Pharmacology Exam 3 Study Guide Quiz

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1. Insulin-stimulated glucose transport is impaired in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle of obese insulin resistant and diabetic patients.

Explanation

The statement suggests that in obese insulin resistant and diabetic patients, the ability of insulin to stimulate glucose transport in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle is impaired. This means that these patients have difficulty in properly utilizing glucose, leading to higher blood sugar levels. Therefore, the answer "True" is correct as it aligns with the information provided.

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Pharmacology Exam 3 Study Guide Quiz - Quiz

There are different ways that one can review the materials they have learnt in class and this can either be through study groups, checking past tests or looking... see morefor practice questions. The study guide quiz below is the third in a series of tests designed to adequately prepare you for the pharmacology exam. Why don’t you give it a shot and see just how high you will score? see less

2. _____________ is the most important fuel for the brain.

Explanation

Glucose is the most important fuel for the brain because it is the primary source of energy for brain cells. The brain relies heavily on glucose to function optimally and carry out its various cognitive processes. Glucose is easily transported across the blood-brain barrier and is metabolized by brain cells to produce ATP, the main energy currency of the cell. Other sugars like fructose, sucrose, and galactose need to be converted into glucose before they can be used by the brain, making glucose the preferred and most efficient fuel source for brain function.

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3. Some critically ill patients require immediate antibiotic treatment prior to bacterial ID and susceptibility testing.

Explanation

Critically ill patients often have severe infections that can be life-threatening. In such cases, waiting for bacterial identification and susceptibility testing can delay the initiation of appropriate antibiotic treatment. Immediate antibiotic therapy is necessary to control the infection and prevent further complications. Therefore, it is true that some critically ill patients require immediate antibiotic treatment prior to bacterial ID and susceptibility testing.

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4. Glucagon increases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.

Explanation

Glucagon is a hormone that is released by the pancreas in response to low blood sugar levels. It acts to increase the production of glucose in the body through a process called gluconeogenesis, where new glucose is synthesized from non-carbohydrate sources such as amino acids. Glucagon also stimulates glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose. Therefore, it is correct to say that glucagon increases both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.

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5. _______________ occurs when the body cannot use glucose as a fuel source because the body has no insulin or not enough insulin, and fat is used instead.

Explanation

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when the body is unable to use glucose as a fuel source due to insufficient insulin. In this condition, fat is used as an alternative source of energy, leading to the production of ketones. This can result in a buildup of ketones in the blood, causing a state of acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is a serious complication of diabetes and requires immediate medical attention.

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6. Bone remodeling is carried out by "bone remodeling units", ______________ and _____________.

Explanation

Bone remodeling is a process that involves the continuous breakdown and formation of bone tissue. Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation, as they secrete the proteins and minerals needed to build new bone. On the other hand, osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption, as they break down and remove old or damaged bone tissue. Together, these two cell types work in harmony to maintain the balance and integrity of the skeletal system.

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7. Ca2+ in the plasma is the main factor in regulating PTH release.

Explanation

The statement is true because calcium ions (Ca2+) in the plasma play a crucial role in regulating the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH). When the calcium levels in the blood decrease, the parathyroid glands are stimulated to release PTH, which then acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels. Conversely, when calcium levels are high, PTH release is inhibited. Therefore, the concentration of Ca2+ in the plasma is the main factor determining the release of PTH.

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8. Calcitriol is the active form of Vitamin D.

Explanation

Calcitriol is indeed the active form of Vitamin D. Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble secosteroids responsible for enhancing the absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate in the intestines. Calcitriol, also known as 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3, is the biologically active form of Vitamin D that is produced in the kidneys. It plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body, promoting bone health, and supporting proper immune function. Therefore, the statement that Calcitriol is the active form of Vitamin D is true.

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9. __________________ are involved in the maintenance of electrolyte balance.

Explanation

Mineralocorticoids are involved in the maintenance of electrolyte balance. They are a class of steroid hormones that are primarily produced in the adrenal cortex. One of the main functions of mineralocorticoids is to regulate the balance of minerals, such as sodium and potassium, in the body. They do this by acting on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium. This helps to maintain the proper levels of these electrolytes in the body, which is important for various physiological processes, including nerve and muscle function, fluid balance, and blood pressure regulation.

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10. ________________ is a failure to produce sufficient thyroid hormone.

