Want To Be A Fitness Coach? Quiz About Muscles And Bones

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1. A college student who is waiting for her turn to present an oral report discovers that her heart is pounding and her palms are sweaty. This condition is ____.

Explanation

The given situation describes a college student who is experiencing physical symptoms such as a pounding heart and sweaty palms while waiting to present an oral report. While nervousness and stress are common reactions in such situations, a heart attack is a severe medical condition that involves the blockage of blood flow to the heart. Given the context, it is unlikely that the student is experiencing a heart attack, making it an incorrect answer.

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About This Quiz
Want To Be A Fitness Coach? Quiz About Muscles And Bones - Quiz

Muscles function to produce force and motion. They are primarily responsible for maintaining and changing posture, locomotion, as well as movement of internal organs, such as the contraction... see moreof the heart and the movement of food through the digestive system via peristalsis.
A bone is a rigid tissue that constitutes part of the vertebrate skeleton in animals. Bones protect the various organs of the body, produce red and white blood cells, store minerals, provide structure and support for the body, and enable mobility.
Want to be a fitness coach? Quiz about Muscles and Bones
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2. Goal setting is a mechanism that helps one to understand his/her potential and to feel satisfied with its results. Thus, in goal-setting to enhance personal fitness, the first step is to assess current level of _____.

Explanation

In goal-setting to enhance personal fitness, the first step is to assess the current level of fitness. This is important because it allows individuals to understand where they currently stand in terms of their physical health and abilities. By assessing their fitness level, individuals can set realistic and achievable goals that are tailored to their specific needs and capabilities. This assessment also helps individuals track their progress over time and provides a baseline for measuring improvement.

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3. What will happen to muscles when exposed to more stress such as resistance training?

Explanation

When muscles are exposed to more stress such as resistance training, they undergo a process called hypertrophy. This means that the muscle fibers increase in size and become stronger. The increased stress on the muscles during resistance training causes microscopic damage to the muscle fibers. In response to this damage, the body repairs and rebuilds the muscle fibers, making them stronger and larger. This adaptation allows the muscles to better handle the stress they were exposed to, resulting in increased strength and size.

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4. Which among the functions of the skeletal system is responsible for improved performance?

Explanation

The skeletal system acts as a lever, which means it helps in movement and improves performance. The bones in our body work together with muscles to create movement and provide support. When muscles contract, they pull on the bones, causing movement. This lever action of the skeletal system allows us to perform various activities such as walking, running, lifting, and jumping, ultimately enhancing our overall performance.

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5. How do muscles work to produce movement?

Explanation

Muscles work to produce movement by contracting and relaxing. When a muscle contracts, it shortens and pulls on the bones it is attached to, causing movement. The pair of muscles acting in opposite directions refers to the concept of agonist and antagonist muscles. In this case, one muscle contracts to produce movement while the other relaxes to allow that movement to happen smoothly. This coordinated action of opposing muscles is essential for efficient and controlled movement.

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6. Which of the following statements does NOT describe the benefit of physical activity?

Explanation

The statement "Good chance of winning in a sport competition" does not describe the benefit of physical activity because the focus is on competition and winning, rather than the overall health benefits associated with physical activity. While participating in sports can be a fun and enjoyable way to engage in physical activity, the primary benefit is not solely based on winning, but rather on improving cardiovascular health, reducing the risk of heart attack and blood pressure, promoting a positive body image, and providing opportunities to meet new friends.

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7. If you want to determine your fitness program parameters which should you do first?

Explanation

Before starting a fitness program, it is important to get a physical examination to identify any physical limitations. This examination can help determine if there are any underlying health conditions or injuries that may affect the type or intensity of exercises that can be performed safely. It is crucial to understand one's physical limitations in order to design a fitness plan that is suitable and safe for the individual's specific needs and goals. Committing to a fitness plan and figuring out time availability for workouts can come after assessing any physical limitations.

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8. If you want to have a personalized fitness training program, which should you do first?

Explanation

To have a personalized fitness training program, the first step is to determine your fitness program parameters. This involves identifying your specific goals, such as weight loss, muscle gain, or overall fitness improvement, as well as considering factors like your current fitness level, available time for exercise, and any physical limitations. By establishing these parameters, you can then proceed to select specific physical activities that align with your goals and create a comprehensive fitness training plan. Evaluating your faithfulness to the program comes later, as it involves assessing your consistency and adherence to the established plan.

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9. How much time should you devote to work outs?

Explanation

The amount of time you should devote to workouts depends on your fitness goals and current level of physical fitness. This means that the time you spend exercising will vary depending on what you want to achieve and how fit you currently are. It is important to consider these factors in order to create a workout routine that is appropriate and effective for your individual needs.

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10. Should you include dietary changes in your personal fitness plan?

Explanation

Whether or not to include dietary changes in a personal fitness plan depends on the individual's fitness goals. If the goal is to lose weight or improve overall health, then incorporating dietary changes such as reducing salt intake or eliminating meat may be beneficial. However, if the goal is solely focused on increasing physical fitness and strength, then dietary changes may not be as necessary as long as the individual is engaging in regular and effective workouts. Ultimately, the decision to include dietary changes should be based on the specific fitness goals of the individual.

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11. Why is it necessary to establish your specific goals for personal fitness? Because your goals determine the ______. I. Types of exercise you should build into your plan II. Amount of time you will need to exercise III. Significant dietary changes, if necessary

Explanation

It is necessary to establish specific goals for personal fitness because these goals determine the amount of time you will need to exercise and any significant dietary changes that may be necessary. By setting clear goals, you can determine the frequency and duration of your exercise sessions, as well as any adjustments you may need to make to your diet in order to achieve your desired fitness outcomes.

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12. For strength training which are convenient tools? I. Weight machine II. Dumbbells III. Exercise balls IV. Resistance bands

Explanation

The correct answer is I, II, III, and IV. Weight machines, dumbbells, exercise balls, and resistance bands are all convenient tools for strength training. Weight machines provide stability and allow for targeted muscle isolation. Dumbbells offer versatility and can be used for a wide range of exercises. Exercise balls engage the core muscles and improve balance and stability. Resistance bands provide resistance throughout the entire range of motion and are portable and easy to use.

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13. Which are strength routines that do not require the equipment? I. Push-ups II. Yoga III. Dumbbells IV. Dance workout with video

Explanation

The correct answer is I and II. Push-ups and yoga are strength routines that can be done without the need for any equipment. Push-ups target the upper body muscles, including the chest, shoulders, and triceps, while yoga focuses on overall strength, flexibility, and balance. Both exercises rely on bodyweight resistance and can be performed anywhere without the need for additional equipment. On the other hand, dumbbells and dance workouts with videos require specific equipment or props to perform the exercises effectively, making them not applicable to the question.

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14. Which is NOT part of cardio routines?

Explanation

Weight machine is not part of cardio routines because cardio exercises are typically aerobic activities that elevate the heart rate and increase cardiovascular endurance. Weight machines, on the other hand, are used for strength training and focus on building muscle strength and size. While strength training is an important component of overall fitness, it is not considered a cardio exercise. Therefore, weight machine is the correct answer as it does not fall under the category of cardio routines.

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15. Which type of gymnastics event combines gymnastics, dance, ballet and apparatus manipulation?

Explanation

Rhythmic gymnastics combines gymnastics, dance, ballet, and apparatus manipulation. Men's Artistic Gymnastics focuses on strength, power, and agility movements on various apparatus such as rings, parallel bars, and high bar. Women's Artistic Gymnastics also includes floor exercise, balance beam, uneven bars, and vault. Therefore, the correct answer is Rhythmic Gymnastics.

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16. In gymnastics, safety is of primary concern. What should a performer do when he/she loses balance in a stunt?

