating the effectiveness of data protection measures.

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38. Florian receives a flyer from a federal agency announcing that a new administrative law will affect his business operations. Where should he go to find the text of the law?

Explanation

Florian should go to the Code of Federal Regulations to find the text of the new administrative law. The Code of Federal Regulations is a collection of all the rules and regulations created by federal agencies in the United States. It is organized by subject matter and provides a comprehensive and up-to-date source of administrative law. The United States Code contains the general and permanent laws of the United States, but it does not include the specific regulations issued by federal agencies. Supreme Court rulings are decisions made by the highest court in the United States and may not necessarily provide the text of the specific administrative law Florian is looking for. A Compendium of Laws is not a specific legal source and may not contain the text of the new administrative law.

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39. The following graphic shows the NIST risk management framework with step 4 missing. What is the missing step?

Explanation

The missing step in the NIST risk management framework is "Assess security controls." This step involves evaluating the effectiveness of the implemented security controls to determine if they are adequately protecting the system and data. It helps identify any weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the controls and provides insights into the overall security posture. This assessment is crucial for making informed decisions about mitigating risks and implementing necessary improvements in the security controls.

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40. Ben is seeking a control objective framework that is widely accepted around the world and focuses specifically on information security controls. Which one of the following frameworks would best meet his needs?

Explanation

ISO 27002 is the best framework for Ben's needs because it is widely accepted globally and specifically focuses on information security controls. ITIL is a framework for IT service management, CMM is a framework for software development, and PMBOK Guide is a framework for project management. None of these frameworks specifically focus on information security controls like ISO 27002 does.

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41. Which one of the following stakeholders is not typically included on a business continuity planning team?

Explanation

The CEO is not typically included on a business continuity planning team because their role is to oversee the entire organization and make strategic decisions, rather than being directly involved in the day-to-day operations or specific functions. The business continuity planning team usually consists of core business function leaders who have a deep understanding of their respective areas, information technology staff who can assess and address technological risks, and support departments who can provide necessary resources and support during a crisis. The CEO's involvement may be limited to providing guidance and approval for the overall business continuity plan.

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42. The Domer Industries risk assessment team recently conducted a qualitative risk assessment and developed a matrix similar to the one shown here. Which quadrant contains the risks that require the most immediate attention?  

Explanation

The risks that require the most immediate attention are located in quadrant I. This is because quadrant I represents the risks that have a high likelihood of occurring and would have a severe impact on the organization if they were to occur. Therefore, these risks should be addressed and mitigated as soon as possible to prevent any potential harm or negative consequences to the organization.

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43. Rolando is a risk manager with a large-scale enterprise. The firm recently evaluated the risk of California mudslides on its operations in the region and determined that the cost of responding outweighed the benefits of any controls it could implement. The company chose to take no action at this time. What risk management strategy did Rolando's organization pursue?

Explanation

The organization pursued a risk mitigation strategy by evaluating the risk of California mudslides and determining that the cost of responding outweighed the benefits of implementing controls. This means that instead of avoiding the risk or transferring it to another party, the organization chose to take action to reduce or mitigate the potential impact of the risk.

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44. Helen is the owner of a website that provides information for middle and high school students preparing for exams. She is concerned that the activities of her site may fall under the jurisdiction of the Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA). What is the cutoff age below which parents must give consent in advance of the collection of personal information from their children under COPPA?

Explanation

The cutoff age below which parents must give consent in advance of the collection of personal information from their children under COPPA is 13. COPPA requires websites to obtain parental consent before collecting personal information from children under the age of 13.

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45. Which one do you like?

Explanation

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46. Which one of the following security programs is designed to provide employees with the knowledge they need to perform their specific work tasks?

Explanation

Training is the correct answer because it is a security program designed to equip employees with the necessary knowledge and skills to carry out their specific work tasks. Training programs focus on teaching employees about security protocols, procedures, and best practices relevant to their job roles. This helps employees understand potential risks and how to mitigate them, ensuring they can effectively contribute to maintaining a secure work environment.

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47. John is analyzing an attack against his company in which the attacker found comments embedded in HTML code that provided the clues needed to exploit a software vulnerability. Using the STRIDE model, what type of attack did he uncover?

Explanation

John uncovered an attack that involved the attacker finding comments embedded in HTML code that provided the clues needed to exploit a software vulnerability. This type of attack is known as information disclosure, as it involves the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information that can be used to exploit vulnerabilities in a system.

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48. 100. Which one of the following is an administrative control that can protect the confidentiality of information?

Explanation

A nondisclosure agreement is an administrative control that can protect the confidentiality of information. This agreement is a legal contract between two or more parties, where they agree not to disclose certain confidential information to any third party. By signing this agreement, individuals or organizations commit to keeping sensitive information confidential, thereby preventing unauthorized access or disclosure. Unlike encryption, firewall, or fault tolerance, which are technical controls, a nondisclosure agreement focuses on the human aspect of information security, ensuring that individuals are legally bound to maintain confidentiality.

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49. STRIDE, PASTA, and VAST are all examples of what type of tool?

Explanation

STRIDE, PASTA, and VAST are all examples of threat modeling methodologies. Threat modeling is a process used to identify and prioritize potential threats and vulnerabilities in a system or application. STRIDE, PASTA, and VAST are specific methodologies that provide structured approaches to threat modeling, helping organizations systematically analyze and address potential threats. These methodologies help in identifying and mitigating security risks by considering various factors such as system components, potential attackers, and possible attack vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is threat modeling methodologies.

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50. Which of the following is a realistic goal of every loss prevention program?

Explanation

A realistic goal of every loss prevention program is to permit losses that aren't very important. This means that while it is not feasible to completely prevent all losses, the program aims to minimize and manage losses to a level that is acceptable and not significant. This approach recognizes that some losses may still occur, but the focus is on prioritizing and addressing the most critical and impactful losses, rather than trying to achieve a perfect prevention rate.

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51. Which is the FIRST step that should be considered in a penetration test?

Explanation

The formulation of specific management objectives is the first step that should be considered in a penetration test. This involves defining clear goals and objectives for the test, such as identifying vulnerabilities, testing the effectiveness of security measures, or assessing the overall security posture of the system. By establishing specific management objectives, the penetration testing team can align their efforts and focus on achieving the desired outcomes. This step ensures that the test is conducted with a clear purpose and direction, guiding the subsequent phases of the penetration testing process.

