Phlebotomy Essentials, 4th Edition Study Guide For Chapters 1, 2 ,3

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  • 1/95 Questions

    Which department is responsible for administering a patient’s oxygen therapy?

    • Cardiodiagnostics
    • Electroencephalography
    • Physical therapy
    • Respiratory therapy
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Study guide covering key aspects of phlebotomy essentials, including healthcare services, medical coding, and patient care principles.


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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics:

    • Eye contact

    • Frowning

    • Good grooming

    • Smiling

    Correct Answer
    A. Frowning
    Explanation
    Frowning is an example of negative kinesics because it is a facial expression that typically indicates displeasure, concern, or disapproval. It is a nonverbal cue that can convey negative emotions or a negative attitude towards someone or something. Unlike eye contact, good grooming, and smiling, which are generally considered positive or neutral nonverbal behaviors, frowning is associated with negative body language.

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  • 3. 

    Which one of the following represents improper telephone protocol?

    • Answer the phone promptly

    • Clarify and record information

    • Hang up on hostile individuals

    • Restate information received

    Correct Answer
    A. Hang up on hostile individuals
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Hang up on hostile individuals," represents improper telephone protocol because it is rude and unprofessional to abruptly end a call with someone who may be hostile. In any communication, it is important to remain calm and try to resolve conflicts or misunderstandings peacefully. Hanging up on someone without attempting to address their concerns or finding a solution goes against the principles of effective communication and customer service.

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  • 4. 

    Standard precautions should be followed:

    • For anyone with hepatitis B

    • If a patient is HIV positive

    • While a patient is in isolation

    • With all patients, at all times

    Correct Answer
    A. With all patients, at all times
    Explanation
    Standard precautions should be followed with all patients, at all times. This means that healthcare workers should take the necessary precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases, regardless of the patient's specific condition. These precautions include hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment (such as gloves, masks, and gowns), safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of sharps. By following standard precautions consistently, healthcare workers can minimize the risk of spreading infections and ensure the safety of both themselves and their patients.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a patient?

    • “I am on a tight schedule right now.”

    • “I do not know what you mean.”

    • “I have no idea how long it will take.”

    • “I understand how you must be feeling.”

    Correct Answer
    A. “I understand how you must be feeling.”
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "I understand how you must be feeling." This response shows empathy and validates the patient's emotions, indicating that the healthcare provider acknowledges and comprehends the patient's feelings. It demonstrates a confirming response by affirming the patient's emotional state and shows support and understanding.

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  • 6. 

    Elements of good communication in healthcare involve all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Accepting the patient as a unique individual who has special needs.

    • Allowing patients to feel a sense of control by expressing their wishes

    • Disguising the truth to the patient with statements like “this won’t hurt”

    • Listening thoughtfully and patiently while patients vent their emotions

    Correct Answer
    A. Disguising the truth to the patient with statements like “this won’t hurt”
    Explanation
    Good communication in healthcare involves accepting the patient as a unique individual, allowing them to express their wishes and feel a sense of control, and listening thoughtfully and patiently to their emotions. However, disguising the truth to the patient with statements like "this won't hurt" is not a part of good communication. It is important to be honest and transparent with patients, even if the truth may be difficult or uncomfortable to hear. This helps to build trust and maintain a strong patient-provider relationship.

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  • 7. 

    All of the following are reasons for a phlebotomist to participate in continuing education programs EXCEPT:

    • Eliminate annual evaluations

    • Learn new skills and techniques

    • Renew licensure or certification

    • Stay current in the latest procedures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminate annual evaluations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Eliminate annual evaluations." Phlebotomists participate in continuing education programs to learn new skills and techniques, renew their licensure or certification, and stay current in the latest procedures. However, participating in continuing education programs does not eliminate the need for annual evaluations, as evaluations are important for assessing job performance and identifying areas for improvement.

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  • 8. 