Explanation

When a performer loses balance in a stunt in gymnastics, rolling out is the best course of action. Rolling out helps to minimize the impact and distribute the force of the fall, reducing the risk of injury. It allows the performer to safely regain control and avoid landing directly on a specific body part. This technique is commonly used in gymnastics to protect the performer's body and prevent serious accidents.

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17. Spotting has a twofold purpose. First is the performer's safety and prevention of injury and second, is the guiding of the performer to help develop body awareness. Which among the roles of a spotter is the most difficult to perform?

Explanation

The most difficult role of a spotter to perform is to prevent a hazardous fall. This requires constant vigilance and quick reflexes to ensure the performer does not sustain any injuries. It involves closely monitoring the performer's movements and being ready to intervene if they lose balance or control. It requires a high level of skill and coordination to effectively catch or redirect the performer in order to prevent them from falling in a dangerous manner.

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18. In a spike position, the body is fully bent forward at the hips while the legs are kept straight. Pike can be performed in three positions. What are they? 1. Walking Position 2. Lying Position 3. Sitting Position 4. Standing Position

Explanation

The correct answer is 2, 3 and 4. In a pike position, the body is fully bent forward at the hips while the legs are kept straight. This can be performed in three positions: lying position, sitting position, and standing position. The walking position is not a valid position for performing a pike.

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19. What contribution of Friedrich Ludwig Jahn of Germany made him the "father of modern gymnastics"?

Explanation

Friedrich Ludwig Jahn of Germany is considered the "father of modern gymnastics" because he developed the bars (side, horizontal, and parallel), balance beam, and jumping events. These contributions revolutionized the sport and laid the foundation for the gymnastics apparatus that is still used today. By introducing these apparatus, Jahn significantly expanded the range of exercises and skills that could be performed, leading to the development of a more diverse and comprehensive gymnastics discipline.

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20. What is the official name of the governing body for gymnastics worldwide?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Federation Internationale de Gymnastique". This is the official name of the governing body for gymnastics worldwide. The other options provided are either incorrect or have a different word order.

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21. For better execution of an inverted stand, the center of weight must be ____ the center of support.

Explanation

To execute an inverted stand, the center of weight must be positioned over the center of support. This is because having the center of weight directly over the center of support ensures stability and balance. If the center of weight is not positioned over the center of support, it can lead to a loss of balance and make it difficult to maintain the inverted position.

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22. Which gymnastic position is often used to complete a back extension and cartweel? The weight is supported on one leg while the other leg is extended at the rear. The extended leg is kept straight with the toe pointed at the chest is kept erect.

Explanation

The correct answer is Arabisque. Arabisque is a gymnastic position that involves supporting the weight on one leg while the other leg is extended at the rear. In this position, the extended leg is kept straight with the toe pointed at the chest and the body is kept erect. This position is commonly used to complete a back extension and cartwheel in gymnastics.

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23. In the Filipino Pyramid Guide, gymnastics particularly sports aerobics can be classified as moderate to vigorous activity. How often should an individual engage in this type of activity to achieve the desired level of fitness.

Explanation

To achieve the desired level of fitness in sports aerobics, an individual should engage in this activity for 30 minutes, three to five times a week. This frequency allows for regular exercise without overexertion, ensuring that the individual receives the necessary cardiovascular and muscular benefits of the activity. Engaging in sports aerobics for this duration and frequency helps improve endurance, strength, flexibility, and overall fitness levels.

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24. Which movements include all movements that the body is able to execute while the feet remain stationary?

Explanation

Locomotion movements include all movements that the body is able to execute while the feet remain stationary. This means that the body is moving from one place to another without the feet actually moving. Examples of locomotion movements include bending, twisting, and turning. Non-locomotion movements, on the other hand, involve movements of the feet, such as walking or running. Locomotor movements and non-locomotor movements are not the correct answers as they do not specifically refer to movements where the feet remain stationary.

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25. Lapay Bantique is a mimetic dance. The dance originates from the seagull movements as they are imitated by the native women of Masbate while waiting for the fishermen to arrive. The seagull's movements are characterized by the following except for the _______.

Explanation

Lapay Bantique is a mimetic dance that imitates the movements of seagulls. The seagull's movements include swoops, glides, and dives, but they do not typically include skips. Therefore, skips are the movement that is not characteristic of the seagull's movements and are not included in the Lapay Bantique dance.

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26. Whys is folk dancing considered a wholesome form of entertainment?

Explanation

Folk dancing is considered a wholesome form of entertainment because it is inclusive and can be enjoyed by people of all ages. It provides a platform for both children and adults to participate and showcase their talent. Additionally, folk dancing is a simple and inexpensive form of recreation, making it accessible to a wide range of people. It is often performed while singing, adding to the enjoyment and cultural experience. Moreover, folk dancing depicts the culture and traditions of the people, allowing for a deeper understanding and appreciation of different cultures.

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27. Which was originally an all-male dance performance or Abra presenting a mock fight between Ilokano, Christians and Non- Christians using sticks.

Explanation

Sakuting was originally an all-male dance performance or Abra presenting a mock fight between Ilokano, Christians, and Non-Christians using sticks.

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28. What do the circular movements in the Bendian, a dance of the Ibalois symbolize?

Explanation

The circular movements in the Bendian dance of the Ibalois symbolize unity and harmony among the Ibalois. The circular motion represents the interconnectedness and unity of the community, as well as the harmonious relationship between its members. It signifies their collective strength and the importance of working together towards a common goal. The dance serves as a celebration of their shared culture and traditions, fostering a sense of togetherness and cooperation among the Ibalois.

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29. Which dance basically shows off the balancing skill of the performers? Glasses filled with rice wine are placed on the head and on each hand carefully maneuvered with graceful movements?

Explanation

Binasuan is a dance that showcases the performers' balancing skills. In this dance, glasses filled with rice wine are placed on the head and on each hand, and the dancers carefully maneuver them with graceful movements. This requires a great deal of control and coordination to keep the glasses balanced without spilling the wine.

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30. Which dance requires balancing skill to maintain the stability of oil lamps, placed on the head and at the back of each hand?

Explanation

Binasuan is a traditional Filipino dance that requires balancing skill to maintain the stability of oil lamps placed on the head and at the back of each hand. The dancers must have a strong sense of balance and control in order to keep the lamps from falling while performing intricate movements and spins. This dance is a showcase of the dancers' skill and precision, as they gracefully move and twirl without disturbing the lamps.

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31. Which is dance, commonly performed in moderate waltz style during festivals in Bohol and other Visayan towns, portrays a young playful couple's attempt to get each other's attention.

Explanation

Pandanggo sa Ilaw is a dance commonly performed in a moderate waltz style during festivals in Bohol and other Visayan towns. It portrays a young playful couple's attempt to get each other's attention. The dance involves the use of oil lamps or candles, which the dancers balance on their heads or hold in their hands while executing graceful movements. The flickering lights add a mesmerizing effect to the performance, making it a visually captivating dance.

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32. Which dance from Leyte Province is a mimic movement of "tikling birds" hopping over trees, grass stems or over bamboo traps set by farmers? Dancers perform this dance with remarkable grace and speed jumping between bamboo poles.

Explanation

Tinikling is the correct answer because it is a dance from Leyte Province that mimics the movement of "tikling birds" hopping over trees, grass stems, or bamboo traps set by farmers. Dancers perform this dance with remarkable grace and speed, jumping between bamboo poles.

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33. This was originally performed in Binan, Laguna as a mock-war dance that demonstrates a fight between the Moros and the Christians over the prized latik or coconut meat during the Spanish rule.

Explanation

La Jota Manilena is the correct answer because it is a traditional dance in the Philippines that originated in Binan, Laguna. It is known for its lively and energetic movements, often performed during festivals and celebrations. The dance incorporates elements of Spanish and Filipino culture, and it is believed to have evolved from a mock-war dance that depicted a fight between the Moros and the Christians over the prized coconut meat during the Spanish colonial period.