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52. Under the principle of negligence, executives can be held liable for losses that result from system breaches if

Explanation

Under the principle of negligence, executives can be held liable for losses that result from system breaches if they have not exercised due care protecting computing resources. This means that if the executives have not taken reasonable steps to secure and protect the company's computer systems and data, they can be held responsible for any damages or losses that occur as a result of a breach. This includes implementing security measures, regularly updating and patching systems, and training employees on cybersecurity best practices. Failing to do so can be seen as a failure of their duty of care, making them liable for any resulting losses.

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53. The organizational information security plan can

Explanation

The correct answer is "Align organizational data protection schemes to business goals". This answer is the most appropriate because aligning data protection schemes to business goals ensures that the security measures implemented by the organization are in line with its overall objectives. It ensures that the organization's data protection efforts are focused on safeguarding the information that is critical to achieving its strategic goals. By aligning data protection schemes to business goals, the organization can prioritize its security efforts and allocate resources accordingly. This approach helps to ensure that the organization's data and information are protected in a way that supports its overall business objectives.

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54. Which of these is the MOST important factor when considering the alignment between release a product and making it secure?

Explanation

When considering the alignment between releasing a product and making it secure, service level agreements are the most important factor. Service level agreements outline the specific security requirements and expectations that need to be met during the release process. These agreements ensure that proper security measures are implemented, such as encryption, access controls, and vulnerability testing, to protect the product and its users. By prioritizing service level agreements, organizations can ensure that the product is released securely and meets the necessary security standards.

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55. Which of these Intellectual Property Law concepts is NOT a part of Contract Law?

Explanation

Public domain is not a part of Contract Law because it is a concept related to the availability of creative works that are not protected by intellectual property rights. When a work is in the public domain, it means that anyone can use, modify, or distribute it without the need for permission or a contract. In contrast, commercial software, shareware, and freeware are all concepts that involve the licensing and distribution of software under specific contractual terms.

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56. In order to determine whether encrypted messages can be sent between any two particular countries, which resource should be consulted?

Explanation

The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) should be consulted to determine whether encrypted messages can be sent between any two particular countries. The OECD is an international organization that promotes economic growth, trade, and cooperation among its member countries. It provides guidelines and recommendations on various economic and policy issues, including encryption regulations. Therefore, consulting the OECD would provide relevant information on the regulations and restrictions regarding encrypted messages between countries.

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57. Which of these is one of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) guidelines on privacy?

Explanation

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58. In risk analysis calculations, which of these statements is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is ALE (Annual Loss Expectancy) equals Asset Value (AV) times EF times ARO. ALE is a measure of the expected loss in a year, and it is calculated by multiplying the Asset Value (AV) by the Exposure Factor (EF) and the Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO). This formula takes into account the potential loss value of an asset, the likelihood of an event occurring, and the extent of the potential loss if the event does occur. By multiplying these factors together, we can estimate the expected loss in a given year.

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59. Which of these statements is MOST likely to trigger a change in policy?

Explanation

A large number of approved exceptions is most likely to trigger a change in policy because it indicates that the current policy is not effective in addressing certain situations. When there are numerous exceptions being approved, it suggests that the policy may not be practical or suitable for all scenarios. This could lead to a reassessment of the policy and the need for a change to ensure better compliance and alignment with the organization's goals and objectives.

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60. Which one of the following actions might be taken as part of a business continuity plan?

Explanation

Implementing RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) can be taken as part of a business continuity plan. RAID is a technology that combines multiple hard drives into a single logical unit to provide redundancy and improve data availability. By implementing RAID, a business can ensure that even if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the other disks, minimizing downtime and ensuring business continuity. RAID is a proactive measure to prevent data loss and maintain uninterrupted operations in the event of hardware failures.

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61. Alan works for an e-commerce company that recently had some content stolen by another website and republished without permission. What type of intellectual property protection would best preserve Alan's company's rights?

Explanation

Copyright would best preserve Alan's company's rights in this situation. Copyright protects original works of authorship, such as written content, images, and software code. By obtaining copyright protection, Alan's company can prevent others from copying, distributing, or displaying their stolen content without permission. This would help preserve the company's rights and allow them to take legal action against the website that republished their content without authorization.

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62. Which one of the following is not a goal of a formal change management program?

Explanation

A formal change management program aims to implement change in an orderly fashion, test changes before implementation, and provide rollback plans for changes. However, informing stakeholders of changes after they occur is not a goal of the program. The program focuses on ensuring that stakeholders are informed and involved throughout the change process, rather than waiting until after the changes have already taken place.

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63. Tom is planning to terminate an employee this afternoon for fraud and expects that the meeting will be somewhat hostile. He is coordinating the meeting with Human Resources and wants to protect the company against damage. Which one of the following steps is most important to coordinate in time with the termination meeting?

Explanation

Revoking electronic access rights is the most important step to coordinate in time with the termination meeting because it ensures that the terminated employee will no longer have access to company systems, data, and resources. This helps protect the company against potential damage or misuse of sensitive information. By revoking electronic access rights promptly, the company can prevent the employee from causing any harm or unauthorized actions after the termination.

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64. Craig is selecting the site for a new data center and must choose a location somewhere within the United States. He obtained the earthquake risk map shown here from the United States Geological Survey. Which of the following would be the safest location to build his facility if he were primarily concerned with earthquake risk?

Explanation

Florida would be the safest location to build the data center if Craig is primarily concerned with earthquake risk. This is because Florida has a relatively low risk of earthquakes compared to the other options. The state is located on the eastern coast of the United States, which is not prone to significant seismic activity. Therefore, choosing Florida would minimize the potential damage and disruption that could be caused by earthquakes.

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65. Henry is the risk manager for Atwood Landing, a resort community in the midwestern United States. The resort's main data center is located in northern Indiana in an area that is prone to tornados. Henry recently undertook a replacement cost analysis and determined that rebuilding and reconfiguring the data center would cost $10 million. Henry consulted with tornado experts, data center specialists, and structural engineers. Together, they determined that a typical tornado would cause approximately $5 million of damage to the facility. The meteorologists determined that Atwood's facility lies in an area where they are likely to experience a tornado once every 200 years. Based upon the information in this scenario, what is the exposure factor for the effect of a tornado on Atwood Landing's data center?

