Phlebotomy Essentials, 4th Edition Study Guide For Chapters 1, 2 ,3

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By D Waitzman
D Waitzman, Healthcare
Waitzman is a retired healthcare professional with experience in hospital and internal medicine.
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 1,782
| Attempts: 988 | Questions: 95
Please wait...
Question 1 / 95
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Which department is responsible for administering a patient’s oxygen therapy?

Explanation

Respiratory therapy is responsible for administering a patient's oxygen therapy. This department specializes in treating patients with respiratory conditions and providing them with the necessary support and treatment to improve their breathing. Oxygen therapy is a common treatment method used in respiratory therapy to deliver oxygen to patients who have difficulty breathing or have low oxygen levels. They are trained in various techniques and equipment to ensure the safe and effective administration of oxygen therapy to patients in need.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Study Guide Quizzes & Trivia

Study guide covering key aspects of phlebotomy essentials, including healthcare services, medical coding, and patient care principles.

2. Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics:

Explanation

Frowning is an example of negative kinesics because it is a facial expression that typically indicates displeasure, concern, or disapproval. It is a nonverbal cue that can convey negative emotions or a negative attitude towards someone or something. Unlike eye contact, good grooming, and smiling, which are generally considered positive or neutral nonverbal behaviors, frowning is associated with negative body language.

Submit
3. Which one of the following represents improper telephone protocol?

Explanation

The given answer, "Hang up on hostile individuals," represents improper telephone protocol because it is rude and unprofessional to abruptly end a call with someone who may be hostile. In any communication, it is important to remain calm and try to resolve conflicts or misunderstandings peacefully. Hanging up on someone without attempting to address their concerns or finding a solution goes against the principles of effective communication and customer service.

Submit
4. Standard precautions should be followed:

Explanation

Standard precautions should be followed with all patients, at all times. This means that healthcare workers should take the necessary precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases, regardless of the patient's specific condition. These precautions include hand hygiene, the use of personal protective equipment (such as gloves, masks, and gowns), safe injection practices, and proper handling and disposal of sharps. By following standard precautions consistently, healthcare workers can minimize the risk of spreading infections and ensure the safety of both themselves and their patients.

Submit
5. Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is "I understand how you must be feeling." This response shows empathy and validates the patient's emotions, indicating that the healthcare provider acknowledges and comprehends the patient's feelings. It demonstrates a confirming response by affirming the patient's emotional state and shows support and understanding.

Submit
6. Elements of good communication in healthcare involve all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Good communication in healthcare involves accepting the patient as a unique individual, allowing them to express their wishes and feel a sense of control, and listening thoughtfully and patiently to their emotions. However, disguising the truth to the patient with statements like "this won't hurt" is not a part of good communication. It is important to be honest and transparent with patients, even if the truth may be difficult or uncomfortable to hear. This helps to build trust and maintain a strong patient-provider relationship.

Submit
7. All of the following are reasons for a phlebotomist to participate in continuing education programs EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Eliminate annual evaluations." Phlebotomists participate in continuing education programs to learn new skills and techniques, renew their licensure or certification, and stay current in the latest procedures. However, participating in continuing education programs does not eliminate the need for annual evaluations, as evaluations are important for assessing job performance and identifying areas for improvement.

Submit
8. The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department. A patient in this department is most likely being treated for a disorder of the:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Kidneys" because the nephrology department specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of kidney disorders. Therefore, if a patient is being treated in this department, it is highly likely that they have a disorder related to their kidneys.

Submit
9. Which medical specialty treats patients with tumors?

Explanation

Oncology is the correct answer because it is the medical specialty that specifically focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of tumors, including cancerous growths. Oncologists are trained to provide comprehensive care to patients with tumors, including conducting tests, performing surgeries, prescribing medications, and coordinating other treatments such as chemotherapy or radiation therapy. They work closely with other healthcare professionals to develop personalized treatment plans and provide support throughout the entire cancer journey.

Submit
10. All of the following personnel are required to have a college degree or equivalent EXCEPT:

Explanation

The phlebotomist is not required to have a college degree or equivalent, unlike the other personnel listed. Phlebotomists are trained professionals who specialize in drawing blood from patients. While they may undergo specific training and certification programs, they do not typically need a college degree. On the other hand, clinical laboratory scientists, medical technicians, and medical technologists usually require a college degree or equivalent education to perform their respective roles in healthcare settings.

Submit
11. Which of the following is not an area of phlebotomy subject to quality control (QC) procedures?

Explanation

Patient IV adjustment is not an area of phlebotomy subject to quality control (QC) procedures because it does not involve the collection or handling of blood specimens. Phlebotomy technique, patient identification, and specimen labeling are all critical aspects of phlebotomy that require QC procedures to ensure accuracy, safety, and proper handling of specimens. However, patient IV adjustment is a separate procedure that falls under the responsibility of healthcare professionals such as nurses or doctors, and it does not directly relate to the collection or processing of blood samples.

Submit
12. Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of:

Explanation

Drawing a patient's blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act of causing apprehension or fear of harmful or offensive contact, while battery refers to the actual physical contact without consent. In this case, the act of drawing blood without permission can be seen as a violation of the patient's bodily integrity, constituting both assault (causing fear) and battery (unwanted physical contact).

Submit
13. Malpractice is a claim of:

Explanation

Malpractice refers to the improper or negligent treatment provided by a professional, such as a doctor or lawyer, which results in harm or injury to the client or patient. It involves a failure to meet the standard of care expected in the profession, leading to negative consequences for the individual receiving the treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is "Improper treatment," as it aligns with the definition and concept of malpractice.