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34. Which is TRUE of the dance, Maglalatik? I. It has four-part performance such as the palipasan and the baligtaran showing the intense battle, the paseo and the escaramusa - the reconciliation. II. Moro dancers wear red trousers while the Christian dancers show up in blue III. Dancers are male and female with harnesses of coconut shells attached on their chest, back, thighs and hips

Explanation

The dance Maglalatik has a four-part performance that includes the palipasan and the baligtaran, which depict an intense battle, and the paseo and escaramusa, which represent reconciliation. In addition, Moro dancers wear red trousers while Christian dancers wear blue. However, there is no mention of dancers wearing harnesses of coconut shells in the given information. Therefore, the correct answer is I and II.

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35. Which dance is performed in a flirtation manner with fans and handkerchief to assist the dancer's hide-and-seek movements. It means affectionate and lovable woman.

Explanation

Carinosa is the correct answer because it is a dance performed in a flirtatious manner using fans and handkerchiefs to enhance the dancer's hide-and-seek movements. The dance is often associated with an affectionate and lovable woman, reflecting the meaning provided in the question.

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36. It is courtship dance that imitates the courtship and lovemaking of doves shown in the dance when the men attempt to please the woman.

Explanation

Carinosa is a traditional Filipino dance that showcases courtship and romance. The dancers imitate the movements of doves, symbolizing the courtship and lovemaking of these birds. In the dance, the men try to please and win over the woman through graceful and charming gestures. Carinosa is known for its flirtatious and playful nature, making it a popular choice for cultural performances and celebrations in the Philippines.

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37. When a serving team commits a violation, it is a ______.

Explanation

When a serving team commits a violation, it is considered a "sideout" and the other team gains the serve. This means that the serving team loses their opportunity to score a point and the other team gets a chance to serve and score.

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38. Player number 3 delivered an ace serve. What did the player earn?

Explanation

Player number 3 earned a point because delivering an ace serve is when the ball is served in such a way that the opposing team cannot return it, resulting in a direct point for the serving team.

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39. When a player on the back row jumps to spike the ball, he/she may _____.

Explanation

A player on the back row is allowed to spike the ball from any position on the court. There is no restriction on where the player can take off or land as long as they are behind the attack line. This gives the player more flexibility and options in executing their spike, allowing them to surprise the opposing team with different angles and positions.

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40. The capacity of the individual to function in every way at one's own best.

Explanation

Physical Education refers to the educational discipline that focuses on the development of physical fitness, motor skills, and overall well-being. It encompasses various activities and exercises that aim to improve physical health and enhance one's ability to function optimally. Therefore, the capacity of an individual to function at their own best can be attributed to their engagement in Physical Education, as it equips them with the necessary knowledge and skills to maintain physical fitness and overall wellness.

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41. It is a self-motivating activity where one can manipulate the different parts of the body into varied positions or movements.

Explanation

Gymnastics involves manipulating different parts of the body into varied positions or movements. It is a self-motivating activity that requires coordination, agility, and physical fitness.

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42. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of Physical fitness?

Explanation

Static fitness is not an aspect of physical fitness. Physical fitness is generally categorized into different aspects such as cardiovascular endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and body composition. Static fitness refers to the ability to maintain a stationary position or hold a posture for a prolonged period, which is not considered a separate aspect of physical fitness.

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43. Which of the following is a way to test physical fitness?

Explanation

The bent-knee curl up is a way to test physical fitness because it assesses the strength and endurance of the abdominal muscles. This exercise involves lying on your back with your knees bent and feet flat on the floor, and then curling your upper body off the ground while keeping your lower back in contact with the floor. The number of successful repetitions completed within a set time period indicates the level of abdominal strength and endurance, which are important components of physical fitness.

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44. They are exercise done to improve grace, form and control of body parts through creative movements

Explanation

Tumbling refers to a series of acrobatic movements such as flips, somersaults, and handsprings that are performed on the floor. These exercises require coordination, balance, and control of body movements. By practicing tumbling, individuals can enhance their grace, form, and overall control of different body parts. Therefore, tumbling exercises are aimed at improving these aspects through creative movements.

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45. It is a dance or unit formation composed of 4 pairs standing on the side of the hallow square center.

Explanation

A circle is a dance or unit formation where participants stand in a circular shape. In this formation, the dancers are positioned in pairs along the circumference of the circle, with the center of the circle being empty. This allows for synchronized movements and patterns to be performed within the circle. The description provided in the question matches the characteristics of a circle formation, making it the correct answer.

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46. Is a leadership wherein the members show loyalty and pride for their unit.

Explanation

Discipline refers to the ability of individuals to follow rules, regulations, and orders in a structured manner. In a leadership where members show loyalty and pride for their unit, discipline plays a crucial role in maintaining order and ensuring that everyone is working towards a common goal. It helps in establishing a sense of responsibility and accountability among the members, leading to a more efficient and effective team. Discipline also fosters respect and trust within the unit, creating a positive work environment and enhancing overall productivity.

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47. Its purpose is to convey to the reader accurate information concerning the various terrain and geographical features of an era.

Explanation

A globe is the most accurate representation of the Earth's surface, showing the various terrains and geographical features of a particular era. Unlike a map, which is a two-dimensional depiction of the Earth, a globe provides a three-dimensional view, allowing for a more accurate representation of the Earth's shape and features. It is designed to convey accurate information about the Earth's terrain and geographical features to the reader, making it a useful tool for studying and understanding the world.

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48. Is the help of assistance given to an injured person or taken suddenly ill and includes self-help and home care, words of encouragement and promotion of confidence.

Explanation

First Aid refers to the help and assistance given to an injured person or someone who suddenly falls ill. It includes various actions such as self-help and home care, providing words of encouragement, and promoting confidence. First Aid is the immediate response provided to alleviate pain, prevent further injury, and stabilize the condition of the person until professional medical help arrives.

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49. Refers to a general body of knowledge that an individual can adopt to reduce the shock of finding one's self-isolated in a desolate place etc.

Explanation

Military skills refer to a set of abilities and knowledge that individuals acquire through military training and experience. These skills are designed to enable individuals to survive and thrive in challenging and hostile environments, including desolate and isolated places. Military skills encompass various aspects such as navigation, self-defense, first aid, communication, and problem-solving, which are crucial for adapting to and overcoming difficult situations. Therefore, having military skills can significantly reduce the shock and increase the chances of survival in such circumstances.

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50. It is the physical dependence or both on a dangerous drug following its administration or use on a periodic or continuous basis.

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Drug Addiction". Drug addiction refers to the physical and psychological dependence on a dangerous drug after using it regularly or periodically. It involves a compulsive need for the drug, loss of control over its use, and withdrawal symptoms when the drug is not consumed. Drug addiction is a serious condition that can have severe consequences on an individual's health, relationships, and overall well-being.

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51. The policy-making and coordinating agency in drug prevention.

Explanation

The Dangerous Drug Board is the correct answer because it is the policy-making and coordinating agency in drug prevention. It is responsible for formulating policies, programs, and strategies to combat drug abuse and trafficking in the country. The board also coordinates with other government agencies and organizations to ensure the effective implementation of drug prevention efforts.

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52. The means to improve the quality of life of each Filipino through regulation and spacing of childbirth, counselling of parents and would-be-parent, etc.

Explanation

The given answer, Contraception, is the correct choice because it refers to the means of regulating and spacing childbirth, which is mentioned in the question. Contraception methods, such as the use of contraceptives, help individuals and couples prevent unwanted pregnancies and plan their families according to their desired timing and circumstances. By using contraception, individuals can have better control over their reproductive choices and improve their quality of life by ensuring they have the resources and ability to provide for their children effectively.

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53. Is a set of goals and guidelines for changing the rate of population growth in the vital interest of a country.