    The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department. A patient in this department is most likely being treated for a disorder of the:

    • Joints

    • Kidneys

    • Lungs

    • Nose

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidneys
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Kidneys" because the nephrology department specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of kidney disorders. Therefore, if a patient is being treated in this department, it is highly likely that they have a disorder related to their kidneys.

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  • 9. 

    Which medical specialty treats patients with tumors?

    • Geriatrics

    • Oncology

    • Ophthalmology

    • Orthopedics

    Correct Answer
    A. Oncology
    Explanation
    Oncology is the correct answer because it is the medical specialty that specifically focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of tumors, including cancerous growths. Oncologists are trained to provide comprehensive care to patients with tumors, including conducting tests, performing surgeries, prescribing medications, and coordinating other treatments such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy. They work closely with other healthcare professionals to develop personalized treatment plans and provide support throughout the entire cancer journey.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following personnel are required to have a college degree or equivalent EXCEPT:

    • Clinical laboratory scientist

    • Medical technician

    • Medical technologist

    • Phlebotomist

    Correct Answer
    A. Phlebotomist
    Explanation
    The phlebotomist is not required to have a college degree or equivalent, unlike the other personnel listed. Phlebotomists are trained professionals who specialize in drawing blood from patients. While they may undergo specific training and certification programs, they do not typically need a college degree. On the other hand, clinical laboratory scientists, medical technicians, and medical technologists usually require a college degree or equivalent education to perform their respective roles in healthcare settings.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not an area of phlebotomy subject to quality control (QC) procedures?

    • Patient identification

    • Patient IV adjustment

    • Phlebotomy technique

    • Specimen labeling

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient IV adjustment
    Explanation
    Patient IV adjustment is not an area of phlebotomy subject to quality control (QC) procedures because it does not involve the collection or handling of blood specimens. Phlebotomy technique, patient identification, and specimen labeling are all critical aspects of phlebotomy that require QC procedures to ensure accuracy, safety, and proper handling of specimens. However, patient IV adjustment is a separate procedure that falls under the responsibility of healthcare professionals such as nurses or doctors, and it does not directly relate to the collection or processing of blood samples.

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  • 12. 

    Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of:

    • Assault and battery

    • Breach of confidentiality

    • Malpractice

    • Negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault and battery
    Explanation
    Drawing a patient's blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act of causing apprehension or fear of harmful or offensive contact, while battery refers to the actual physical contact without consent. In this case, the act of drawing blood without permission can be seen as a violation of the patient's bodily integrity, constituting both assault (causing fear) and battery (unwanted physical contact).

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  • 13. 

    Malpractice is a claim of:

    • Breach of confidentiality

    • Improper treatment

    • Invasion of privacy

    • Res ipsa loquitur

    Correct Answer
    A. Improper treatment
    Explanation
    Malpractice refers to the improper or negligent treatment provided by a professional, such as a doctor or lawyer, which results in harm or injury to the client or patient. It involves a failure to meet the standard of care expected in the profession, leading to negative consequences for the individual receiving the treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is "Improper treatment," as it aligns with the definition and concept of malpractice.

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  • 14. 

    What is the first thing a phlebotomist should do if he or she is accidentally stuck by a needle used to draw blood from a patient?

    • Check the patient’s medical records for HIV test results

    • Clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds

    • Go to the employee health service and get a tetanus booster

    • Leave the area so the patient does not notice the injury

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds
    Explanation
    After being accidentally stuck by a needle used to draw blood from a patient, the first thing a phlebotomist should do is clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds. This is important to prevent any potential infection or transmission of pathogens. Cleaning the site thoroughly can help reduce the risk of any complications and ensure proper wound care. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize their own safety and take immediate action to minimize any potential harm.

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  • 15. 