Submit
14. What is the first thing a phlebotomist should do if he or she is accidentally stuck by a needle used to draw blood from a patient?

Explanation

After being accidentally stuck by a needle used to draw blood from a patient, the first thing a phlebotomist should do is clean the site with soap and water for at least 30 seconds. This is important to prevent any potential infection or transmission of pathogens. Cleaning the site thoroughly can help reduce the risk of any complications and ensure proper wound care. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize their own safety and take immediate action to minimize any potential harm.

Submit
15. All of the following are good ways to earn a patient’s trust EXCEPT:

Explanation

Dismiss patient fears is not a good way to earn a patient's trust because it disregards their concerns and fails to address their emotional needs. Building trust with a patient requires acknowledging and understanding their fears, providing reassurance, and offering support. Dismissing their fears can lead to a breakdown in communication and a lack of confidence in the healthcare provider's ability to provide appropriate care.

Submit
16. The phlebotomy supervisor asked a phlebotomist to collect a specimen in the otorhinolaryngology department. The phlebotomist proceeded to go to the department that provides treatment for:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ear, nose, and throat disorders" because the otorhinolaryngology department specifically deals with disorders and conditions related to the ear, nose, and throat. This department is responsible for diagnosing and treating various issues such as hearing loss, sinus problems, tonsillitis, and vocal cord disorders. Therefore, the phlebotomist was asked to collect a specimen in this department to assist in the diagnosis or monitoring of a patient with an ear, nose, or throat disorder.

Submit
17. A Very busy phlebotomist misidentifies the patient when collecting a specimen for transfusion preparation. The possible misdiagnosis of blood type could cause the patient’s death. If the phlebotomist’s action results in injury, this wrongful act is called:

Explanation

Negligence is the correct answer because it refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care or the omission to do something that a reasonable person would do in similar circumstances. In this scenario, the phlebotomist's misidentification of the patient and potential misdiagnosis of blood type could lead to severe consequences, including the patient's death. The phlebotomist's action of not properly identifying the patient and collecting the wrong specimen demonstrates a lack of reasonable care, making it a case of negligence.

Submit
18. The series of components that lead to infection are referred to as the:

Explanation

The term "chain of infection" refers to the sequence of events that must occur for an infection to spread. It includes six components: the infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Each component is linked to the next, forming a chain that allows the infection to continue spreading. This concept is important in understanding and preventing the transmission of infectious diseases.

Submit
19. The best course of action when entering an isolation room is:

Explanation

The best course of action when entering an isolation room is to follow the posted precautions. This means adhering to any guidelines or instructions that are visibly displayed in the room, such as wearing personal protective equipment (PPE), practicing proper hand hygiene, and taking any necessary precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Following the posted precautions ensures that healthcare workers are taking the necessary steps to protect themselves and others from potential harm or transmission of infectious agents.

Submit
20. Which of the following situations allows patients to feel in control?

Explanation

Agreeing with patients that it is their right to refuse a blood draw allows patients to feel in control because it respects their autonomy and decision-making power. By acknowledging their right to refuse, it empowers patients to make choices about their own body and healthcare. This approach fosters a collaborative and respectful relationship between healthcare providers and patients, promoting patient-centered care.

Submit
21. The prepaid group healthcare organizations in which members pay flat fees for defined services are called:

Explanation

HMOs, or Health Maintenance Organizations, are prepaid group healthcare organizations where members pay flat fees for defined services. HMOs typically require members to select a primary care physician who coordinates their healthcare and provides referrals to specialists within the network. This model aims to provide comprehensive and cost-effective care by focusing on preventative services and managing healthcare utilization. Unlike other options listed, such as DRGs (Diagnosis Related Groups), ICDs (International Classification of Diseases), or SNFs (Skilled Nursing Facilities), HMOs specifically refer to this type of prepaid group healthcare organization.

Submit
22. A patient agrees to undergo treatment after the method, risks, and consequences are explained to him. This is an example of:

Explanation

Informed consent is the correct answer because it refers to the patient's agreement to undergo treatment after being provided with all the necessary information about the method, risks, and consequences. This implies that the patient has been fully informed and understands the potential outcomes of the treatment, allowing them to make an educated decision about their healthcare.

Submit
23. Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist’s role for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

Explanation

Skilled public relations can cover up inexperience and insecurity. This statement contradicts the idea that promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role. Instead, it suggests that good public relations can be used as a means to hide or mask a phlebotomist's lack of experience or insecurity. However, promoting good public relations is important for a phlebotomist because they represent the laboratory and their interactions with patients can influence their perception of the overall quality of care. Additionally, good public relations can help foster harmonious relationships and create a positive environment for both patients and healthcare professionals.

Submit
24. The best way to handle a “difficult” or “bad” patient is to:

Explanation

The best way to handle a "difficult" or "bad" patient is to help the patient feel in control of the situation. By empowering the patient and involving them in decision-making, it can help alleviate their anxiety and frustration. This approach promotes a sense of autonomy and respect for the patient's autonomy, which can lead to better communication and cooperation between the healthcare provider and the patient. It is important to create a supportive and collaborative environment to ensure the best possible care for the patient.

Submit
25. All of the following are links (components) in the chain of infection EXCEPT:  

Explanation

Surveillance is not a component in the chain of infection. The chain of infection consists of six components: the infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Surveillance, on the other hand, refers to the ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health data for the purpose of preventing and controlling disease. It is not directly involved in the transmission or prevention of infection.