Explanation

Population control refers to the implementation of measures and strategies aimed at regulating the growth rate of a country's population. It involves setting goals and guidelines to manage population growth in order to ensure the sustainable development and well-being of a nation. By implementing population control measures, a country can address various social, economic, and environmental challenges associated with overpopulation, such as resource scarcity, unemployment, poverty, and strain on public services. Therefore, having a set of goals and guidelines for population control is considered crucial for the long-term interests and stability of a country.

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54. It is the act of introducing substances or pollutants into the atmosphere which may be injuries to public health.

Explanation

All of the options listed (water pollution, air pollution, and noise pollution) involve the act of introducing substances or pollutants into the environment, which can be harmful to public health. Water pollution refers to the contamination of water bodies with pollutants, air pollution refers to the release of harmful substances into the air, and noise pollution refers to excessive or disturbing noise that can have negative health effects. Therefore, all of these options can cause injuries to public health.

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55. It is the recovery or reuse of any material to conserve resources and waste disposal.

Explanation

Composing refers to the process of converting organic waste, such as food scraps and yard trimmings, into nutrient-rich compost. This compost can then be used as a natural fertilizer for plants and gardens. It is a form of recycling as it involves reusing waste materials (organic waste) to conserve resources and reduce waste disposal. Composting helps to divert organic waste from landfills, reducing methane emissions and promoting sustainability.

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56. Refers to the economic application of laws and processes of science and engineering in the preparation and preservation of food.

Explanation

Food Control refers to the economic application of laws and processes of science and engineering in the preparation and preservation of food. It involves ensuring that food is safe, of high quality, and meets the necessary regulatory standards. This includes monitoring and controlling the entire food production process, from the sourcing of raw materials to the distribution and consumption of the final product. Food Control aims to protect consumer health, prevent foodborne illnesses, and promote food safety and sustainability. It also involves implementing measures to prevent food fraud, such as mislabeling or adulteration of food products.

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57. The style of performing the lyrics of the song in a half-sung, half-spoken manner.

Explanation

Sprechstimmer refers to a style of performing song lyrics in a half-sung, half-spoken manner. This technique is commonly associated with opera and is often used to convey heightened emotions or dramatic effects. While rap also involves a spoken delivery of lyrics, it is distinct from Sprechstimmer as it is characterized by a specific rhythmic pattern and often incorporates elements of poetry and storytelling. Expressionism and Impressionism, on the other hand, are artistic movements that primarily relate to visual arts and literature, rather than music or performance styles.

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58. The use of different meter signatures in a composition.

Explanation

The term "multimeter" refers to the use of different meter signatures in a composition. Meter signatures are the patterns of strong and weak beats in music. When a composition incorporates multiple meter signatures, it adds complexity and variety to the rhythmic structure. This can create a sense of tension and surprise for the listener, as the expected rhythmic patterns are disrupted. Multimeter is a technique commonly used in contemporary and experimental music to push the boundaries of traditional rhythmic conventions.

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59. The use of two or more different rhythms played at the same time.

Explanation

Polytonaly refers to the use of two or more different rhythms played at the same time. It is a musical technique where multiple tonalities or keys are used simultaneously, creating a complex and layered sound. This can result in dissonance or tension, but also allows for unique harmonies and textures in the music.

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60. It is a declamatory piece free from using different melodies that varies in mode and tempo.

Explanation

A rhapsody is a musical composition that is characterized by its free form and lack of strict structure. It typically does not follow a specific melody and can vary in mode and tempo throughout the piece. This makes it different from an overture, which is an instrumental introduction to an opera or other large-scale musical work, an aria, which is a solo vocal piece in an opera, or an opera itself, which is a complete dramatic work combining music and singing.

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61. It is a sonata for orchestra and has 4 movements.

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Orchestra" because the statement mentions that it is a sonata for orchestra, indicating that the composition is specifically written for and performed by an orchestra. The mention of 4 movements further suggests that it is a longer, multi-part piece of music typically associated with orchestral compositions. Therefore, "Orchestra" is the most suitable option among the given choices.

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62. It is the rhythm of a song and tells the number of beats in every measure.

Explanation

The time signature is a musical notation that indicates the rhythm of a song. It consists of two numbers stacked on top of each other. The top number represents the number of beats in each measure, while the bottom number represents the type of note that receives one beat. Therefore, the time signature tells the musician how many beats to count in each measure, helping them maintain the correct rhythm and timing while playing or singing the song.

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63. A series of consecutive tones with varying pitch and duration.

Explanation

Intensity refers to the loudness or softness of a sound. In the context of the given question, a series of consecutive tones with varying intensity would mean that the tones are played at different volumes. This could create a sense of dynamics and variation in the music, making it more interesting and expressive.

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64. Refers to the quality of tone.

Explanation

Tempo refers to the speed or pace at which a piece of music is played. It determines the overall feel and rhythm of the music. The quality of tone, on the other hand, is referred to as timbre. Timbre describes the unique characteristics of a sound, such as its texture, color, and quality. Intensity refers to the loudness or softness of a sound, while pitch refers to the highness or lowness of a sound. Therefore, tempo is not related to the quality of tone, making it the correct answer.

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65. When a player commits a flagrant foul, the referee's decision is to____.

Explanation

When a player commits a flagrant foul, the referee's decision is to eject the player from the game. This means that the player is removed from the game and is not allowed to continue playing. This is a severe penalty for a flagrant foul, indicating that the player's actions were deemed to be intentional, dangerous, or excessively aggressive. Ejecting the player helps maintain the safety and fairness of the game by removing a player who has violated the rules in a significant way.

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66. In 2003, NBA made a new rule as regards the stay of players inside the painted area. Who should get out of the painted area every three seconds?

Explanation

The correct answer is both offensive and defensive players. In 2003, the NBA implemented a rule stating that players cannot stay inside the painted area for more than three seconds. This rule applies to both offensive and defensive players, regardless of whether they are holding the ball or not. The purpose of this rule is to prevent players from camping out in the key and clogging up the area near the basket, promoting more movement and flow in the game.

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67. You are in the second base with two outs. The batter hits the ball into the air. What should you do?

Explanation

In baseball, when there are two outs, it is generally advisable to run as soon as the batter hits the ball. This is because with two outs, the defense will usually be focused on making the play at first base to get the batter out, rather than trying to catch the ball in the air. By running immediately, the runner can take advantage of the defense's focus on the batter and potentially advance to the next base or even score a run.

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68. What should a defensive do when there is a force out at the second base?

Explanation

When there is a force out at second base, the defensive player should tag both the runner and the second base. This is because in a force out situation, the defensive player only needs to touch the base to record the out. However, if the runner is off the base, they must be tagged as well to ensure the out is recorded. Therefore, both actions are necessary to secure the out.

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69. Which is the art of passing the ball fairly high and close to the net so that the spiker can spring into the air and smash it into the opponent's court?

Explanation

Tossing is the art of passing the ball fairly high and close to the net so that the spiker can spring into the air and smash it into the opponent's court. This technique requires the player to have precise control and accuracy in order to set up the spiker for a successful attack. Tossing is an essential skill in volleyball as it allows the team to execute powerful and effective offensive plays.

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70. When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponent's court or return the ball into the opponent's court, the referee gives the decision. Which is referred to?

Explanation

When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponent's court or return the ball into the opponent's court, the referee gives the decision. In this case, the correct answer is "A score of one point is given." This means that the opposing team is awarded a point because the serving team was unable to successfully serve or return the ball.

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71. A team is declared a winner of a set or game in volleyball when the team is first to score ____.

Explanation

In volleyball, a team is declared a winner of a set or game when they are the first to score 25 points. This means that once a team reaches 25 points and has a lead of at least two points over the opposing team, they are declared the winner. This scoring system ensures that a team must demonstrate consistent performance and maintain a clear advantage over their opponents in order to secure victory.

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72. The objective of the volleyball game is to ____.