Explanation

Primary hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland fails to produce sufficient thyroid hormone. This can be caused by various factors such as autoimmune diseases, iodine deficiency, or damage to the thyroid gland. In primary hypothyroidism, the problem originates in the thyroid gland itself, leading to a decrease in the production of thyroid hormone. Secondary hypothyroidism, on the other hand, occurs when there is a problem with the pituitary gland, which fails to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce enough hormone. Tertiary hypothyroidism is caused by a dysfunction of the hypothalamus, which affects the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the pituitary gland.

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11. If the liver is insulin-resistant, it will continue to produce glucose leading to marked hyperglycemia.

Explanation

Insulin resistance occurs when the liver and other tissues do not respond properly to the hormone insulin, which is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels. When the liver is insulin-resistant, it fails to suppress glucose production, resulting in elevated blood sugar levels, a condition known as hyperglycemia. This is because insulin normally signals the liver to stop producing glucose, but when the liver is resistant to insulin, it continues to produce glucose, leading to marked hyperglycemia. Therefore, the statement is true.

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12. Glycosylated hemoglobin is a critical biomarker for glucose control.

Explanation

Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as HbA1c, is indeed a critical biomarker for glucose control. It provides an average measure of a person's blood sugar levels over the past two to three months. By monitoring HbA1c levels, healthcare professionals can assess the effectiveness of diabetes management and make necessary adjustments to treatment plans. This biomarker is commonly used in diagnosing and managing diabetes, making the statement true.

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13. Insulin resistance/Metabolic syndrome is constellation of symptoms most often associated with obesity.

Explanation

Insulin resistance/Metabolic syndrome refers to a group of symptoms that are commonly found in individuals who are obese. These symptoms include high blood pressure, high blood sugar levels, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol levels. Therefore, it is true that insulin resistance/Metabolic syndrome is often associated with obesity.

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14. One of the glycemic goals is to maintain fasting blood glucose between ____________.

Explanation

The correct answer is 70-130 mg/dL. This range is considered to be the optimal fasting blood glucose level for individuals with diabetes. Maintaining blood glucose within this range helps to prevent complications associated with high or low blood sugar levels.

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15. As insulin is a polypeptide, it can be taken orally.

Explanation

Note: As insulin is a polypeptide, it cannot be taken orally due to degradation in GI tract. Therefore typically administered as sc injection.

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16. Calcitriol controls 1α-hydroxylase synthesis and PTH secretion via negative feedback loops

Explanation

Calcitriol, also known as active vitamin D, plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphorus levels in the body. It controls the synthesis of 1α-hydroxylase, an enzyme that converts inactive vitamin D into its active form. This synthesis is regulated by negative feedback loops, meaning that when the levels of calcitriol are high, it inhibits the production of 1α-hydroxylase to prevent excessive activation of vitamin D. Additionally, calcitriol also controls parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion through negative feedback. When calcitriol levels are high, it inhibits PTH secretion, which helps maintain calcium homeostasis in the body. Therefore, the statement is true.

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17. Type 1 diabetics have essentially no functional β cells therefore they cannot maintain basal insulin secretion, nor respond to variations in circulating fuels.

Explanation

This statement is true because type 1 diabetics have a condition where their β cells, which are responsible for producing insulin in the pancreas, are essentially non-functional. As a result, they are unable to maintain basal insulin secretion, which is necessary for regulating blood glucose levels during periods of fasting. Additionally, they are also unable to respond to variations in circulating fuels, such as glucose, which further contributes to their inability to regulate blood sugar levels.

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18. In the early proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the uterine is relatively thin compared to the late proliferative phase where the endometrium thickens.

Explanation

During the early proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the uterine lining is indeed relatively thin compared to the late proliferative phase. This is because in the early proliferative phase, the hormones estrogen and progesterone are low, causing the endometrium to shed and the uterine lining to be thin. As the menstrual cycle progresses and estrogen levels rise, the endometrium begins to thicken in preparation for possible pregnancy. Therefore, it is true that the uterine lining is thinner in the early proliferative phase compared to the late proliferative phase.

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19. Ionic inhibitors interfere with the concentrations of iodide by the thyroid gland.

Explanation

Ionic inhibitors are substances that interfere with the normal functioning of ions in the body. In this case, they specifically interfere with the concentrations of iodide by the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland plays a crucial role in producing hormones that regulate metabolism, and iodide is an essential component for the synthesis of these hormones. Therefore, if ionic inhibitors interfere with the concentrations of iodide, it can disrupt the normal functioning of the thyroid gland and affect the production of hormones. Hence, the statement "Ionic inhibitors interfere with the concentrations of iodide by the thyroid gland" is true.

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20. Vitamin D plays an active role in Ca2+ homeostasis.