Submit
26. Which of the following is an example of good work ethics?

Explanation

Dependability is an example of good work ethics because it refers to the quality of being reliable and trustworthy in fulfilling one's responsibilities and commitments. A dependable individual is someone who can be relied upon to consistently deliver high-quality work, meet deadlines, and follow through on their promises. This trait is highly valued in the workplace as it fosters trust, teamwork, and productivity.

Submit
27. The term “phlebotomy” is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean to:

Explanation

The term "phlebotomy" is derived from Greek words that mean "to cut a vein." This refers to the historical practice of using a sharp instrument to puncture a vein in order to withdraw blood.

Submit
28. Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and blood-forming tissues?

Explanation

Hematology is the correct answer because this laboratory department specializes in studying and testing blood and blood-forming tissues. They analyze blood samples to identify abnormalities such as infections, anemia, leukemia, and other blood disorders. Hematology tests include complete blood count (CBC), blood clotting tests, and examination of blood cells under a microscope.

Submit
29. Another name for blood bank is:

Explanation

Immunohematology is another name for the blood bank because it specifically focuses on the study and management of blood transfusion and blood banking. It involves the testing of blood compatibility between donors and recipients, as well as the collection, storage, and distribution of blood and blood products. This field combines principles of immunology and hematology to ensure the safety and effectiveness of blood transfusions.

Submit
30. All medical laboratories are regulated by:

Explanation

CLIA’88 refers to the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988, which is a federal law in the United States that regulates all clinical laboratories. This law sets standards for laboratory testing and ensures the accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of patient test results. It also requires laboratories to obtain certification and undergo regular inspections to maintain compliance. Therefore, it is correct to say that all medical laboratories are regulated by CLIA’88.

Submit
31. Proof of participation in a workshop to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called:

Explanation

Continuing education units refer to the proof of participation in a workshop or training program that is required by certain agencies to renew certification. This term is commonly used in professional fields to indicate that an individual has completed the necessary education and training to maintain their certification status. It is a way for professionals to demonstrate their commitment to ongoing learning and skill development in their field. The other options, accreditation verification and essentials confirmation, do not accurately describe the concept of providing proof of participation in a workshop for certification renewal.

Submit
32. All of the following are examples of negligence EXCEPT when the phlebotomist:

Explanation

The given answer, "Is unable to obtain a specimen from a combative patient," is not an example of negligence because it is beyond the control of the phlebotomist. A combative patient may resist or refuse to cooperate during the specimen collection process, making it impossible for the phlebotomist to obtain a specimen. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care or fulfill a duty, but in this case, the phlebotomist is unable to perform their duty due to the patient's behavior.

Submit
33. Which mode of infection transmission involves transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of a susceptible individual by means of a cough or sneeze?

Explanation

Droplet transmission involves the transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of a susceptible individual through coughing or sneezing. When an infected person coughs or sneezes, small droplets containing the infectious microorganisms are expelled into the air and can be inhaled by others in close proximity. This mode of transmission is different from direct contact, as it involves the airborne spread of infectious droplets rather than physical touch.

Submit
34. Managed Care Organizations control costs by all of the following ways EXCEPT:

Explanation

Managed Care Organizations control costs by encouraging healthy lifestyles, detecting risk factors early, and offering patient education. However, limiting patient enrollment is not a method used to control costs. This is because limiting patient enrollment would not directly impact the cost of healthcare services provided to enrolled patients. The other methods mentioned, on the other hand, focus on prevention, early intervention, and patient empowerment, which can help reduce the need for expensive treatments and hospitalizations, thus controlling costs.

Submit
35. Another term for outpatient care is:

Explanation

Outpatient care refers to medical services that are provided to patients who do not require an overnight stay in a hospital or healthcare facility. It includes diagnostic tests, consultations, treatments, and minor surgeries that can be performed in a clinic or doctor's office. Ambulatory care is another term used to describe this type of care, emphasizing the ability of patients to walk in and out of the facility without being admitted. Nonambulatory care refers to care provided to patients who are unable to walk or move independently. Nursing home care and rehabilitation care are not synonymous with outpatient care as they involve long-term care and specialized services respectively.

Submit
36. Electrolyte testing includes:

Explanation

Electrolyte testing involves measuring the levels of various electrolytes in the body. Sodium and potassium are two important electrolytes that play crucial roles in maintaining proper bodily functions. Sodium helps regulate fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction, while potassium is essential for maintaining proper heart rhythm and muscle function. Therefore, testing the levels of sodium and potassium is important to assess electrolyte imbalances and ensure overall health and well-being.

Submit
37. Who is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital?

Explanation

The VP & Chief Medical Officer is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital. This role typically oversees the medical staff and ensures that they are providing high-quality care to patients. They may be involved in hiring and credentialing physicians, implementing policies and procedures, and monitoring the performance of the medical staff. The VP & Chief Medical Officer also works closely with other hospital leaders to ensure that the physicians are aligned with the organization's goals and objectives.

Submit
38. One of a phlebotomist’s duties is to:

Explanation

A phlebotomist's duty includes performing lab computer operations. This involves using computer systems to enter and access patient information, test results, and other relevant data. By performing lab computer operations, phlebotomists ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is available for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding patient care. This task is crucial in maintaining the efficiency and accuracy of laboratory operations.