Explanation

The objective of the volleyball game is to serve the ball legally into the opponent's court. This is the first action that starts the game and it must be done following specific rules, such as hitting the ball with an open hand and from behind the service line. Serving the ball into the opponent's court initiates the gameplay and allows the team to start scoring points.

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73. In a volleyball game, when two teammates contact the ball simultaneously, it is considered two contacts for their team EXCEPT during

Explanation

In a volleyball game, when two teammates contact the ball simultaneously, it is considered two contacts for their team EXCEPT during blocking. During blocking, when two teammates contact the ball simultaneously, it is only considered as one contact for their team. This rule is in place to allow players to effectively defend against an opponent's attack at the net without being penalized for a double contact.

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74. In basketball, if the player is fouled out while shooting for a goal and misses the shot, what is the penalty?

Explanation

If a player is fouled out while shooting for a goal and misses the shot, the penalty is two penalty shots. This means that the fouled player will have two opportunities to take a free throw shot from the free throw line without any defenders. Each successful shot will count as one point for the player's team.

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75. In basketball, which one of the following is NOT allowed?

Explanation

In basketball, a player is not allowed to put two hands on the ball at the same time while still dribbling. This is considered a double dribble violation, which occurs when a player stops dribbling, holds or palms the ball, and then starts dribbling again. It is against the rules because it gives the player an unfair advantage and disrupts the flow of the game.

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76. The following are the team composition of a football game, EXCEPT one. Which one is it?

Explanation

The given team composition consists of positions typically found in a football game, such as the goal keeper, right fullback, and forwards. However, the position of "right fielder" is not commonly associated with football. In football, the positions are usually referred to as right winger or right midfielder. Therefore, the correct answer is "Right fielder."

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77. In basketball, after a field scored, the ball is put back to play by throwing it back from the ____.

Explanation

After a field is scored in basketball, the ball is put back into play by throwing it back from the endline. The endline is the boundary line at the back of the basketball court, and when the ball goes out of bounds on the baseline, it is returned to play by being thrown in from the endline.

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78. Which is continuous tapping of the ball with your hands or palm towards the floor with full control and follow through?

Explanation

Dribbling is the continuous tapping of the ball with your hands or palm towards the floor with full control and follow through. This technique is commonly used in sports such as basketball and soccer to move the ball while maintaining control and maneuvering around opponents. It requires skill, coordination, and the ability to keep the ball close to the body while changing directions and speed.

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79. Which foul is committed by a player which involves contact with an opponent?

Explanation

A personal foul is committed by a player when they make contact with an opponent. This can include actions such as pushing, tripping, or holding an opponent. Personal fouls are common in sports like basketball or football, where physical contact is allowed but certain actions are considered illegal and can result in penalties or free throws for the opposing team.

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80. In a basketball game, how long can a player be on his opponent's restricted area when his team has possession of the ball without being penalized?

Explanation

In a basketball game, a player can be on his opponent's restricted area when his team has possession of the ball for a maximum of three seconds without being penalized. This rule is in place to prevent players from camping in the restricted area and impeding defensive players. If a player exceeds the three-second limit, it results in a violation called a "three-second violation," and the opposing team is awarded possession of the ball.

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81. Which of the following is against the rules?

Explanation

This action is against the rules because it involves knocking over an opponent who is in the path of the player dribbling towards the goal. In most sports, intentionally knocking over an opponent is considered a foul or a violation of the rules. It is important to play the game in a fair and sportsmanlike manner, without intentionally causing harm to other players.

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82. How many steps is the player permitted to take between bounces in a dribble?

Explanation

The correct answer is "As many as/he wish" because there is no specific limit on the number of steps a player can take between bounces in a dribble. The player has the freedom to take as many steps as they want while maintaining control of the ball. This allows for flexibility and creativity in their movements on the court.

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83. When a penalty shot is taken, when are the players to move into the restraining area?

Explanation

When a penalty shot is taken, the players are allowed to move into the restraining area when the ball leaves the thrower's hand. This means that they cannot move into the restraining area before the ball is released by the thrower. Moving into the restraining area before the ball leaves the thrower's hand would be considered a violation.

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84. The space over the home plate, between the batter's armpits and the tip of his knees, is called____.

Explanation

The space over the home plate, between the batter's armpits and the tip of his knees, is called the strike zone. This is the area where the pitcher is supposed to throw the ball in order for it to be considered a strike. If the ball passes through this area and the batter does not swing, it is called a strike.

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85. Which is the most important throws in the outfield?

Explanation

The most important throw in the outfield is the "Overwarm" throw. This type of throw is typically used to make long, accurate throws from the outfield to the infield or home plate. It allows the outfielder to generate more power and distance in their throw, making it more difficult for baserunners to advance. This type of throw is crucial in preventing runners from scoring and keeping the opposing team from gaining an advantage.

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86. Which of the following players usually covers home plate when the catcher leaves it to the field ball?

Explanation

When the catcher leaves home plate to field the ball, the player who usually covers home plate is the right fielder. The right fielder is positioned in the outfield closest to home plate, making them the most logical choice to cover the plate in the absence of the catcher. This ensures that there is still a player in position to prevent any runners from scoring while the catcher is away from home plate.

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87. Which player usually covers the home plate when the catcher leaves it to field ball?

Explanation

The pitcher usually covers the home plate when the catcher leaves it to field the ball. This is because the pitcher is typically the closest player to the home plate after delivering the pitch, making it easier for them to quickly move and cover the plate in case of a play. Additionally, the pitcher is also responsible for backing up the catcher in case of any throws or plays at home plate.

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88. A ball that is not swung at, but which is purposely tapped slowly into the infield is called _____.

Explanation

A bunt is a term used in baseball to describe a situation where the batter intentionally taps the ball softly into the infield. Unlike a swing or a hit, a bunt is a strategic move aimed at advancing base runners or sacrificing an out to move a runner into scoring position. It is typically used when the defense is not expecting a bunt and can catch them off guard. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is "A bunt."

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89. What is the most important in batting?

Explanation

The most important aspect in batting is to keep your eyes on the ball. This is crucial because it allows the batter to accurately judge the speed, trajectory, and movement of the ball, enabling them to make the correct decision on how to swing the bat. By keeping their eyes on the ball, the batter can time their swing properly and make solid contact, increasing their chances of success in hitting the ball effectively.

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90. To which base is a runner always forced?

Explanation

A runner is always forced to go to 1st base. This means that when there is a runner on the 1st base, the batter must run to 1st base and the runner on 1st base must advance to 2nd base. This is because there is no choice for the runner on 1st base - they are required to advance to the next base when the batter hits the ball.

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91. In which of the following cases is the batter "out"?

Explanation

In baseball, a batter is considered "out" if they have three strikes against them. In this case, the call against the batter is strike 2, meaning they already have two strikes. When they hit and miss the next ball, which is caught by the catcher, it counts as a third strike and the batter is declared "out".

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92. When does a batter receive a free base or "walk"?

Explanation

A batter receives a free base or "walk" after 3 strikes because in baseball, a batter is allowed three strikes before they are considered out. If a pitcher throws four balls to a batter, the batter is awarded a free base and is allowed to walk to first base. However, in this case, the correct answer is after 3 strikes, not after 4 balls.

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93. Before pitching, a pitcher must ____.

Explanation

Before pitching, a pitcher must have both feet on the plate. This is a rule in baseball that ensures the pitcher starts in a stable position and maintains balance during the pitch. Having both feet on the plate also helps to prevent any advantage or disadvantage for the pitcher or the batter. By requiring both feet on the plate, it ensures a fair and consistent pitching position for all players.

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94. Which of the following would be called "ball"?

Explanation

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95. What is the formula used to determine the number of games for single elimination?

Explanation

The formula used to determine the number of games for single elimination is G=(N-1). This formula is derived from the fact that in a single elimination tournament, each team except the champion will be eliminated after losing one game. Therefore, the total number of games played will be equal to the total number of teams minus one.