Explanation

The exposure factor for the effect of a tornado on Atwood Landing's data center is 50%. This means that if a tornado were to occur, the data center would experience 50% of the total potential damage, which is estimated to be $5 million. This percentage is determined based on the analysis and consultation with tornado experts, data center specialists, and structural engineers. The exposure factor is a measure of the vulnerability of the data center to tornado damage.

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66. An information security policy does NOT usually include:

Explanation

An information security policy typically includes guidelines for how to implement policy, as it serves as a set of instructions and procedures for ensuring the security of information within an organization. However, it does not usually include the authority for the information security department, the basis for data classification, or the recognition of information as an asset of the organization. These elements may be addressed in separate documents or policies.

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67. A newly assigned Risk Manager requests access to a file share containing corporate financial records. The access request is reviewed by the Chief Financial Officer who determines that access will be granted to only three files for one month. This principle is referred to as:

Explanation

The principle referred to in this scenario is "Least privilege." This principle ensures that individuals are granted access only to the resources and information necessary for them to perform their job duties. In this case, the Risk Manager is granted access to only three files for a limited period of time, indicating that they are given the minimum privileges required to fulfill their role. This principle helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of sensitive financial records.

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68. Which of the following would BEST help an organization to gain a common understanding of functions that are critical to survival?

Explanation

A business impact analysis would be the best option to help an organization gain a common understanding of critical functions for survival. This analysis involves identifying and evaluating the potential impact of disruptions on various business processes. By conducting a business impact analysis, the organization can determine which functions are crucial for its survival and prioritize them accordingly. This analysis helps in understanding the potential consequences of disruptions and enables the organization to develop strategies and plans to mitigate risks and ensure continuity.

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69. When conducting the business impact assessment, business processes are examined relative to all EXCEPT:

Explanation

During a business impact assessment, various aspects of a business are evaluated to determine the potential impact of an incident or disruption. This includes assessing the effects on customers, such as interruptions or loss of confidence, as well as the potential revenue loss. However, the assessment does not focus on the impacts on executive management disruption. This means that the evaluation does not consider how the disruption might affect the executives or their ability to perform their roles.

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70. An organizational information security strategy is incomplete without

Explanation

An organizational information security strategy is incomplete without incorporating input from organizational privacy and safety professionals. These professionals have the knowledge and expertise to identify potential risks and vulnerabilities in the organization's systems and processes. By involving them in the development of the security strategy, the organization can ensure that all aspects of privacy and safety are considered and addressed effectively. This collaboration also helps in creating a comprehensive and well-rounded security strategy that aligns with the organization's goals and objectives.

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71. Which of these terms is MOST closely related to confidentiality?

Explanation

Confidentiality is the principle of limiting access to sensitive information to authorized individuals only. The term "need-to-know" is closely related to confidentiality because it refers to the idea that access to confidential information should be granted only to individuals who have a legitimate need for that information to perform their job responsibilities. This helps to ensure that sensitive information is protected and not disclosed to unauthorized parties.

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72. Which of these deals with international copyright agreements?

Explanation

WIPO stands for World Intellectual Property Organization, which is an international organization that deals with intellectual property rights, including copyright agreements. It provides a forum for member countries to negotiate and establish international treaties and agreements related to copyright protection. WIPO's main goal is to promote and protect intellectual property rights worldwide, including copyright laws and agreements between countries. Therefore, WIPO is the correct answer for the question.

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73. What is the final step of a quantitative risk analysis?

Explanation

The final step of a quantitative risk analysis is to conduct a cost/benefit analysis. This involves weighing the potential costs of implementing risk mitigation measures against the potential benefits of reducing or eliminating the identified risks. By conducting a cost/benefit analysis, organizations can make informed decisions about which risk mitigation measures are most cost-effective and prioritize their implementation accordingly. This step helps to ensure that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively to manage risks in a way that maximizes the overall benefit to the organization.

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74. In 1991, the Federal Sentencing Guidelines formalized a rule that requires senior executives to take personal responsibility for information security matters. What is the name of this rule?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Prudent man rule. This rule, formalized in 1991 by the Federal Sentencing Guidelines, requires senior executives to take personal responsibility for information security matters. It implies that executives should act with the care, skill, and diligence that a prudent person would exercise in similar circumstances. This rule holds executives accountable for ensuring the security of information within their organizations.

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75. What United States government agency is responsible for administering the terms of privacy shield agreements between the European Union and the United States under the EU GDPR?

Explanation

The Department of Commerce is responsible for administering the terms of privacy shield agreements between the European Union and the United States under the EU GDPR. This agency oversees international trade and economic growth, making it the most suitable entity to handle the implementation and enforcement of privacy shield agreements. The Department of Defense, Department of the Treasury, and State Department do not have the specific jurisdiction or expertise in this area, making them unlikely choices for this responsibility.

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76. Yolanda is the chief privacy officer for a financial institution and is researching privacy issues related to customer checking accounts. Which one of the following laws is most likely to apply to this situation?

Explanation

GLBA, also known as the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, is the most likely law to apply to Yolanda's situation as the chief privacy officer for a financial institution researching privacy issues related to customer checking accounts. The GLBA requires financial institutions to explain their information-sharing practices to their customers and protect the privacy and security of customer information. It also requires institutions to have safeguards in place to protect against unauthorized access or use of customer information. Therefore, GLBA is the most relevant law in this context.

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77. Tim's organization recently received a contract to conduct sponsored research as a government contractor. What law now likely applies to the information systems involved in this contract?

Explanation

FISMA, which stands for the Federal Information Security Management Act, is the most likely law that applies to the information systems involved in Tim's organization's government contract for sponsored research. FISMA is a United States federal law that establishes a framework for protecting the security of federal information and information systems. As a government contractor, Tim's organization is required to comply with FISMA regulations to ensure the security of the information systems used for the sponsored research. PCI DSS, HIPAA, and GISRA are not applicable in this context.

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78. Darcy is designing a fault tolerant system and wants to implement RAID level 5 for her system. What is the minimum number of physical hard disks she can use to build this system?

Explanation

RAID level 5 requires a minimum of three physical hard disks to be implemented. In this configuration, data is striped across multiple disks with parity information distributed among them. This provides fault tolerance by allowing the system to continue functioning even if one disk fails. With only two disks, RAID level 1 (mirroring) would be the minimum option, while five disks would allow for RAID level 6 (dual parity). Therefore, the correct answer is three.