Submit
39. All of the following are examples of barriers to effective communication EXCEPT:

Explanation

The given answer, "Is a mature male HCW," is not an example of a barrier to effective communication. The other options, such as "Does not speak English," "Is a very young child," and "Is emotionally upset," all represent potential barriers to effective communication. However, being a mature male healthcare worker (HCW) does not inherently pose a barrier to effective communication. This answer choice is unrelated to the ability to communicate effectively and does not present any communication obstacles.

Submit
40. Which of the following is an example of proxemics?

Explanation

Proxemics refers to the study of how individuals use and perceive space in social interactions. Personal contact, which involves physical touch or close proximity between individuals, is an example of proxemics. It is a form of nonverbal communication that can convey intimacy, power dynamics, and social norms. Eye contact, facial expression, and personal hygiene, on the other hand, are examples of nonverbal communication but do not specifically relate to the use of space in social interactions.

Submit
41. With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring?

Explanation

The laboratory would coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring with the Pharmacy department. This is because the Pharmacy department is responsible for dispensing medications and ensuring proper medication management. Therapeutic drug monitoring involves measuring drug levels in the blood to optimize medication dosage and effectiveness. Therefore, the laboratory would work closely with the Pharmacy department to analyze drug levels and provide necessary information for medication adjustments.

Submit
42. Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this department.

Explanation

The correct answer is Blood bank. Blood typing and compatibility testing are commonly performed in blood banks. These departments are responsible for collecting, testing, and storing blood and blood products for transfusions. They ensure that the blood is safe and compatible with the recipient's blood type to prevent any adverse reactions. Blood banks also play a crucial role in maintaining an adequate supply of blood for medical procedures and emergencies.

Submit
43. Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the responsibility for quality performance and patient satisfaction?

Explanation

The Sr. Director Performance Excellence is responsible for quality performance and patient satisfaction. This role focuses on ensuring high standards of quality in healthcare services and improving patient experiences. They oversee various quality improvement initiatives and work closely with other leaders in the organization to drive performance excellence.

Submit
44. Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:

Explanation

The correct answer is "First do no harm". This phrase, known as Primum non nocere, is derived from the Hippocratic Oath, which is taken by medical professionals. It emphasizes the importance of prioritizing the well-being of the patient and ensuring that no harm is done in the process of providing medical care. This principle highlights the ethical responsibility of healthcare providers to prioritize the safety and welfare of their patients above all else.

Submit
45. Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department?

Explanation

Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in the Chemistry department. This is because BMPs involve the measurement of various chemical components in the blood, such as electrolytes, glucose, and kidney function markers. The Chemistry department specializes in analyzing and interpreting these chemical components in order to assess a patient's metabolic status and overall health. Hematology focuses on the study of blood cells, Histology deals with the examination of tissues, and Microbiology involves the study of microorganisms.

Submit
46. A Pap smear is examined for the presence of cancer cells in this department.

Explanation

Cytology is the study of cells and their structure, which makes it the most appropriate department to examine a Pap smear for the presence of cancer cells. A Pap smear is a screening test used to detect cervical cancer or precancerous cells in the cervix. By examining the cells collected from the cervix under a microscope, cytologists can identify any abnormal or cancerous cells, enabling early detection and treatment. Hematology focuses on the study of blood and blood disorders, histology deals with the study of tissues, and microbiology focuses on microorganisms, none of which are directly related to examining Pap smears for cancer cells.

Submit
47. A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to which department?

Explanation

A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to the Microbiology department because this department specializes in the identification and analysis of microorganisms, including parasites. They have the necessary equipment and expertise to perform the required testing and provide accurate results. Chemistry, Coagulation, and Urinalysis departments focus on different areas of laboratory testing and would not be appropriate for ova and parasite testing.

Submit
48. What laboratory department describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection?

Explanation

The procedure manual is the correct answer because it is a document that provides detailed instructions on how to perform specific tasks or procedures. In the context of a laboratory department, the procedure manual would outline the step-by-step process for specimen collection, ensuring that all staff members follow the same protocol. The OSHA safety manual focuses on safety guidelines, the policy guidelines outline general rules and regulations, and the quality control manual pertains to ensuring accuracy and reliability of test results.

Submit
49. Which type of precautions would be used for a patient who has pulmonary tuberculosis:

Explanation

Patients with pulmonary tuberculosis are highly contagious and can spread the infection through the air. Therefore, airborne precautions would be used to prevent the transmission of the disease. These precautions include placing the patient in a negative pressure room, wearing a high-filtration mask (such as an N95 respirator) when in close contact with the patient, and ensuring proper ventilation in the room. These measures help to minimize the risk of transmission of the tuberculosis bacteria to healthcare workers and other patients.

Submit
50. This is an abbreviation for an independent group of hospitals and physicians that offers services to employers at a discounted rate in exchange for a steady supply of patients.

Explanation

A PPO is a preferred provider organization, which is an independent group of hospitals and physicians that offers services to employers at a discounted rate in exchange for a steady supply of patients.

Submit
51. Which phlebotomist’s duty does not involve telephone etiquette?

Explanation

Performing quality control checks does not involve telephone etiquette because it is a task that focuses on ensuring the accuracy and reliability of laboratory equipment and test results. Telephone etiquette is more relevant to tasks that involve communication with patients or other healthcare professionals over the phone, such as maintaining patient confidentiality, complying with instituted procedures, and promoting good public relations.

Submit
52. Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for:

Explanation

Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for polycythemia. Polycythemia is a condition where there is an excessive production of red blood cells in the body, leading to thickening of the blood. Phlebotomy involves the removal of blood from the body, which helps in reducing the number of red blood cells and improving blood flow. This procedure is often used to manage the symptoms and complications associated with polycythemia.