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96. How many byers are there in tournaments with nine (9) participating teams using single elimination?

Explanation

In single elimination tournaments, each team is eliminated after losing one match. Since there are 9 participating teams, there will be a total of 8 matches played. In each match, one team will be eliminated, resulting in 8 teams being eliminated in total. Therefore, there will be only 1 team left at the end of the tournament, which is the winner.

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97. Which is TRUE about deep catch stroke? I. More effective than the sculling stroke II. Has the deep catch freestyle stroke III. The arm action resembles that of the paddle

Explanation

The deep catch stroke is more effective than the sculling stroke because it allows for a stronger and more powerful pull through the water. It is also a component of the deep catch freestyle stroke, which emphasizes a longer reach and catch phase. Additionally, the arm action of the deep catch stroke resembles that of a paddle, further enhancing its effectiveness in propelling through the water.

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98. Which is TRUE about sculling stroke? I. Has bent-arm, propeller-inspired motion II. The arm action resembles that of paddle III. More efficient and effective than the deep catch stroke

Explanation

The correct answer is I only. This is because the sculling stroke does have a bent-arm, propeller-inspired motion. The arm action resembles that of a paddle, which is mentioned in option II, but this is not true for the sculling stroke. Option III is incorrect because the efficiency and effectiveness of the sculling stroke compared to the deep catch stroke is not mentioned in the question or any of the options.

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99. Which do/does NOT characterize butterfly swimming stroke? I. The body is in a supine position. II. The body is in a prone position. III. Involves the dolphin kick with a wind-mill-like movement of both arms in unison.

Explanation

The butterfly swimming stroke does not characterize the body being in a supine position. In butterfly stroke, the body is in a prone position, meaning it is facing downwards. The butterfly stroke involves a dolphin kick with a wind-mill-like movement of both arms in unison, which is true for statements II and III. Therefore, the correct answer is I only.

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100. When swimming competitively, what should a swimmer do? I. The body is in a prone position II. Involves frog kicking alternates with simultaneous movement of the arms from a point to the front head shoulder level III.  The swimmer's head must be kept above the surface of the water at all times

Explanation

When swimming competitively, a swimmer should do the following:
- The body should be in a prone position, which means lying face down in the water.
- The swimmer should perform frog kicking alternately with simultaneous movement of the arms from a point to the front head shoulder level.
- The swimmer's head must be kept above the surface of the water at all times.

Therefore, the correct answer is I, II, and III.

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101. Which is swimming that uses any stroke?

Explanation

Freestyle is the swimming style that allows the swimmer to use any stroke they prefer. Unlike the other options listed, such as breaststroke, dog paddle, and backstroke, freestyle does not have specific rules or restrictions on the type of stroke used. This style is commonly used in competitive swimming events and allows swimmers to choose the stroke that they are most comfortable and efficient with.

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102. Which is NOT TRUE of backstroke?

Explanation

Backstroke is not done in a prone position, as the question suggests. Instead, it is done in a supine position, with the swimmer lying on their back. The other options listed are accurate: backstroke involves an alternative over-the-head arm stroke and a flutter kick dog paddle, and it is a distinct swimming style from freestyle.

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103. Which is/are a general rule/s for safety when swimming on the beach? I. Warm up before you swim. II. Stay out of water during thunderstorms. III. It is more exciting to swim during a thunderstorm.

Explanation

The correct answer is I and II. This is because warming up before swimming helps to prevent muscle cramps and injuries, ensuring a safer swimming experience. Additionally, staying out of the water during thunderstorms is crucial for safety as lightning poses a significant risk of electrocution. The statement "It is more exciting to swim during a thunderstorm" is incorrect and does not align with safety rules.

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104. Which is the rule for safety when swimming on the beach?

Explanation

Relying on swimming aids can give a false sense of security and may lead to accidents. It is important to rely on one's own swimming abilities and skills rather than depending on aids such as floatation devices. These aids can deflate or become detached, putting the swimmer in danger. It is always safer to swim without any aids and be confident in one's own abilities.

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105. What does this mean? 

Explanation

This means that there have been reports or information indicating the presence of sharks in the area where swimming is taking place. It is a warning to be cautious and swim at your own risk due to the potential danger posed by the sharks.

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106. Which are safety advice on how to avoid shark? I. Do not swim at dawn, at dusk or night. II. Do not swim if you are bleeding or have any open wounds. III. If schooling fish start to behave erratically or start to congregate in huge numbers, leave the water. IV. If a large fish is sighted in the area, leave the water as quickly and calmly as possible.

Explanation

The correct answer is I, II, III and IV. All of the safety advice mentioned are important for avoiding sharks. Swimming at dawn, dusk, or night increases the risk of encountering sharks as they are more active during these times. Sharks are attracted to blood and open wounds, so it is important not to swim if you are bleeding. Erratic behavior of schooling fish or their congregation in large numbers can indicate the presence of sharks, so it is advisable to leave the water in such situations. Finally, if a large fish is sighted in the area, it is best to leave the water calmly and quickly to avoid any potential danger.

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107. Arrange the steps in mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. 1. Check the pulse for signs of life 2. Begin mouth-to-mouth resuscitation on land, if possible, or in the water, if injured persons need immediate life-and-death measures. 3. Strongly breathe four times into the mouth of the injured person as you pinch his or her nose. This helps air get past any water that is clogging the breathing passageways and the lungs. 4. Turn the drowning person's head to the side, allowing any water to drain from his or her mouth or nose. Turn the head back to the center. 5. After four strong breaths, put your ear near the mouth and watch the chest for any breathing movement.

Explanation

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108. Which is executed by moving the hand from the wrist either clockwise or counterclockwise?

Explanation

Kumintang is executed by moving the hand from the wrist either clockwise or counterclockwise.

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109. With the weight of the body on one foot, hit the floor with the ball of the other foot after which the lift foot from the floor. This is a dance term called_____ step.

Explanation

In dance, the term "brush" refers to hitting the floor with the ball of the foot while the weight of the body is on the other foot, and then lifting the foot from the floor. This term is commonly used in various dance styles to create a specific movement or sound.

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110. Which is done when one crosses the right foot or left foot in front of the left (R), bends the body slightly forward and crosses the hands down in front with the right (L) hand over the left (R)?

Explanation

Sarok is the correct answer. Sarok refers to a Filipino martial arts movement where one crosses the right foot or left foot in front of the left, bends the body slightly forward, and crosses the hands down in front with the right hand over the left. This movement is commonly used in Filipino martial arts for various purposes such as defense or offense.

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111. Which one referred to when one places the foot in a certain desired position without putting weight on it and makes the sole of the foot rest flat on the floor?

Explanation

This question is asking for the term that refers to placing the foot in a desired position without putting weight on it and making the sole of the foot rest flat on the floor. The correct answer is "Place."

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112. What position is described when arms are at the side, horizontal, elbows bent at the right angle, forearms parallel to the head and palms facing inward?

Explanation

When the arms are at the side, horizontal, elbows bent at a right angle, forearms parallel to the head, and palms facing inward, it is referred to as the "Arms in T position". This position resembles the shape of the letter "T", with the arms forming the horizontal line and the body forming the vertical line.

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113. Whose is known as the "Mother, Dean and Champion of Philippine folk Dance"?

Explanation

Francisca Reyes Aquino is known as the "Mother, Dean and Champion of Philippine folk Dance" because she dedicated her life to the preservation and promotion of traditional Philippine dances. She conducted extensive research on various regional dances, documenting their steps, music, and costumes. Aquino also founded the Philippine Folk Dance Society and authored several books on Philippine folk dance, which helped popularize and institutionalize these dances. Her efforts played a significant role in reviving and preserving the country's rich cultural heritage.

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114. Which dance is based on music played at bullfight during the bullfight's entrance (paseo) or during the passes (faena) just before they kill?