    All of the following are good ways to earn a patient’s trust EXCEPT:

    • Act knowledgeably

    • Convey sincerity

    • Dismiss patient fears

    • Look professional

    Correct Answer
    A. Dismiss patient fears
    Explanation
    Dismiss patient fears is not a good way to earn a patient's trust because it disregards their concerns and fails to address their emotional needs. Building trust with a patient requires acknowledging and understanding their fears, providing reassurance, and offering support. Dismissing their fears can lead to a breakdown in communication and a lack of confidence in the healthcare provider's ability to provide appropriate care.

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  • 16. 

    A Very busy phlebotomist misidentifies the patient when collecting a specimen for transfusion preparation. The possible misdiagnosis of blood type could cause the patient’s death. If the phlebotomist’s action results in injury, this wrongful act is called:

    • Assault

    • Battery

    • Fraud

    • Negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence is the correct answer because it refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care or the omission to do something that a reasonable person would do in similar circumstances. In this scenario, the phlebotomist's misidentification of the patient and potential misdiagnosis of blood type could lead to severe consequences, including the patient's death. The phlebotomist's action of not properly identifying the patient and collecting the wrong specimen demonstrates a lack of reasonable care, making it a case of negligence.

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  • 17. 

    The series of components that lead to infection are referred to as the:

    • Chain of infection

    • Immune response

    • Infection cycle

    • Pathogenic series

    Correct Answer
    A. Chain of infection
    Explanation
    The term "chain of infection" refers to the sequence of events that must occur for an infection to spread. It includes six components: the infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Each component is linked to the next, forming a chain that allows the infection to continue spreading. This concept is important in understanding and preventing the transmission of infectious diseases.

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  • 18. 

    The phlebotomy supervisor asked a phlebotomist to collect a specimen in the otorhinolaryngology department. The phlebotomist proceeded to go to the department that provides treatment for:

    • Bone and joint disorders

    • Ear, nose, and throat disorders

    • Eye problems or diseases

    • Skin problems and diseases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ear, nose, and throat disorders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ear, nose, and throat disorders" because the otorhinolaryngology department specifically deals with disorders and conditions related to the ear, nose, and throat. This department is responsible for diagnosing and treating various issues such as hearing loss, sinus problems, tonsillitis, and vocal cord disorders. Therefore, the phlebotomist was asked to collect a specimen in this department to assist in the diagnosis or monitoring of a patient with an ear, nose, or throat disorder.

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  • 19. 

    The best course of action when entering an isolation room is:

    • Ask the patient’s nurse what to do

    • Do whatever you did the last time

    • Follow the posted precautions

    • Put on gloves and a respirator

    Correct Answer
    A. Follow the posted precautions
    Explanation
    The best course of action when entering an isolation room is to follow the posted precautions. This means adhering to any guidelines or instructions that are visibly displayed in the room, such as wearing personal protective equipment (PPE), practicing proper hand hygiene, and taking any necessary precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Following the posted precautions ensures that healthcare workers are taking the necessary steps to protect themselves and others from potential harm or transmission of infectious agents.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following situations allows patients to feel in control?

    • Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw

    • Informing patients that you are going to collect a blood sample

    • Insisting that patients cooperate and let you draw needed samples

    • Telling patients they are not to eat or drink anything during a test

    Correct Answer
    A. Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw
    Explanation
    Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw allows patients to feel in control because it respects their autonomy and decision-making power. By acknowledging their right to refuse, it empowers patients to make choices about their own body and healthcare. This approach fosters a collaborative and respectful relationship between healthcare providers and patients, promoting patient-centered care.

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  • 21. 

    The prepaid group healthcare organizations in which members pay flat fees for defined services are called:

    • DRGs

    • HMOs

    • ICDs

    • SNFs

    Correct Answer
    A. HMOs
    Explanation
    HMOs, or Health Maintenance Organizations, are prepaid group healthcare organizations where members pay flat fees for defined services. HMOs typically require members to select a primary care physician who coordinates their healthcare and provides referrals to specialists within the network. This model aims to provide comprehensive and cost-effective care by focusing on preventative services and managing healthcare utilization. Unlike other options listed, such as DRGs (Diagnosis Related Groups), ICDs (International Classification of Diseases), or SNFs (Skilled Nursing Facilities), HMOs specifically refer to this type of prepaid group healthcare organization.