Submit
53. Personal “zone of comfort” is a radius of:

Explanation

The personal "zone of comfort" refers to the distance at which individuals feel most comfortable and secure in their personal space. This distance can vary depending on cultural norms and personal preferences. The range of 1 ½-4 feet suggests that most people feel comfortable when others are within this distance, neither too close nor too far away. This allows for personal interaction and conversation without invading one's personal space.

Submit
54. A laboratory technician asked a phlebotomist to recollect a specimen on a patient. When the phlebotomist asked what was wrong with the specimen, the technician replied, “The specimen was OK, but the results were inconsistent.” How would the laboratory technician have decided that the results were questionable? The results did not:

Explanation

The laboratory technician would have decided that the results were questionable by comparing them with previous results after a delta check. A delta check is a method used to identify significant changes in test results over time. By comparing the current results with previous results, the technician can determine if there is a significant difference that may indicate an issue with the specimen or the testing process. This allows for the identification of inconsistent or unreliable results.

Submit
55. The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is called the infectious:

Explanation

The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is referred to as the infectious agent. This term encompasses various microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that can invade the body and cause disease. These agents have the ability to replicate and spread within a host, leading to the development of infections. Identifying the specific infectious agent is crucial for diagnosing and treating the infection effectively.

Submit
56. All pathogens are:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Microbes that can cause disease" because pathogens are defined as microorganisms that have the ability to cause disease in their host. These microorganisms can include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Pathogens can enter the body through various routes, such as inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact, and can cause a wide range of diseases and infections. It is important to note that not all microorganisms are pathogens, as there are many beneficial microbes that live in and on the human body without causing harm.

Submit
57. This equipment is required when collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation:

Explanation

The N95 respirator is required when collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation because it provides a high level of filtration and protection against airborne particles. This type of respirator is specifically designed to filter out at least 95% of airborne particles, including small respiratory droplets that may contain infectious agents. It forms a tight seal around the nose and mouth, preventing the inhalation of potentially harmful particles. Therefore, wearing an N95 respirator is crucial for healthcare workers to minimize the risk of contracting airborne diseases while collecting specimens from patients in airborne isolation.

Submit
58. An example of a disease requiring droplet isolation is:

Explanation

Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is an example of a disease that requires droplet isolation. This is because pertussis is highly contagious and spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Droplet isolation precautions, such as wearing a mask and maintaining a safe distance from the infected person, are necessary to prevent the transmission of the disease to others.

Submit
59. The abbreviation for the current coding system for physician billing is called:

Explanation

The correct answer is CPT. CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology, which is a coding system used by physicians and other healthcare professionals to accurately report medical procedures and services. It is maintained and updated by the American Medical Association (AMA) and is widely used for physician billing and reimbursement purposes. CPT codes provide a standardized way to communicate medical procedures and services, ensuring consistency and accuracy in the billing process.

Submit
60. Isolation procedures are used to separate patients from contact with others if they:

Explanation

Isolation procedures are used to separate patients from contact with others if they have highly transmissible infections. This is because highly transmissible infections can easily spread from person to person, and isolating the patient helps to prevent the spread of the infection to others. By keeping the infected patient separate from others, the risk of transmission is significantly reduced, protecting both the patient and those around them.

Submit
61. Proxemics is the study of an individual’s:

Explanation

Proxemics is the study of an individual's concept of space. It examines how people use and perceive space in different social and cultural contexts. This includes the physical distance they maintain from others, their use of personal space, and their reactions to invasion of that space. Proxemics helps us understand how people communicate nonverbally through their spatial behavior and how cultural norms influence our spatial interactions with others.

Submit
62. MSDS information includes:

Explanation

MSDS stands for Material Safety Data Sheet, which provides important information about hazardous substances. The MSDS information includes general and emergency information, such as handling and storage instructions, first aid measures, and potential hazards. It does not typically include highly technical chemical formulas or information on competitor products. Additionally, the MSDS may provide some information on product manufacturing conditions to ensure safe handling and usage.

Submit
63. A nosocomial infection is one that is:

Explanation

A nosocomial infection is one that is acquired in a healthcare facility. This means that the infection is contracted by a patient during their stay in a hospital or other healthcare setting. It is not necessarily caused by a healthcare worker, as it can also be transmitted through contact with contaminated surfaces or equipment. The term "nosocomial" specifically refers to infections that are acquired in a healthcare facility, regardless of whether or not the patient exhibits symptoms.

Submit
64. Which of the following tests is performed in the coagulation department?

Explanation

Prothrombin time

Submit
65. All of the following infectious disease services are offered through regional Public Health Services agencies EXCEPT:

Explanation

Regional Public Health Services agencies offer a range of infectious disease services, including education, monitoring, and screening. However, they do not typically provide treatment for infectious diseases. Treatment is usually provided by healthcare providers such as hospitals, clinics, and private physicians. Therefore, the correct answer is treatment.

Submit
66. A phlebotomist explains to an inpatient that he has come to collect a blood specimen. The patient extends his arm and pushes up his sleeve. This is an example of:

Explanation

Implied consent is the correct answer because the patient, by extending his arm and pushing up his sleeve, is non-verbally indicating that he agrees to the phlebotomist collecting a blood specimen. Implied consent is when a patient's actions or behavior indicate their agreement to a medical procedure, even if they do not explicitly give verbal consent. In this case, the patient's action of extending his arm and pushing up his sleeve implies his consent for the blood collection.

Submit
67. Which of the following tests would be performed in surgical pathology?