Explanation

Pasadoble is a dance that is based on the music played during the bullfight's entrance (paseo) or during the passes (faena) just before they kill. This dance originated in Spain and is often performed in bullfighting events. The name "pasadoble" translates to "double step" in Spanish, which refers to the marching-like steps that are characteristic of this dance. The music and choreography of pasadoble aim to capture the drama and intensity of the bullfight, making it a fitting dance choice for this context.

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115. This is consists of the basic movement of stepping forward or backward and shifting weight between feet, then an additional quick set of these steps. Which is described. 

Explanation

The correct answer is Cha cha cha because it is a dance style that involves the basic movement of stepping forward or backward and shifting weight between feet, followed by a quick set of these steps. The cha cha cha is known for its lively and energetic rhythm, making it a popular choice for Latin dance enthusiasts.

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116. Which dance is consists of two quick steps and then a third slower step that takes two beats to execute? Dancers use a box-like pattern to their movements.

Explanation

The correct answer is Rumba. Rumba is a dance that consists of two quick steps and then a third slower step that takes two beats to execute. Dancers use a box-like pattern to their movements.

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117. This dance originated in the Caribbean although it also has a strong African influence. Couples typically perform this dance together and it centers on a four-beat combination of two quick steps and a slow step with a pauce or tap. Which dance is described?

Explanation

Salsa is the correct answer because it originated in the Caribbean and has a strong African influence. It is a couple's dance that involves a four-beat combination of two quick steps and a slow step with a pause or tap.

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118. Which is one of the most well-known Latin dances especially for its role Carnival events, where individual dancers perform? Some of which are for dancing couples and others of which are dancers for individuals.

Explanation

Samba is one of the most well-known Latin dances, particularly popular during Carnival events. It is known for its energetic and lively movements, often performed by individual dancers. Samba is also performed by dancing couples, but it is especially renowned for its solo performances.

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119. Which is a lively dance patterned after the drama of the Spanish bullfight?

Explanation

Pasadoble is a lively dance patterned after the drama of the Spanish bullfight. It originated in Spain and is characterized by its strong and dramatic movements, mimicking the movements of the matador and the bull in a bullfight. The dance is known for its quick tempo and sharp footwork, making it an energetic and exciting dance to watch and perform.

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120. WHich track event is won by the athlete with the fastest time?

Explanation

The track event that is won by the athlete with the fastest time is the running event. In running events, athletes compete to complete a certain distance in the shortest amount of time. The winner is determined by the athlete who crosses the finish line first, making it a race against the clock. This is different from jumping and throwing events, where the winner is determined by the distance or height achieved, rather than the time taken. Combined events, on the other hand, involve multiple disciplines and are scored based on a points system, rather than solely on time.

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121. Which field event is won by the athlete who has achieved the greatest height in the contestant?

Explanation

The athlete who has achieved the greatest height in the jumping event would win this field event. This event typically includes disciplines such as high jump, pole vault, and long jump, where athletes compete to clear a certain height or distance. The athlete who can jump the highest would be considered the winner in this event.

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122. In which track event do teams of athletes run and pass on a baton to their team members?

Explanation

In a relay race, teams of athletes run and pass on a baton to their team members. Each team member runs a specific distance before passing the baton to the next runner. The goal is to complete the race in the shortest time possible, with each team member contributing to the overall result. The other options listed, hurdles, pole vault, and long jump, are individual track events that do not involve passing a baton.

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123. The most positive way health teachers can help students see the importance of personal health care as a desirable choice is to increase their awareness of ______.

Explanation

Health teachers can help students see the importance of personal health care as a desirable choice by increasing their awareness of how it promotes overall wellness. By educating students about the positive impact of personal health care on their physical, mental, and emotional well-being, they can emphasize the benefits and encourage students to make it a priority. This approach focuses on the proactive and positive aspects of personal health care, rather than solely emphasizing the negative consequences of not practicing good habits or the responsibilities of parents.

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124. Which of the following statements is the best strategy for teachers to explain how proper care of the body can influence growth and development?

Explanation

The best strategy for teachers to explain how proper care of the body can influence growth and development is to provide students with poster board and ask them to make a collage of people with diverse body types and habits that may influence body functioning. This activity allows students to visually understand the concept of how different lifestyles and habits can impact their overall health and development. It also encourages creativity and critical thinking as students analyze and discuss the various influences on body functioning.

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125. Pimples, whiteheads, blackheads, and acne are the results of ______.

Explanation

Pimples, whiteheads, blackheads, and acne are the results of overlay active secretion of oil glands in the body. This is because the oil glands in the skin produce sebum, which helps to keep the skin moisturized. However, when there is an overproduction of sebum, it can mix with dead skin cells and clog the pores, leading to the formation of pimples, whiteheads, blackheads, and acne.

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126. The best thing to do for a child with hearing loss is to _____.

Explanation

The best thing to do for a child with hearing loss is to detect the condition early and get medical attention. This is because early detection allows for timely intervention and appropriate medical treatment, which can significantly improve the child's hearing and overall development. Getting medical attention also ensures that the child receives proper support, such as hearing aids or cochlear implants, if necessary, and can access educational resources and therapies tailored to their needs. Detecting the condition early and seeking medical attention is crucial in order to provide the child with the best possible outcomes for their hearing health.

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127. Students spend much time during the school day sitting at the desk. Which of the following statements will promote good posture upon sitting?

Explanation

The statement "Desk should be appropriate in height to allow both feet to touch the floor" promotes good posture upon sitting because it ensures that the student's feet are flat on the floor, which helps to distribute weight evenly and maintain proper alignment of the spine. This position reduces strain on the back and promotes good posture.

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128. Children who continually pull on their ears or seem to have NO balance and equilibrium should be referred to as _____.

Explanation

Children who continually pull on their ears or seem to have no balance and equilibrium should be referred to an otologist. An otologist is a medical specialist who deals with the diagnosis and treatment of disorders related to the ears, including ear infections and problems with balance and equilibrium. Therefore, it is appropriate to refer children with these symptoms to an otologist for further evaluation and appropriate care.

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129. Teaching students how to soak his/her hands or feet in warm water for at least 5 minutes is very important because soaking _______.

Explanation

Soaking the hands or feet in warm water for at least 5 minutes softens the nails, making them easier to trim. This is important because it allows for a more comfortable and effective nail trimming process.

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130. The use of cucumber in your eyelids before going to sleep at night will help ____.

Explanation

Cucumber has cooling and soothing properties, which can help reduce inflammation and swelling. Applying cucumber slices on the eyelids before sleep can help prevent puffiness by reducing fluid retention and constricting blood vessels.

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131. If a person has a seizure while bathing, which of the following procedures should come first?

Explanation

When a person has a seizure while bathing, the first priority should be to immediately protect and support the head. This is important because during a seizure, the person may experience jerking movements that can cause injury, and supporting the head helps to prevent any harm to the neck or spine. Once the head is protected, other steps such as following first aid steps for a seizure, starting the water draining from the tub, and calling other staff for assistance can be taken. However, the initial focus should be on ensuring the safety of the person's head.

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132. Ears are a special part of our body and like any other organs, we should take care good of them. Which of the following is the safest way to clean your ears?

Explanation

Cleaning your ears with washcloths using your fingers is the safest way to clean your ears. This method allows you to gently remove excess wax and dirt from the outer part of your ears without causing any harm to the delicate structures inside. Using cotton swabs can push the wax deeper into the ear canal and potentially cause damage. Cleaning your ears once a week is a good practice, but the method used is more important for safety. Being gentle in cleaning your ears is also important to avoid any injury or irritation.

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133. A person who able to see more than one side of an issue and exhibits good time-management skills is said to possess ____ wellness.

Explanation

Intellectual wellness refers to the ability to think critically, analyze information, and consider multiple perspectives. A person who is able to see more than one side of an issue demonstrates intellectual wellness. Additionally, possessing good time-management skills indicates a level of intellectual wellness as it requires effective planning and organization. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is intellectual wellness.