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  • 22. 

    A patient agrees to undergo treatment after the method, risks, and consequences are explained to him. This is an example of:

    • Implied consent

    • Informed consent

    • Respondent superior

    • Standard of care

    Correct Answer
    A. Informed consent
    Explanation
    Informed consent is the correct answer because it refers to the patient's agreement to undergo treatment after being provided with all the necessary information about the method, risks, and consequences. This implies that the patient has been fully informed and understands the potential outcomes of the treatment, allowing them to make an educated decision about their healthcare.

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  • 23. 

    Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist’s role for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

    • A phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory

    • Good public relations promotes harmonious relationships

    • Patients equate experiences with overall caliber of care received.

    • Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity.
    Explanation
    Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity. This statement contradicts the idea that promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role. Instead, it suggests that good public relations can be used as a means to hide or mask a phlebotomist's lack of experience or insecurity. However, promoting good public relations is important for a phlebotomist because they represent the laboratory and their interactions with patients can influence their perception of the overall quality of care. Additionally, good public relations can help foster harmonious relationships and create a positive environment for both patients and healthcare professionals.

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  • 24. 

    The best way to handle a “difficult” or “bad” patient is to:

    • Help the patient to feel in control of the situation

    • Leave the room without collecting the specimen

    • Speak firmly to maintain charge of the situation

    • Threaten to report the patient to his or her doctor

    Correct Answer
    A. Help the patient to feel in control of the situation
    Explanation
    The best way to handle a "difficult" or "bad" patient is to help the patient feel in control of the situation. By empowering the patient and involving them in decision-making, it can help alleviate their anxiety and frustration. This approach promotes a sense of autonomy and respect for the patient's autonomy, which can lead to better communication and cooperation between the healthcare provider and the patient. It is important to create a supportive and collaborative environment to ensure the best possible care for the patient.

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  • 25. 

    All of the following are links (components) in the chain of infection EXCEPT:  

    • Exit pathway

    • Reservoir

    • Surveillance

    • Susceptible host

    Correct Answer
    A. Surveillance
    Explanation
    Surveillance is not a component in the chain of infection. The chain of infection consists of six components: the infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Surveillance, on the other hand, refers to the ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data for the purpose of preventing and controlling disease. It is not directly involved in the transmission or prevention of infection.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is an example of good work ethics?

    • Assertiveness

    • Noncommunicative behavior

    • Dependability

    • Indifference toward others

    Correct Answer
    A. Dependability
    Explanation
    Dependability is an example of good work ethics because it refers to the quality of being reliable and trustworthy in fulfilling one's responsibilities and commitments. A dependable individual is someone who can be relied upon to consistently deliver high-quality work, meet deadlines, and follow through on their promises. This trait is highly valued in the workplace as it fosters trust, teamwork, and productivity.

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  • 27. 

    The term “phlebotomy” is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean to:

    • Cut a vein

    • Draw blood

    • Stick a vein

    • Withdraw blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Cut a vein
    Explanation
    The term "phlebotomy" is derived from Greek words that mean "to cut a vein." This refers to the historical practice of using a sharp instrument to puncture a vein in order to withdraw blood.

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  • 28. 

    Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and blood-forming tissues?

    • Chemistry

    • Hematology

    • Microbiology

    • Urinalysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hematology
    Explanation
    Hematology is the correct answer because this laboratory department specializes in studying and testing blood and blood-forming tissues. They analyze blood samples to identify abnormalities such as infections, anemia, leukemia, and other blood disorders. Hematology tests include complete blood count (CBC), blood clotting tests, and examination of blood cells under a microscope.

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  • 29. 