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79. Keenan Systems recently developed a new manufacturing process for microprocessors. The company wants to license the technology to other companies for use but wishes to prevent unauthorized use of the technology. What type of intellectual property protection is best suited for this situation?

Explanation

A patent is the best type of intellectual property protection for this situation because it provides exclusive rights to the inventor to prevent others from making, using, or selling the patented technology without permission. This would allow Keenan Systems to license the technology to other companies while still maintaining control over its use and preventing unauthorized use. Trade secrets, copyrights, and trademarks do not provide the same level of protection for a manufacturing process like microprocessors.

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80. Which one of the following is an example of physical infrastructure hardening?

Explanation

A fire suppression system is an example of physical infrastructure hardening because it is a measure taken to protect the physical infrastructure from the threat of fire. It is a system designed to detect and suppress fires, preventing them from spreading and causing damage to the infrastructure. This type of hardening is important to ensure the safety and continuity of operations in a physical environment.

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81. Which one of the following is normally used as an authorization tool?

Explanation

ACL stands for Access Control List, which is a commonly used authorization tool in computer systems. It is a set of rules or permissions that determines what actions or operations a user or group of users can perform on a system or network. ACLs are used to control access to resources, such as files, folders, or network devices, by specifying who is allowed or denied access. They provide a flexible and granular way to manage and enforce security policies, ensuring that only authorized individuals can access certain resources.

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82. Mary is helping a computer user who sees the following message appear on his computer screen. What type of attack has occurred?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Availability" because the message on the computer screen indicates that there is an attack that is affecting the user's ability to access or use their computer system. This type of attack is often aimed at disrupting or interrupting the availability of the system, making it difficult or impossible for the user to perform their tasks effectively.

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83. Which one of the following organizations would not be automatically subject to the terms of HIPAA if they engage in electronic transactions?

Explanation

A healthcare provider would not be automatically subject to the terms of HIPAA if they engage in electronic transactions. This is because healthcare providers are already covered under HIPAA regulations regardless of whether they engage in electronic transactions or not. HIPAA applies to healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses, but healthcare providers are not exempt from HIPAA even if they do not engage in electronic transactions.

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84. 31. Renee is designing the long-term security plan for her organization and has a three- to five-year planning horizon. What type of plan is she developing?

Explanation

Renee is developing a strategic plan because she is designing a long-term security plan for her organization with a three- to five-year planning horizon. Strategic plans are typically long-term plans that outline an organization's goals and objectives and the actions needed to achieve them. They focus on the overall direction and vision of the organization and involve making decisions that will have a significant impact on its future.

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85. Robert is responsible for securing systems used to process credit card information. What standard should guide his actions?

Explanation

Robert should follow the PCI DSS standard to guide his actions. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security requirements designed to ensure the protection of cardholder data. It provides guidelines for the secure processing, storage, and transmission of credit card information. As Robert is responsible for securing systems used to process credit card information, adhering to the PCI DSS standard would help him ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data, and reduce the risk of data breaches and fraud.

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86. Tom enables an application firewall provided by his cloud infrastructure as a service provider that is designed to block many types of application attacks. When viewed from a risk management perspective, what metric is Tom attempting to lower?

Explanation

Tom is attempting to lower the likelihood of application attacks by enabling the application firewall. By doing so, he is reducing the probability or chance of these attacks occurring. This is a risk management strategy as it helps to mitigate the potential impact of such attacks on his cloud infrastructure.

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87. Which one of the following individuals would be the most effective organizational owner for an information security program?

Explanation

The most effective organizational owner for an information security program would be the Chief Information Officer (CIO). As the CIO, this individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the organization's information technology and systems. They have the authority and knowledge to make strategic decisions regarding information security and can ensure that it is integrated into the overall business strategy. The CIO also has the ability to allocate resources, implement policies and procedures, and enforce compliance to protect the organization's information assets.

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88. What important function do senior managers normally fill on a business continuity planning team?

Explanation

Senior managers typically fill the role of arbitrating disputes about criticality on a business continuity planning team. This means that they are responsible for resolving any disagreements or conflicts that may arise regarding the importance or priority of certain aspects of the business continuity plan. Their experience and expertise in the organization's operations make them well-suited to make informed decisions and ensure that the most critical functions and processes are given appropriate attention and resources during the planning process.

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89. You are the CISO for a major hospital system and are preparing to sign a contract with a software as a service (SaaS) email vendor and want to ensure that its business continuity planning measures are reasonable. What type of audit might you request to meet this goal?

Explanation

To ensure that the business continuity planning measures of the SaaS email vendor are reasonable, the CISO might request a SOC 2 audit. SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is an auditing standard that focuses on the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a service organization's systems. This audit evaluates the vendor's controls and processes related to these areas, providing assurance that their business continuity planning is adequate and meets industry standards.

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90. Which one of the following issues is not normally addressed in a service-level agreement (SLA)?

Explanation

Confidentiality of customer information is not normally addressed in a service-level agreement (SLA) because it is typically covered by a separate agreement, such as a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) or a data protection agreement. SLAs primarily focus on the performance and availability of the service, including metrics like failover time, uptime, and maximum consecutive downtime. However, the protection of customer information is still crucial and should be addressed in other agreements to ensure proper data security and privacy.

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91. You are also concerned about the availability of data stored on each office's server. You would like to add technology that would enable continued access to files located on the server even if a hard drive in a server fails. What integrity control allows you to add robustness without adding additional servers?

Explanation

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that allows for continued access to files located on a server even if a hard drive fails. It achieves this by distributing data across multiple disks in a way that provides redundancy and fault tolerance. In the event of a drive failure, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives in the RAID array. This means that even without adding additional servers, RAID can provide robustness and ensure the availability of data stored on each office's server.

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92. Finally, there are historical records stored on the server that are extremely important to the business and should never be modified. You would like to add an integrity control that allows you to verify on a periodic basis that the files were not modified. What control can you add?

Explanation

Hashing is a control that can be added to verify the integrity of the historical records stored on the server. Hashing involves generating a unique hash value for each file and storing it separately. Periodically, the files can be checked by recalculating the hash value and comparing it with the stored value. If the hash values match, it indicates that the files have not been modified. This control ensures the integrity of the files and provides assurance that they have not been tampered with.

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93. What law serves as the basis for privacy rights in the United States?