Explanation

A frozen section is a test performed in surgical pathology. It involves freezing and cutting a tissue sample during surgery, then immediately examining it under a microscope to provide a rapid diagnosis. This test is commonly used to determine the presence of cancer or other abnormal tissues, and helps guide the surgeon during the procedure. Compatibility testing, enzyme immunoassay, and triglycerides are not typically performed in surgical pathology.

Submit
68. When the chain of infection is broken, an:

Explanation

When the chain of infection is broken, it means that one or more links in the transmission of the infection have been interrupted. This can occur through various means such as practicing good hygiene, using protective measures like vaccines or personal protective equipment, or implementing public health measures like quarantine or isolation. By breaking the chain of infection, the spread of the microbe is halted, and therefore, infection is prevented from happening.

Submit
69. Legal actions in which the alleged injured party sues for monetary damages are:

Explanation

Legal actions in which the alleged injured party sues for monetary damages are referred to as civil actions. Civil actions are lawsuits brought by individuals or organizations seeking compensation for harm caused by another party's negligence, breach of contract, or other wrongful actions. Unlike criminal actions, which are brought by the government to punish individuals for violating laws, civil actions focus on resolving disputes between private parties and aim to provide compensation or other remedies to the injured party. Examples of civil actions include personal injury claims, contract disputes, and property damage lawsuits.

Submit
70. This is an abbreviation for large organizations that contract with local providers to establish a complete network of services.

Explanation

MCO stands for Managed Care Organization. Managed Care Organizations are large organizations that contract with local providers to establish a complete network of services. These organizations work to manage and coordinate healthcare services for their members, often through the use of health insurance plans. By contracting with local providers, MCOs are able to offer a wide range of services to their members, ensuring that they have access to the care they need.

Submit
71. Which department performs blood cultures:

Explanation

Blood cultures are performed to identify and diagnose bloodstream infections caused by bacteria, fungi, or other microorganisms. Microbiology is the department responsible for studying and identifying microorganisms, making it the correct department to perform blood cultures. Hematology focuses on the study of blood cells, Serology deals with the study of antibodies and antigens in the blood, and Urinalysis focuses on the analysis of urine samples. Therefore, Microbiology is the most appropriate department for performing blood cultures.

Submit
72. Which of the following is an agency that certifies phlebotomists?

Explanation

ASCP, or the American Society for Clinical Pathology, is an agency that certifies phlebotomists. They offer certification exams for phlebotomy technicians, ensuring that they meet the necessary standards and have the required knowledge and skills to perform phlebotomy procedures safely and accurately. By obtaining ASCP certification, phlebotomists can demonstrate their competence and professionalism in the field.

Submit
73. All of the following can leave a patient more susceptible to infection EXCEPT:

Explanation

Previous vaccination does not leave a patient more susceptible to infection. In fact, vaccinations help to strengthen the immune system and provide protection against specific infections. Antibiotic treatment, chemotherapy drugs, and surgical procedures can all weaken the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. However, previous vaccination helps to prevent infections by stimulating the immune system to recognize and fight off specific pathogens.

Submit
74. Which phlebotomist’s duty involves TB and Cocci testing?

Explanation

The phlebotomist's duty that involves TB and Cocci testing is performing point-of-care testing. Point-of-care testing refers to diagnostic testing that is performed at or near the patient, allowing for immediate results. This type of testing is often used for infectious diseases like TB and Cocci, as it allows for quick and accurate diagnosis. The other options listed, such as collecting routine venous specimens, performing electrocardiography, and preparing specimens for transport, do not specifically involve TB and Cocci testing.

Submit
75. Which of the following ancient blood-letting instruments has a counterpart in a modern-day bleeding device?

Explanation

A fleam is an ancient blood-letting instrument that has a counterpart in a modern-day bleeding device. A fleam is a small, sharp instrument with multiple blades used for making incisions to release blood. In modern medicine, a lancet or a small scalpel is used for the same purpose. Both the fleam and modern bleeding devices are designed to puncture the skin and allow controlled bleeding for therapeutic purposes.

Submit
76. This mode of transmission involves contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood transfusions:

Explanation

Vehicle transmission refers to the spread of infectious diseases through contaminated food, water, drugs, or blood transfusions. In this mode, the pathogen is transferred indirectly through a medium, such as contaminated food or water, which acts as a "vehicle" for transmission. This mode is different from airborne transmission (through droplets in the air), contact transmission (direct physical contact), or vector transmission (through insects or animals).

Submit
77. While staying in a healthcare facility, one patient expectation as listed in the Patient care Partnership brochure is the right to:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Help with billing claims." This expectation listed in the Patient Care Partnership brochure indicates that patients have the right to receive assistance and guidance in dealing with their billing claims. This ensures that patients are not overwhelmed or burdened with the complexities of the billing process and can focus on their recovery and well-being.

Submit
78. All of the following are hematology tests EXCEPT:

Explanation

Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, is a blood test used to measure the average blood sugar levels over a period of time. It is primarily used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. Hematocrit is a test that measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. Platelet count is a test that measures the number of platelets in the blood, which is important for blood clotting. Reticulocyte count is a test that measures the number of young red blood cells in the blood, which indicates bone marrow function. Therefore, all of the given options are hematology tests except for glycosylated hemoglobin.

Submit
79. All of the following are steps in the risk management process EXCEPT:

Explanation

The given options are all steps in the risk management process, except for "Breach of confidentiality." Breach of confidentiality refers to a security incident where sensitive or private information is disclosed to unauthorized individuals. While it is an important consideration in risk management, it is not a step in the process itself. The other options, such as education of employees, identification of risk, and treatment of risk, are all essential steps in effectively managing and mitigating risks within an organization.