    Another name for blood bank is:

    • Immunohematology

    • Immunology

    • Microbiology

    • Serology

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunohematology
    Explanation
    Immunohematology is another name for the blood bank because it specifically focuses on the study and management of blood transfusion and blood banking. It involves the testing of blood compatibility between donors and recipients, as well as the collection, storage, and distribution of blood and blood products. This field combines principles of immunology and hematology to ensure the safety and effectiveness of blood transfusions.

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  • 30. 

    All medical laboratories are regulated by:

    • AMT

    • CLIA’88

    • HIPAA

    • PHS

    Correct Answer
    A. CLIA’88
    Explanation
    CLIA’88 refers to the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988, which is a federal law in the United States that regulates all clinical laboratories. This law sets standards for laboratory testing and ensures the accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of patient test results. It also requires laboratories to obtain certification and undergo regular inspections to maintain compliance. Therefore, it is correct to say that all medical laboratories are regulated by CLIA’88.

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  • 31. 

    Proof of participation in a workshop to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called:

    • Accreditation verification

    • Continuing education units

    • Essentials confirmation

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuing education units
    Explanation
    Continuing education units refer to the proof of participation in a workshop or training program that is required by certain agencies to renew certification. This term is commonly used in professional fields to indicate that an individual has completed the necessary education and training to maintain their certification status. It is a way for professionals to demonstrate their commitment to ongoing learning and skill development in their field. The other options, accreditation verification and essentials confirmation, do not accurately describe the concept of providing proof of participation in a workshop for certification renewal.

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  • 32. 

    All of the following are examples of negligence EXCEPT when the phlebotomist:

    • Does not return a bedrail to the upright position

    • Fails to report significant changes in a patient’s condition

    • Forgets to put a needle in the sharps container

    • Is unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Is unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Is unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient," is not an example of negligence because it is beyond the control of the phlebotomist. A combative patient may resist or refuse to cooperate during the specimen collection process, making it impossible for the phlebotomist to obtain a specimen. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care or fulfill a duty, but in this case, the phlebotomist is unable to perform their duty due to the patient's behavior.

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  • 33. 

    Which mode of infection transmission involves transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of a susceptible individual by means of a cough or sneeze?

    • Contact

    • Droplet

    • Fomite

    • Vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Droplet
    Explanation
    Droplet transmission involves the transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of a susceptible individual through coughing or sneezing. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, small droplets containing the infectious microorganisms are expelled into the air and can be inhaled by others in close proximity. This mode of transmission is different from direct contact, as it involves the airborne spread of infectious droplets rather than physical touch.

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  • 34. 

    Another term for outpatient care is:

    • Ambulatory care

    • Nonambulatory care

    • Nursing home care

    • Rehabilitation care

    Correct Answer
    A. Ambulatory care
    Explanation
    Outpatient care refers to medical services that are provided to patients who do not require an overnight stay in a hospital or healthcare facility. It includes diagnostic tests, consultations, treatments, and minor surgeries that can be performed in a clinic or doctor's office. Ambulatory care is another term used to describe this type of care, emphasizing the ability of patients to walk in and out of the facility without being admitted. Nonambulatory care refers to care provided to patients who are unable to walk or move independently. Nursing home care and rehabilitation care are not synonymous with outpatient care as they involve long-term care and specialized services respectively.

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  • 35. 

    Electrolyte testing includes:

    • Bilirubin and creatinine

    • BUN and cholesterol

    • Glucose and uric acid

    • Sodium and potassium

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium and potassium
    Explanation
    Electrolyte testing involves measuring the levels of various electrolytes in the body. Sodium and potassium are two important electrolytes that play crucial roles in maintaining proper bodily functions. Sodium helps regulate fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction, while potassium is essential for maintaining proper heart rhythm and muscle function. Therefore, testing the levels of sodium and potassium is important to assess electrolyte imbalances and ensure overall health and well-being.

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  • 36. 