Explanation

The Fourth Amendment serves as the basis for privacy rights in the United States. It protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures by the government and requires that search warrants be issued based on probable cause. This amendment plays a crucial role in safeguarding the privacy of individuals and their personal information from unwarranted intrusion by law enforcement agencies.

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94. An accounting employee at Doolittle Industries was recently arrested for participation in an embezzlement scheme. The employee transferred money to a personal account and then shifted funds around between other accounts every day to disguise the fraud for months. Which one of the following controls might have best allowed the earlier detection of this fraud?

Explanation

Mandatory vacation would have been the best control to detect this fraud earlier because when the employee is on vacation, someone else would have had to take over their responsibilities. This would have allowed another person to review the financial transactions and potentially uncover the fraudulent activity.

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95. Who should receive initial business continuity plan training in an organization?

Explanation

It is important for everyone in the organization to receive initial business continuity plan training because in the event of a disruption or crisis, every individual plays a role in ensuring the organization can continue its operations. By providing training to everyone, the organization can create a culture of preparedness and ensure that all employees understand their responsibilities and know how to respond effectively in a crisis situation. This inclusive approach helps to build resilience and ensures that the organization can quickly recover and minimize the impact of any disruptions.

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96. The Computer Security Act of 1987 gave a federal agency responsibility for developing computer security standards and guidelines for federal computer systems. What agency did the act give this responsibility to?

Explanation

The Computer Security Act of 1987 assigned the responsibility of developing computer security standards and guidelines for federal computer systems to the National Institute of Standards and Technology.

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97. Frank discovers a keylogger hidden on the laptop of his company's chief executive officer. What information security principle is the keylogger most likely designed to disrupt?

Explanation

The keylogger is most likely designed to disrupt confidentiality. A keylogger is a type of malicious software that records every keystroke made on a computer, including passwords, credit card information, and other sensitive data. By capturing this information, the attacker can gain unauthorized access to confidential information, compromising its confidentiality.

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98. What is the formula used to determine risk?

Explanation

The correct formula to determine risk is Risk = Threat * Vulnerability. This formula takes into account both the likelihood of a threat occurring (Threat) and the potential impact or harm it may cause (Vulnerability). By multiplying these two factors together, we can assess the overall level of risk associated with a specific situation or scenario.

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99. Susan is working with the management team in her company to classify data in an attempt to apply extra security controls that will limit the likelihood of a data breach. What principle of information security is Susan trying to enforce?

Explanation

Susan is trying to enforce the principle of confidentiality. This principle focuses on protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access or disclosure. By classifying data and applying extra security controls, Susan aims to limit the likelihood of a data breach, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access to the data and keeping it confidential.

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100. Which one of the following components should be included in an organization's emergency response guidelines?

Explanation

An organization's emergency response guidelines should include a list of individuals who should be notified of an emergency incident. This is important because in the event of an emergency, it is crucial to quickly and efficiently communicate with the relevant stakeholders. Having a list of individuals who should be notified ensures that the right people are informed and can take appropriate actions to mitigate the emergency situation. This helps in effective crisis management and ensures a timely response to the emergency.

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101. Gary is implementing a new website architecture that uses multiple small web servers behind a load balancer. What principle of information security is Gary seeking to enforce?

Explanation

Gary is seeking to enforce the principle of availability by implementing multiple small web servers behind a load balancer. This architecture ensures that the website remains accessible and operational even if one or more servers fail or become overloaded with traffic. By distributing the workload across multiple servers, Gary is enhancing the availability of the website and minimizing the risk of downtime or service disruption.

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102. Becka recently signed a contract with an alternate data processing facility that will provide her company with space in the event of a disaster. The facility includes HVAC, power, and communications circuits but no hardware. What type of facility is Becka using?

Explanation

Becka is using a cold site facility. A cold site is a type of backup facility that provides essential infrastructure like HVAC, power, and communication circuits, but does not include any hardware. In the event of a disaster, Becka's company can move their hardware and systems to the cold site and resume operations. This type of facility is less expensive than hot or warm sites, which include pre-configured hardware and software. A cold site is a suitable option when the recovery time objective (RTO) is longer and the cost of downtime can be tolerated.

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103. 70. What is the threshold for malicious damage to a federal computer system that triggers the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act?

Explanation

The threshold for malicious damage to a federal computer system that triggers the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act is $5,000. This means that if the damage caused to a federal computer system exceeds $5,000, it would be considered a violation of the act.

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104. Which one of the following laws requires that communications service providers cooperate with law enforcement requests?

Explanation

CALEA, or the Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act, requires that communications service providers cooperate with law enforcement requests. This law was enacted in 1994 and mandates that telecommunications carriers and manufacturers of telecommunications equipment must ensure that their systems have the necessary capabilities to assist law enforcement agencies in conducting authorized surveillance. This includes providing access to call content, call metadata, and other information that may be required for investigations.

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105. Which one of the following agreements typically requires that a vendor not disclose confidential information learned during the scope of an engagement?

Explanation

An NDA, or Non-Disclosure Agreement, is a legal contract that typically requires a vendor to keep confidential information learned during the scope of an engagement confidential. This agreement ensures that sensitive information shared between parties remains protected and not disclosed to any third party without proper authorization. An NDA is commonly used in business transactions, partnerships, or collaborations where the exchange of confidential information is necessary but needs to be kept private.

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106. Which one of the following is not an example of a technical control?

Explanation

Data classification is not an example of a technical control because it is a process of categorizing data based on its sensitivity and value, rather than a specific control mechanism. Technical controls, on the other hand, refer to specific technologies or tools implemented to protect and secure data, such as router ACLs, firewall rules, and encryption. Data classification is an important step in implementing security controls, but it is not a control in itself.

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107. Tom is considering locating a business in the downtown area of Miami, Florida. He consults the FEMA flood plain map for the region, shown here, and determines that the area he is considering lies within a 100-year flood plain.

Explanation

The answer 0.01 represents the probability of a 100-year flood occurring in the area Tom is considering locating his business. A 100-year flood refers to a flood event that has a 1% chance of occurring in any given year. Therefore, the answer suggests that there is a very low probability of a flood happening in the area, making it a relatively safe location for Tom's business.

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108. Alan is performing threat modeling and decides that it would be useful to decompose the system into the key elements shown here. What tool is he using?