Submit
80. A nationally endorsed principle ensuring that patients and their families understand their rights and responsibilities while in a healthcare facility comes from:

Explanation

The Patient Care Partnership is a nationally endorsed principle that focuses on ensuring that patients and their families understand their rights and responsibilities while in a healthcare facility. This principle emphasizes the importance of clear communication, informed decision-making, and respect for the patient's autonomy. It aims to promote a positive and collaborative relationship between healthcare providers and patients, fostering a patient-centered approach to care. The other options listed, such as Federal HIPAA regulations, prepaid healthcare plans, and protected health information, do not specifically address the rights and responsibilities of patients and their families in a healthcare facility.

Submit
81. Objects that can harbor and transmit infectious material are called:

Explanation

Fomites are objects that can harbor and transmit infectious material. These objects can include things like doorknobs, cell phones, and clothing. When someone with an infectious disease touches or sneezes on a fomite, the infectious material can be transferred to another person who touches the same object. This is why it is important to frequently clean and disinfect commonly touched surfaces to prevent the spread of infections.

Submit
82. This department examines specimens microscopically for the presence of crystals, casts, bacteria, and blood cells.

Explanation

Urinalysis is the correct answer because it is the department that examines specimens microscopically for the presence of crystals, casts, bacteria, and blood cells. This department specifically focuses on analyzing urine samples to detect various substances and abnormalities that can indicate certain medical conditions or diseases.

Submit
83. Which Director, Chief Officer, or Vice President would have the administrative responsibility for ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance (MR) scans?

Explanation

The VP Clinical & Support services would have the administrative responsibility for ancillary testing, such as magnetic resonance (MR) scans. This role oversees the clinical and support services within an organization, which would include managing and coordinating ancillary testing. The Sr. Director Performance Excellence focuses on improving overall performance and efficiency, not specifically on ancillary testing. The VP/Chief Nursing Officer is responsible for nursing-related matters, while the VP & Chief Medical Officer focuses on medical and clinical matters. Therefore, the VP Clinical & Support services is the most appropriate choice for this administrative responsibility.

Submit
84. All of the following can help break the chain of infection EXCEPT:

Explanation

Opening exit pathways for pathogens would actually contribute to the spread of infection, rather than breaking the chain of infection. The other options listed - implementing isolation procedures, practicing stress reduction techniques, and washing hands and wearing gloves - are all effective measures in breaking the chain of infection by preventing the transmission of pathogens.

Submit
85. What are the credentials of an NCA-certified phlebotomist?

Explanation

The credentials of an NCA-certified phlebotomist include CLPlb.

Submit
86. Which department performs C&S tests?

Explanation

Microbiology performs C&S (Culture and Sensitivity) tests. These tests are conducted to identify the presence of bacteria or fungi in a patient's sample and determine the most effective antibiotic or antifungal treatment. Microbiology departments are equipped with the necessary facilities and expertise to handle microbial cultures and analyze their sensitivity to various drugs. This department plays a crucial role in diagnosing and treating infectious diseases by providing accurate information about the causative organisms and their susceptibility to different medications.

Submit
87. The level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good sense would exercise under the given circumstances is the definition of:

Explanation

Due care refers to the level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good sense would exercise under the given circumstances. It implies that individuals should act responsibly and reasonably, taking into account the potential risks and consequences of their actions. This concept is often used in legal contexts to determine whether someone has fulfilled their duty of care and can be held liable for any resulting harm or damages. Therefore, due care is the appropriate term that defines the described level of care in the question.

Submit
88. Who has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility?

Explanation

The Sr. Director Performance Excellence has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections in the healthcare facility. This role is typically responsible for monitoring and improving the overall performance and quality of the healthcare facility, which includes infection control measures. They work closely with various departments and staff to implement and enforce infection control protocols, ensure compliance with regulations, and identify areas for improvement to prevent hospital-induced infections.

Submit
89. Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the administrative responsibility for outpatient medical services?

Explanation

The VP/ Chief Nursing Officer is responsible for the administrative oversight of outpatient medical services. This role typically involves managing the nursing staff, ensuring quality patient care, and coordinating with other healthcare professionals to deliver efficient and effective outpatient services. While the other options may have important roles within the organization, they do not specifically have administrative responsibility for outpatient medical services.

Submit
90. The abbreviation for a national agency that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is:

Explanation

NAACLS stands for the National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences. This agency is responsible for setting standards and accrediting programs in the field of clinical laboratory sciences, including phlebotomy procedures. Therefore, NAACLS is the correct abbreviation for a national agency that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures.

Submit
91. CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories according to:

Explanation

CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories based on the complexity of testing. This means that laboratories are classified according to the level of difficulty and sophistication involved in the tests they perform. This categorization helps ensure that laboratories with similar testing complexities are held to the appropriate standards and regulations. It allows for a more accurate assessment of the laboratory's capabilities and helps in determining the qualifications and expertise required for personnel working in those laboratories. Size of the laboratory, personnel qualifications, and quality control standards may also be considered, but the primary factor for categorization is the complexity of testing.

Submit
92. This type of precaution is required for a patient with Mycoplasma pneumonia:

Explanation

A patient with Mycoplasma pneumonia requires droplet precautions. Mycoplasma pneumonia is a respiratory infection that spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Droplet precautions involve wearing a mask and maintaining a distance of at least three feet from the patient to prevent the transmission of respiratory droplets. This precaution is necessary to protect healthcare workers and other patients from getting infected.