    Managed Care Organizations control costs by all of the following ways EXCEPT:

    • Encouraging healthy lifestyles

    • Detecting risk factors early

    • Limiting patient enrollment

    • Offering patient education

    Correct Answer
    A. Limiting patient enrollment
    Explanation
    Managed Care Organizations control costs by encouraging healthy lifestyles, detecting risk factors early, and offering patient education. However, limiting patient enrollment is not a method used to control costs. This is because limiting patient enrollment would not directly impact the cost of healthcare services provided to enrolled patients. The other methods mentioned, on the other hand, focus on prevention, early intervention, and patient empowerment, which can help reduce the need for expensive treatments and hospitalizations, thus controlling costs.

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  • 37. 

    Who is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital?

    • Sr. Director Performance Excellence

    • VP Clinical & Support Services

    • VP/Chief Nursing Officer

    • VP & Chief Medical Officer

    Correct Answer
    A. VP & Chief Medical Officer
    Explanation
    The VP & Chief Medical Officer is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital. This role typically oversees the medical staff and ensures that they are providing high-quality care to patients. They may be involved in hiring and credentialing physicians, implementing policies and procedures, and monitoring the performance of the medical staff. The VP & Chief Medical Officer also works closely with other hospital leaders to ensure that the physicians are aligned with the organization's goals and objectives.

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  • 38. 

    One of a phlebotomist’s duties is to:

    • Assist with inserting IV cannulas

    • Help nurses with direct patient care

    • Inform patients of their test results

    • Perform lab computer operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform lab computer operations
    Explanation
    A phlebotomist's duty includes performing lab computer operations. This involves using computer systems to enter and access patient information, test results, and other relevant data. By performing lab computer operations, phlebotomists ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is available for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding patient care. This task is crucial in maintaining the efficiency and accuracy of laboratory operations.

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  • 39. 

    All of the following are examples of barriers to effective communication EXCEPT:

    • Does not speak English

    • Is a very young child

    • Is emotionally upset

    • Is a mature male HCW.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a mature male HCW.
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Is a mature male HCW," is not an example of a barrier to effective communication. The other options, such as "Does not speak English," "Is a very young child," and "Is emotionally upset," all represent potential barriers to effective communication. However, being a mature male healthcare worker (HCW) does not inherently pose a barrier to effective communication. This answer choice is unrelated to the ability to communicate effectively and does not present any communication obstacles.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is an example of proxemics?

    • Eye contact

    • Facial expression

    • Personal contact

    • Personal hygiene

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal contact
    Explanation
    Proxemics refers to the study of how individuals use and perceive space in social interactions. Personal contact, which involves physical touch or close proximity between individuals, is an example of proxemics. It is a form of nonverbal communication that can convey intimacy, power dynamics, and social norms. Eye contact, facial expression, and personal hygiene, on the other hand, are examples of nonverbal communication but do not specifically relate to the use of space in social interactions.

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  • 41. 

    With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring?

    • Nuclear medicine

    • Pharmacy

    • Physical therapy

    • Radiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Pharmacy
    Explanation
    The laboratory would coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring with the Pharmacy department. This is because the Pharmacy department is responsible for dispensing medications and ensuring proper medication management. Therapeutic drug monitoring involves measuring drug levels in the blood to optimize medication dosage and effectiveness. Therefore, the laboratory would work closely with the Pharmacy department to analyze drug levels and provide necessary information for medication adjustments.

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  • 42. 

    Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this department.

    • Blood bank

    • Chemistry

    • Coagulation

    • Hematology

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood bank
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Blood bank. Blood typing and compatibility testing are commonly performed in blood banks. These departments are responsible for collecting, testing, and storing blood and blood products for transfusions. They ensure that the blood is safe and compatible with the recipient's blood type to prevent any adverse reactions. Blood banks also play a crucial role in maintaining an adequate supply of blood for medical procedures and emergencies.