Explanation

Alan is using data modeling as a tool for threat modeling. Data modeling involves breaking down a system into its key elements, such as data entities, attributes, and relationships. This helps in understanding and analyzing how data flows within the system, identifying potential vulnerabilities or threats related to data handling and storage. By decomposing the system into key elements, Alan can effectively assess and mitigate potential risks and develop appropriate security measures.

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109. Which type of business impact assessment tool is most appropriate when attempting to evaluate the impact of a failure on customer confidence?

Explanation

A qualitative business impact assessment tool is most appropriate when evaluating the impact of a failure on customer confidence because it focuses on gathering subjective data and opinions. This type of assessment allows for a deeper understanding of the emotional and psychological impact that a failure may have on customers, which cannot be accurately measured using quantitative methods alone. By considering factors such as customer perceptions, trust, and loyalty, a qualitative assessment provides valuable insights into the potential damage to customer confidence, allowing businesses to develop targeted strategies to address and mitigate these risks.

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110. 95. Ryan is a security risk analyst for an insurance company. He is currently examining a scenario in which a malicious hacker might use a SQL injection attack to deface a web server due to a missing patch in the company's web application. In this scenario, what is the threat?

Explanation

The threat in this scenario is the malicious hacker. The question states that Ryan is examining a scenario where a hacker could use a SQL injection attack to deface a web server. This implies that the hacker is the potential threat in this situation. The other options, such as the unpatched web application or operating system, are vulnerabilities or potential targets for the hacker, but they are not the actual threat itself. The web defacement is the result or consequence of the hacker's actions, but it is not the threat itself.

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111. After completing the first year of his security awareness program, Charles reviews the data about how many staff completed training compared to how many were assigned the training to determine whether he hit the 95 percent completion rate he was aiming for. What is this type of measure called?

Explanation

This type of measure is called a Key Performance Indicator (KPI). KPIs are specific metrics that are used to evaluate the performance and success of an organization or individual in achieving their goals. In this case, Charles is using the completion rate of staff training as a KPI to assess the effectiveness of his security awareness program.

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112. 105. Which of the following is not typically included in a prehire screening process?

Explanation

A fitness evaluation is not typically included in a prehire screening process. Prehire screenings typically focus on assessing an individual's qualifications, skills, and character to determine their suitability for a job. This often involves conducting drug tests to ensure a drug-free workplace, background checks to verify a candidate's criminal history, and social media reviews to gain insight into their online presence. However, a fitness evaluation, which assesses an individual's physical fitness and ability to perform specific tasks, is not commonly included in this process.

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113. Greg's company recently experienced a significant data breach involving the personal data of many of their customers. Which breach laws should they review to ensure that they are taking appropriate action?

Explanation

Greg's company should review the breach laws of states they do business in to ensure that they are taking appropriate action. This is because different states may have different regulations and requirements regarding data breaches and the protection of personal data. By reviewing the breach laws of states they do business in, Greg's company can ensure that they are complying with the specific legal obligations of each state and taking the necessary steps to address the data breach and protect their customers' personal information.

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114. Lawrence has been asked to perform vulnerability scans and a risk assessment of systems. Which organizational process are these more likely to be associated with?

Explanation

Performing vulnerability scans and a risk assessment of systems are more likely to be associated with a merger. During a merger, two or more organizations come together, and it is crucial to assess the vulnerabilities and risks in the systems of both organizations to ensure a smooth integration and minimize potential security threats. This process helps identify any weaknesses or potential vulnerabilities that may exist in the systems and allows for appropriate measures to be taken to mitigate these risks before the merger takes place.

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115. 110. Laura has been asked to perform an SCA. What type of organization is she most likely in?

Explanation

Laura is most likely in a government organization because performing an SCA (Security Control Assessment) is a common practice in the government sector. SCA involves evaluating and assessing the security controls and measures in place to protect sensitive information and systems. While other industries like higher education, banking, and healthcare may also conduct security assessments, the mention of SCA specifically points towards a government organization as it is commonly associated with government security protocols and regulations.

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116. One purpose of a security awareness program is to modify

Explanation

A security awareness program aims to change and improve the attitudes and behaviors of employees towards security. By educating employees about the importance of security measures and best practices, the program seeks to modify their mindset and actions, making them more conscious and responsible when handling sensitive data. This helps create a security-conscious culture within the organization and reduces the risk of security breaches caused by human error or negligence.

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117. Which of the following assures alignment of security functions and the organization's goals, missions and objectives?

Explanation

Governance oversight ensures alignment of security functions with an organization's goals, missions, and objectives. It involves establishing and enforcing policies, procedures, and controls to ensure that security measures are implemented in line with the organization's strategic direction. This oversight helps to ensure that security decisions and actions are consistent with the overall objectives of the organization, promoting effective risk management and protection of assets. It involves monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of security measures, making necessary adjustments, and providing guidance and direction to ensure that security functions support the organization's goals and objectives.

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118. The concept of "least privilege" involves:

Explanation

The concept of "least privilege" refers to granting users the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job functions. By implementing authorization levels, organizations can ensure that users only have access to the resources and information that they need to carry out their tasks, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of sensitive data. This principle helps to enhance security by limiting the potential damage that can be caused by a compromised user account.

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119. Which of these is NOT an example of social engineering?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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120. Copyright protects ______

Explanation

Copyright protects the expression of an idea. This means that the specific way in which an idea is presented or communicated, such as through writing, art, music, or other forms of creative expression, is protected by copyright law. It does not protect the idea itself, as ideas are considered to be in the public domain and can be freely used by anyone. However, the specific expression of that idea, such as a novel, painting, or song, is protected and cannot be copied or used without permission from the copyright holder.

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121. As an employee of an investment bank, you have just completed programming on a highly profitable automated stock trading program. You decide to copy it onto a writable CD and then use the program at home for your friends and family, but do not charge anyone fees. Which of the following statements apply?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the employer owns the copyright since it is work for hire, so you may not use it under any circumstances without permission. When you are an employee and create a work as part of your job, the copyright typically belongs to the employer, not the employee. Therefore, you cannot use the program without the employer's permission, even if you do not charge anyone for it.

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122. Which one of the following provides an authentication mechanism that would be appropriate for pairing with a password to achieve multifactor authentication?

Explanation

A fingerprint scan provides an authentication mechanism that is appropriate for pairing with a password to achieve multifactor authentication. This is because a fingerprint scan is a biometric authentication method that verifies a person's unique fingerprint pattern, adding an additional layer of security to the traditional password authentication. By requiring both a password and a fingerprint scan, it becomes more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the system or device, enhancing the overall security and reducing the risk of unauthorized access.