Submit
93. An example of a QA indicator is:

Explanation

An example of a QA indicator is the contamination rate for BCs not exceeding the national rate. This indicator measures the level of contamination in blood cultures (BCs) and compares it to the national average. By setting a benchmark, it allows for the evaluation of the effectiveness of infection control measures and identifies areas for improvement. Monitoring and maintaining a low contamination rate is crucial in ensuring accurate and reliable laboratory results, which ultimately contributes to patient safety and quality of care.

Submit
94. This is the abbreviation for a classification system implemented in 2000 that is used to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services.

Explanation

APC stands for Ambulatory Payment Classification. It is a classification system that was implemented in 2000 to determine payment to hospitals for outpatient services. This system groups similar services together based on clinical and resource utilization criteria, allowing hospitals to be reimbursed based on the complexity and cost of the services provided.

Submit
95. Reference laboratories are viable because they offer all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Reference laboratories are viable because they offer fast turnaround time, reduced test costs, and specialized analysis. However, they do not necessarily offer more accurate results compared to other types of laboratories. Accuracy of results can vary depending on various factors such as the equipment used, the expertise of the technicians, and the quality control measures in place. Therefore, while reference laboratories may offer many advantages, claiming that they provide more accurate results would be an overgeneralization.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 20, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    D Waitzman
Cancel
  • All
    All (95)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Which department is responsible for administering a patient’s oxygen...
Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics:
Which one of the following represents improper telephone protocol?
Standard precautions should be followed:
Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a...
Elements of good communication in healthcare involve all of the...
All of the following are reasons for a phlebotomist to participate in...
The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the...
Which medical specialty treats patients with tumors?
All of the following personnel are required to have a college degree...
Which of the following is not an area of phlebotomy subject to quality...
Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result...
Malpractice is a claim of:
What is the first thing a phlebotomist should do if he or she is...
All of the following are good ways to earn a patient’s trust EXCEPT:
The phlebotomy supervisor asked a phlebotomist to collect a specimen...
A Very busy phlebotomist misidentifies the patient when collecting a...
The series of components that lead to infection are referred to as...
The best course of action when entering an isolation room is:
Which of the following situations allows patients to feel in control?
The prepaid group healthcare organizations in which members pay flat...
A patient agrees to undergo treatment after the method, risks, and...
Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist’s role...
The best way to handle a “difficult” or “bad” patient is to:
All of the following are links (components) in the chain of infection...
Which of the following is an example of good work ethics?
The term “phlebotomy” is derived from Greek words that, literally...
Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities...
Another name for blood bank is:
All medical laboratories are regulated by:
Proof of participation in a workshop to upgrade skills required by...
All of the following are examples of negligence EXCEPT when the...
Which mode of infection transmission involves transfer of an infective...
Managed Care Organizations control costs by all of the following ways...
Another term for outpatient care is:
Electrolyte testing includes:
Who is responsible for the physicians who practice in the hospital?
One of a phlebotomist’s duties is to:
All of the following are examples of barriers to effective...
Which of the following is an example of proxemics?
With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate...
Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this...
Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the...
Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:
Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department?
A Pap smear is examined for the presence of cancer cells in this...
A specimen for ova and parasite testing would be sent to which...
What laboratory department describes in detail the steps to follow for...
Which type of precautions would be used for a patient who has...
This is an abbreviation for an independent group of hospitals and...
Which phlebotomist’s duty does not involve telephone etiquette?
Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for:
Personal “zone of comfort” is a radius of:
A laboratory technician asked a phlebotomist to recollect a specimen...
The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is called the...
All pathogens are:
This equipment is required when collecting a specimen from a patient...
An example of a disease requiring droplet isolation is:
The abbreviation for the current coding system for physician billing...
Isolation procedures are used to separate patients from contact with...
Proxemics is the study of an individual’s:
MSDS information includes:
A nosocomial infection is one that is:
Which of the following tests is performed in the coagulation...
All of the following infectious disease services are offered through...
A phlebotomist explains to an inpatient that he has come to collect a...
Which of the following tests would be performed in surgical pathology?
When the chain of infection is broken, an:
Legal actions in which the alleged injured party sues for monetary...
This is an abbreviation for large organizations that contract with...
Which department performs blood cultures:
Which of the following is an agency that certifies phlebotomists?
All of the following can leave a patient more susceptible to infection...
Which phlebotomist’s duty involves TB and Cocci testing?
Which of the following ancient blood-letting instruments has a...
This mode of transmission involves contaminated food, water, drugs, or...
While staying in a healthcare facility, one patient expectation as...
All of the following are hematology tests EXCEPT:
All of the following are steps in the risk management process EXCEPT:
A nationally endorsed principle ensuring that patients and their...
Objects that can harbor and transmit infectious material are called:
This department examines specimens microscopically for the presence of...
Which Director, Chief Officer, or Vice President would have the...
All of the following can help break the chain of infection EXCEPT:
What are the credentials of an NCA-certified phlebotomist?
Which department performs C&S tests?
The level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good...
Who has the responsibility for control of hospital-induced infections...
Which Director, Chief Officer, or vice President has the...
The abbreviation for a national agency that sets standards for...
CLIA categorizes certificates for laboratories according to:
This type of precaution is required for a patient with Mycoplasma...
An example of a QA indicator is:
This is the abbreviation for a classification system implemented in...
Reference laboratories are viable because they offer all of the...
Alert!

Advertisement