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  • 43. 

    Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the responsibility for quality performance and patient satisfaction?

    • Sr. Director Performance Excellence

    • VP Clinical & Support Services

    • VP/Chief Nursing Officer

    • VP & Chief Medical Officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Sr. Director Performance Excellence
    Explanation
    The Sr. Director Performance Excellence is responsible for quality performance and patient satisfaction. This role focuses on ensuring high standards of quality in healthcare services and improving patient experiences. They oversee various quality improvement initiatives and work closely with other leaders in the organization to drive performance excellence.

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  • 44. 

    Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:

    • Do first things first

    • First do no harm

    • Quality is foremost

    • Ready to serve

    Correct Answer
    A. First do no harm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "First do no harm". This phrase, known as Primum non nocere, is derived from the Hippocratic Oath, which is taken by medical professionals. It emphasizes the importance of prioritizing the well-being of the patient and ensuring that no harm is done in the process of providing medical care. This principle highlights the ethical responsibility of healthcare providers to prioritize the safety and welfare of their patients above all else.

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  • 45. 

    Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department?

    • Chemistry

    • Hematology

    • Histology

    • Microbiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemistry
    Explanation
    Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in the Chemistry department. This is because BMPs involve the measurement of various chemical components in the blood, such as electrolytes, glucose, and kidney function markers. The Chemistry department specializes in analyzing and interpreting these chemical components in order to assess a patient's metabolic status and overall health. Hematology focuses on the study of blood cells, Histology deals with the examination of tissues, and Microbiology involves the study of microorganisms.

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  • 46. 

    A Pap smear is examined for the presence of cancer cells in this department.

    • Cytology

    • Hematology

    • Histology

    • Microbiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytology
    Explanation
    Cytology is the study of cells and their structure, which makes it the most appropriate department to examine a Pap smear for the presence of cancer cells. A Pap smear is a screening test used to detect cervical cancer or precancerous cells in the cervix. By examining the cells collected from the cervix under a microscope, cytologists can identify any abnormal or cancerous cells, enabling early detection and treatment. Hematology focuses on the study of blood and blood disorders, histology deals with the study of tissues, and microbiology focuses on microorganisms, none of which are directly related to examining Pap smears for cancer cells.

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  • 47. 

    A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to which department?

    • Chemistry

    • Coagulation

    • Microbiology

    • Urinalysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Microbiology
    Explanation
    A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to the Microbiology department because this department specializes in the identification and analysis of microorganisms, including parasites. They have the necessary equipment and expertise to perform the required testing and provide accurate results. Chemistry, Coagulation, and Urinalysis departments focus on different areas of laboratory testing and would not be appropriate for ova and parasite testing.

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  • 48. 

    What laboratory department describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection?

    • OSHA safety manual

    • Policy guidelines

    • Procedure manual

    • Quality control manual

    Correct Answer
    A. Procedure manual
    Explanation
    The procedure manual is the correct answer because it is a document that provides detailed instructions on how to perform specific tasks or procedures. In the context of a laboratory department, the procedure manual would outline the step-by-step process for specimen collection, ensuring that all staff members follow the same protocol. The OSHA safety manual focuses on safety guidelines, the policy guidelines outline general rules and regulations, and the quality control manual pertains to ensuring accuracy and reliability of test results.

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  • 49. 

    Which type of precautions would be used for a patient who has pulmonary tuberculosis:

    • Airborne

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Reverse

    Correct Answer
    A. Airborne
    Explanation
    Patients with pulmonary tuberculosis are highly contagious and can spread the infection through the air. Therefore, airborne precautions would be used to prevent the transmission of the disease. These precautions include placing the patient in a negative pressure room, wearing a high-filtration mask (such as an N95 respirator) when in close contact with the patient, and ensuring proper ventilation in the room. These measures help to minimize the risk of transmission of the tuberculosis bacteria to healthcare workers and other patients.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 20, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    D Waitzman
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