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123. Chris is advising travelers from his organization who will be visiting many different countries overseas. He is concerned about compliance with export control laws. Which of the following technologies is most likely to trigger these regulations?

Explanation

Encryption software is most likely to trigger export control regulations because it involves the protection of sensitive information and the prevention of unauthorized access. Many countries have strict regulations on the export of encryption software to prevent it from falling into the wrong hands or being used for illegal activities. The export of encryption software may require licenses or approvals from government authorities to ensure compliance with national security and export control laws.

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124. Bobbi is investigating a security incident and discovers that an attacker began with a normal user account but managed to exploit a system vulnerability to provide that account with administrative rights. What type of attack took place under the STRIDE threat model?

Explanation

In this scenario, the attacker exploited a system vulnerability to elevate the normal user account's privileges to administrative rights. This type of attack is known as "Elevation of privilege" under the STRIDE threat model. It involves an attacker gaining unauthorized access to higher levels of privileges or permissions than they should have, allowing them to perform actions that are typically restricted to administrators.

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125. 54. Which information security goal is impacted when an organization experiences a DoS or DDoS attack?

Explanation

When an organization experiences a DoS or DDoS attack, the information security goal that is impacted is availability. A DoS (Denial of Service) or DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack overwhelms the targeted system with a flood of illegitimate requests, causing it to become unavailable to legitimate users. These attacks disrupt the normal functioning of the system, making it inaccessible and unavailable to users who need to access it.

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126. Yolanda is writing a document that will provide configuration information regarding the minimum level of security that every system in the organization must meet. What type of document is she preparing?

Explanation

Yolanda is preparing a baseline document. A baseline document provides the minimum level of security that every system in the organization must meet. It establishes a standard or starting point for security measures, ensuring that all systems meet a certain level of security.

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127. Which one of the following actions is not normally part of the project scope and planning phase of business continuity planning?

Explanation

Documentation of the plan is not normally part of the project scope and planning phase of business continuity planning. The project scope and planning phase typically involves activities such as structured analysis of the organization, reviewing the legal and regulatory landscape, and creating a BCP team. Documentation of the plan usually occurs in later phases, such as the plan development and implementation phase.

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128. What principle of information security states that an organization should implement overlapping security controls whenever possible?

Explanation

Defense in depth is a principle of information security that states that an organization should implement overlapping security controls whenever possible. This means that multiple layers of security measures should be implemented to protect against potential threats and attacks. By having multiple layers of security, even if one layer is breached, there are still other layers in place to prevent unauthorized access or damage to the organization's systems and data. This approach ensures that if one security control fails, there are additional controls to provide protection, making it more difficult for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities.

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129. Which of the following is not typically part of a termination process?

Explanation

Signing an NCA (Non-Compete Agreement) is not typically part of a termination process. When an employee is terminated, it is common to conduct an exit interview to gather feedback, recover any company property in the employee's possession, and terminate their accounts or access to company systems. However, signing an NCA is usually done at the beginning of employment, not during termination. An NCA is a legal agreement that restricts an employee from working for a competitor or starting a competing business for a certain period after leaving the company.

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130. After conducting a qualitative risk assessment of her organization, Sally recommends purchasing cybersecurity breach insurance. What type of risk response behavior is she recommending?

Explanation

Sally is recommending transferring the risk by purchasing cybersecurity breach insurance. This means that instead of accepting the risk and dealing with the potential financial consequences of a breach on her own, she is suggesting transferring the risk to an insurance company. By doing so, the organization would be protected financially in case of a cybersecurity breach, as the insurance company would cover the costs associated with the breach.

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131. Which of the following MOST clearly indicates whether specific risk reduction controls should be implemented?

Explanation

Countermeasure cost/benefit analysis is the most appropriate method for determining whether specific risk reduction controls should be implemented. This analysis involves evaluating the potential costs associated with implementing the controls against the potential benefits they would provide in terms of risk reduction. By comparing the costs and benefits, organizations can make informed decisions about whether the controls are worth implementing or if alternative measures should be considered. This analysis helps ensure that resources are allocated effectively and that the most cost-effective controls are implemented to mitigate risks.

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132. When is it acceptable for management not to take action on an identified risk?

Explanation

Management may choose not to take action on an identified risk if the cost of taking action is higher than the potential cost of the risk being realized. In some cases, the cost of implementing risk reduction measures may be too high compared to the potential impact of the risk. This decision is based on a cost-benefit analysis, where management evaluates the potential consequences of the risk and the cost of mitigating it. If the cost of taking action is higher than the potential cost of the risk, it may be acceptable for management not to take immediate action.

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133. Under which one of the following situations would a trash can fire be considered a disaster?

Explanation

A trash can fire would be considered a disaster when it causes critical business systems to be disabled for longer than the Recovery Time Objective. This means that the fire has disrupted the normal functioning of important systems within the company, leading to significant downtime and potentially impacting the organization's operations and productivity.

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134. Which of the following definitions is correct?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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135. A laptop with a medical database contains records of device sales, such as canes, walkers, braces and many sales are done during in-home visits. Recognizing that these items are covered under HIPAA, PIPEDA and other international equivalents what should be done to protect the company?

Explanation

Whole disk encryption is not required, but it is the easiest and safest solution. This means that while it is not mandatory to encrypt the entire disk, it is still recommended as it provides the highest level of security for the company's data. Encrypting the entire disk ensures that all sensitive information, including patient identification information (PII), is protected. It eliminates the need for individual key management and reduces the risk of unauthorized access to the data. Overall, whole disk encryption is a convenient and secure way to safeguard the company's medical database.

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136. Closed-circuit camera feeds and recordings are commonly used as all of these EXCEPT for which of the following?

Explanation

Closed-circuit camera feeds and recordings are commonly used as deterrent, detective, and preventive controls. These cameras are installed to deter potential criminals, detect any suspicious activities or incidents, and prevent crimes from happening. However, they are not typically used as a corrective control. Corrective controls are measures taken after an incident or breach has occurred to mitigate the damage and prevent a recurrence. Closed-circuit camera feeds and recordings are not directly involved in the corrective action process.