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134. What healthy alternative can one do to avoid smoking?

Explanation

Joining sports clubs and organizations is a healthy alternative to avoid smoking because it provides a positive and active environment. Engaging in physical activities and being part of a team can distract individuals from smoking and help them focus on their health and fitness goals. Additionally, sports clubs often promote a healthy lifestyle and discourage smoking, providing a supportive community that can help individuals stay away from cigarettes.

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135. If your skin is oily then you are prone to pimples, blackheads and white heads. The best way to treat oily skin is ____.

Explanation

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136. A neighbour complains that his children often have diarrhea. What is the best advice you can give him?

Explanation

Washing hands properly and regularly is the best advice to give in this situation because diarrhea is often caused by the ingestion of harmful bacteria or viruses. By washing their hands, the children can remove these pathogens and prevent them from entering their bodies. This simple hygiene practice can significantly reduce the risk of diarrhea and other gastrointestinal infections. Cleaning the house with disinfectants, avoiding street food, and properly disposing of garbage are also important for maintaining a clean and healthy environment, but handwashing is specifically targeted at preventing the transmission of pathogens.

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137. The "ossicles" are found in ______.

Explanation

The "ossicles" are a group of three small bones located in the middle ear. These bones, namely the malleus, incus, and stapes, play a crucial role in transmitting sound vibrations from the outer ear to the inner ear. They amplify and transmit these vibrations to the fluid-filled cochlea, where they are converted into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is "Ear."

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138. Which is TRUE of tinea Flava?

Explanation

Tinea Flava is a fungal skin infection, which is the correct answer. It is characterized by the appearance of dark or light patches on the skin, usually in the form of irregularly shaped patches. This condition is caused by a type of fungus called dermatophyte. Tinea Flava is commonly found in areas with high humidity and poor hygiene. It can be treated with antifungal medications and good personal hygiene practices.

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139. Which eye defect is most commonly associated with ageing?

Explanation

Presbyopia is the correct answer because it is a common eye defect that occurs with age. It is characterized by the loss of ability to focus on objects up close, resulting in difficulty reading or seeing small print. As people age, the lens in the eye becomes less flexible, making it harder to adjust focus. This condition typically starts around the age of 40 and progressively worsens. Myopia, astigmatism, and conjunctivitis are eye conditions that can occur at any age and are not specifically associated with ageing.

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140. Green leafy vegetables belong to which group?

Explanation

Green leafy vegetables belong to the group of "Glow foods" because they are rich in essential nutrients such as vitamins, minerals, and antioxidants that promote healthy skin, hair, and overall body glow. These vegetables, like spinach, kale, and lettuce, are low in calories and high in fiber, making them beneficial for weight management and digestion. Additionally, they provide a wide range of vitamins, including vitamin A, C, and K, which are known for their skin-enhancing properties. Therefore, consuming green leafy vegetables can contribute to a glowing and healthy appearance.

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141. Which among the following has the highest dietary fibre content?

Explanation

Lentils have the highest dietary fiber content among the given options. Lentils are a good source of both soluble and insoluble fiber, which helps in digestion and promotes bowel regularity. They are also low in fat and high in protein, making them a healthy addition to a balanced diet. On the other hand, while sweet corn, carrot, and banana also contain some dietary fiber, their fiber content is lower compared to lentils. Therefore, lentils are the best choice for individuals looking to increase their dietary fiber intake.

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142. Which is the best way to manage diabetes? Help the patient by _____.

Explanation

Allowing the patient to anticipate the dietary effects and exercise choices on their health is the best way to manage diabetes because it empowers the patient to take control of their own health. By understanding how their choices can impact their diabetes, the patient can make informed decisions about their diet and exercise regimen. This approach promotes self-management and encourages the patient to actively participate in their own care, leading to better management of their diabetes.

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143. High caloric needs sleep requirements of adolescents are directly related to which of the following?

Explanation

The high caloric needs and sleep requirements of adolescents are directly related to the high rates of metabolic activity associated with their growth and development. During adolescence, there is a significant increase in physical growth, hormonal changes, and development of various body systems. This increased metabolic activity requires more energy, resulting in higher caloric needs. Additionally, the body's growth and development processes occur primarily during sleep, making adequate sleep crucial for adolescents to support their growth and development.

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144. Which of the following method would be most appropriate for students to develop refusal skills?

Explanation

Having students role-play various refusal skills would be the most appropriate method for them to develop these skills. Role-playing allows students to actively engage in scenarios where they can practice saying no and standing up to peer pressure. This hands-on approach allows them to experience different situations and learn how to respond effectively. It also provides an opportunity for feedback and discussion, helping them to improve their skills and build confidence in refusing unwanted influences.

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145. If you believe that one of your students has a drug problem, which should you do to address the situation?

Explanation

If you believe that one of your students has a drug problem, it is important to take action to address the situation. Reporting the situation to the principal is a good first step, as they will need to be informed and involved in the process. Obtaining information about the student's behavior is also crucial, as it can help in understanding the extent of the problem. However, the most effective course of action would be to speak with an experienced counselor about setting up an intervention. This will ensure that the student receives the necessary support and guidance to overcome their drug problem. Additionally, offering your support during treatment can be beneficial in showing the student that they are not alone and that they have someone to rely on.

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146. Robby's habit is gotten out of control. His habit has a negative impact on his health. His characteristic includes craving, loss of control, and escalation. Robby's behaviours indicate _____.

Explanation

Robby's habit, which has gotten out of control and has a negative impact on his health, along with his characteristics of craving, loss of control, and escalation, indicate that he is experiencing addiction.

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147. According to the chain of infection model, the use of disposal spoon and fork in the food chain control the spread of communicable disease primarily by interfering with _____.

Explanation

The use of disposable spoon and fork in the food chain helps control the spread of communicable diseases by interfering with the portal of entry of the pathogen into a new host. By using disposable utensils, the risk of contamination and transmission of pathogens through direct contact with contaminated utensils is reduced. This helps prevent the entry of pathogens into the body through the mouth, which is a common portal of entry for many communicable diseases.

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148. A family consists of a mother with two children and a father with three children. Each child is biologically related to only one of the adults in the family. Which of the following best describes this family structure?

Explanation

A blended family is the best description for this family structure because it consists of two parents, each with their own set of children from previous relationships. The children are biologically related to only one of the adults, indicating that they are not the biological children of both parents. This suggests that the family has come together through marriage or partnership, creating a blended family unit.

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149. Which characterized breaststroke? I. The body is in a prone position II. Involves frog kicking alternates with simultaneous movement of the arms from a point and front of the head and shoulder level When swimming competitively, the swimmer's head must be kept above the surface of the water at all times.

Explanation

The breaststroke is characterized by the following:
I. The body is in a prone position, meaning the swimmer's body is facing downwards with the chest and stomach facing towards the bottom of the pool.
II. It involves frog kicking, where the legs kick outwards and then come back together, alternating with simultaneous movement of the arms. The arms start from a point in front of the head and move towards shoulder level.
III. When swimming competitively, the swimmer's head must be kept above the surface of the water at all times.

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150. Which characterize/s an effective swimming stroke? I. SHould create the least possible water resistance II. There should be a minimum of splashing III. Forward motion is smooth and not jerky.

Explanation

An effective swimming stroke should create the least possible water resistance, have a minimum of splashing, and have smooth forward motion. These characteristics ensure efficient movement through the water, allowing the swimmer to maintain speed and conserve energy. By minimizing water resistance, the swimmer can move through the water with less effort. A minimum of splashing indicates that the swimmer is using their energy efficiently and not wasting it on unnecessary movements. Smooth forward motion ensures that the swimmer maintains a consistent speed and avoids any sudden jerky movements that can disrupt their momentum.

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