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137. FlyAway Travel has offices in both the European Union (EU) and the United States and transfers personal information between those offices regularly. They have recently received a request from an EU customer requesting that their account be terminated. Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which requirement for processing personal information states that individuals may request that their data no longer be disseminated or processed?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The right to be forgotten." Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), individuals have the right to request that their personal data no longer be disseminated or processed by an organization. This means that FlyAway Travel, in this case, must comply with the customer's request to terminate their account and delete their personal information. This right allows individuals to have more control over their own data and ensures that organizations handle personal information responsibly.

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138. Which one of the following control categories does not accurately describe a fence around a facility?

Explanation

A fence around a facility is not accurately described as a detective control category because detective controls are designed to identify and respond to security incidents or breaches after they have occurred. A fence, on the other hand, is a physical control that acts as a barrier to prevent unauthorized access to the facility in the first place. Therefore, the fence falls under the physical control category, not the detective control category.

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139. Which one of the following is an example of an administrative control?

Explanation

Security awareness training is an example of an administrative control because it involves educating and training employees on security policies, procedures, and best practices. This control aims to raise awareness and promote responsible behavior among employees to prevent security incidents. It focuses on creating a security-conscious culture within the organization and ensuring that employees understand their roles and responsibilities in maintaining security. Unlike technical controls such as intrusion detection systems and firewalls, which are implemented through technology, security awareness training relies on human intervention and is a crucial component of an effective security program.

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140. John's network begins to experience symptoms of slowness. Upon investigation, he realizes that the network is being bombarded with TCP SYN packets and believes that his organization is the victim of a denial of service attack. What principle of information security is being violated?

Explanation

The principle of information security being violated in this scenario is Availability. Availability refers to ensuring that information and resources are accessible and usable by authorized users when needed. In this case, the network is experiencing slowness due to a flood of TCP SYN packets, which is causing a denial of service. This attack is compromising the availability of the network and making it difficult for authorized users to access the resources they need.

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141. The Acme Widgets Company is putting new controls in place for its accounting department. Management is concerned that a rogue accountant may be able to create a new false vendor and then issue checks to that vendor as payment for services that were never rendered. What security control can best help prevent this situation?

Explanation

Separation of duties is the best security control to prevent a rogue accountant from creating a new false vendor and issuing fraudulent checks. This control involves dividing critical tasks and responsibilities among different individuals to ensure that no single person has complete control over a process. By separating the roles of creating vendors and issuing payments, it becomes more difficult for an individual to carry out fraudulent activities without detection. This control increases accountability, reduces the risk of collusion, and provides a system of checks and balances to prevent fraud.

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142. Gary is analyzing a security incident and, during his investigation, encounters a user who denies having performed an action that Gary believes he did perform. What type of threat has taken place under the STRIDE model?

Explanation

Repudiation refers to the act of denying or disowning one's actions or responsibilities. In this scenario, the user denies performing an action that Gary believes he did perform. This indicates a case of repudiation, where the user is attempting to disclaim their involvement in the security incident.

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143. Joan is seeking to protect a piece of computer software that she developed under intellectual property law. Which one of the following avenues of protection would not apply to a piece of software?

Explanation

Trademark protection would not apply to a piece of software because trademarks are used to protect brand names, logos, and symbols that distinguish goods or services from others in the market. Software, on the other hand, is protected by copyright law, which covers original works of authorship, including computer programs. Copyright protects the expression of an idea, while trademark protects the source or origin of goods or services. Therefore, trademark protection is not applicable to software.

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144. Ben is designing a messaging system for a bank and would like to include a feature that allows the recipient of a message to prove to a third party that the message did indeed come from the purported originator. What goal is Ben trying to achieve?

Explanation

Ben is trying to achieve the goal of nonrepudiation. Nonrepudiation is a security goal that ensures that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it. In the context of a messaging system for a bank, it is important to have a feature that allows the recipient to prove to a third party that the message indeed came from the purported originator, thereby preventing any disputes or denials regarding the authenticity of the message.

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145. Match the following numbered laws or industry standards to their lettered description: Laws and industry standards
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146. In her role as a developer for an online bank, Lisa is required to submit her code for testing and review. After it passes through this process and it is approved, another employee moves the code to the production environment. What security management does this process describe?

Explanation

The process described in the question is change management. Change management involves submitting code for testing and review before it is moved to the production environment. This process ensures that any changes made to the code are properly tested and approved before being implemented, reducing the risk of introducing errors or vulnerabilities into the production environment.

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147. The (ISC)2 code of ethics applies to all CISSP holders. Which of the following is not one of the four mandatory canons of the code?

Explanation

The (ISC)2 code of ethics outlines the principles and responsibilities that CISSP holders must uphold. The four mandatory canons of the code are to protect society, the common good, the necessary public trust and confidence, and the infrastructure; to provide diligent and competent service to the principles; to advance and protect the profession. The option "Disclose breaches of privacy, trust, and ethics" is not one of the four mandatory canons, as it does not explicitly state the obligation to disclose such breaches.

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A compensating control is _____
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Match the following numbered wireless attack terms with their...
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Which one do you like?
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The organizational information security plan can
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An information security policy does NOT usually include:
A newly assigned Risk Manager requests access to a file share...
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When conducting the business impact assessment, business processes are...
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70. What is the threshold for malicious damage to a federal computer...
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One purpose of a security awareness program is to modify
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Copyright protects ______
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54. Which information security goal is impacted when an organization...
Yolanda is writing a document that will provide configuration...
Which one of the following actions is not normally part of the project...
What principle of information security states that an organization...
Which of the following is not typically part of a termination process?
After conducting a qualitative risk assessment of her organization,...
Which of the following MOST clearly indicates whether specific risk...
When is it acceptable for management not to take action on an...
Under which one of the following situations would a trash can fire be...
Which of the following definitions is correct?
A laptop with a medical database contains records of device sales,...
Closed-circuit camera feeds and recordings are commonly used as all of...
FlyAway Travel has offices in both the European Union (EU) and the...
Which one of the following control categories does not accurately...
Which one of the following is an example of an administrative control?
John's network begins to experience symptoms of slowness. Upon...
The Acme Widgets Company is putting new controls in place for its...
Gary is analyzing a security incident and, during his investigation,...
Joan is seeking to protect a piece of computer software that she...
Ben is designing a messaging system for a bank and would like to...
Match the following numbered laws or industry standards to their...
In her role as a developer for an online bank, Lisa is required to...
The (ISC)2 code of ethics applies to all CISSP holders. Which of the...
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