Explanation

Vitamin D is known to play an active role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body. It helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines and promotes its reabsorption in the kidneys, thus ensuring that the levels of calcium in the blood are regulated. Additionally, vitamin D also plays a role in bone health by aiding in the mineralization of bones. Therefore, it is correct to say that vitamin D plays an active role in Ca2+ homeostasis.

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21. Levels of the enzyme 1α-hydroxylase are tightly regulated in order to keep Ca2+ levels in homeostasis

Explanation

The levels of the enzyme 1α-hydroxylase play a crucial role in maintaining calcium levels in homeostasis. This enzyme is responsible for converting inactive vitamin D into its active form, which helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines. By tightly regulating the levels of 1α-hydroxylase, the body can ensure that the active form of vitamin D is produced in the right amount, allowing for proper calcium absorption and maintaining calcium levels within the desired range. Therefore, the statement "Levels of the enzyme 1α-hydroxylase are tightly regulated in order to keep Ca2+ levels in homeostasis" is true.

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22. What type of cells releases insulin?

Explanation

Pancreatic β cells are responsible for releasing insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells in the body to take in glucose from the bloodstream. These cells are located in the pancreas, specifically in the islets of Langerhans. When blood sugar levels rise, pancreatic β cells release insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby lowering blood sugar levels.

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23. Hyperinsulinemia is a condition in which normal amounts of insulin are ineffective in lowering plasma glucose concentrations.

Explanation

Hyperinsulinemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of insulin in the blood. In this condition, even though there are normal amounts of insulin present, it is unable to effectively lower the concentration of glucose in the blood. This can lead to persistently high blood glucose levels, which is a characteristic feature of hyperinsulinemia. Therefore, the statement that hyperinsulinemia is a condition in which normal amounts of insulin are ineffective in lowering plasma glucose concentrations is true.

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24. Insulin secretagogues promote insulin secretion from β cells.

Explanation

Insulin secretagogues are substances that stimulate the release of insulin from β cells in the pancreas. These substances can include certain medications or natural compounds. When insulin secretagogues are present, they enhance the secretion of insulin, leading to increased levels of insulin in the bloodstream. This can help regulate blood sugar levels and promote glucose uptake by cells. Therefore, the statement that insulin secretagogues promote insulin secretion from β cells is true.

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25. ___________ are oral insulin sensitizer, and 1st line therapy for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.

Explanation

Metformin is the correct answer because it is an oral insulin sensitizer and is widely recognized as the first-line therapy for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus. It works by reducing glucose production in the liver, increasing insulin sensitivity, and improving glucose uptake in the muscles. Metformin is also beneficial in managing weight and reducing the risk of cardiovascular complications. Actos and Avandia are thiazolidinediones, another class of oral antidiabetic drugs, while Glipizide is a sulfonylurea.

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26. Anti-thyroid drugs block the incorporation of iodine into tyrosyl residues of thyroglobulin.

Explanation

Anti-thyroid drugs, as the name suggests, are medications that are used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. These drugs work by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called thyroid peroxidase, which is responsible for the incorporation of iodine into tyrosyl residues of thyroglobulin. By blocking this process, anti-thyroid drugs effectively reduce the production of thyroid hormones, helping to normalize thyroid function. Therefore, the statement that anti-thyroid drugs block the incorporation of iodine into tyrosyl residues of thyroglobulin is true.

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27. Indicate Step 1:

Explanation

The given answer correctly identifies the first step in the signaling pathway. It states that the insulin receptor binds insulin and undergoes autophosphorylation on its carboxyl-terminal Tyr residues. This is an important step in the insulin signaling pathway, as it activates the receptor and initiates the downstream signaling cascade. Autophosphorylation of the receptor allows it to recruit and phosphorylate other proteins, such as IRS-1, leading to the activation of various signaling pathways involved in glucose uptake and metabolism.

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28. The main effect of adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) is on glucocorticoid secretion.

Explanation

The main effect of adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) is on glucocorticoid secretion. This means that ACTH primarily stimulates the production and release of glucocorticoid hormones, such as cortisol, from the adrenal glands. These hormones play a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes, including metabolism, immune response, and stress response. Therefore, it is true that the main effect of ACTH is on glucocorticoid secretion.

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29. Somatostatin inhibits growth hormone secretion by its actions at the levels of the hypothalamus and the pituitary.

Explanation

Somatostatin is a hormone that plays a role in inhibiting the secretion of growth hormone. It acts at both the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland to suppress the release of growth hormone. Therefore, it is correct to say that somatostatin inhibits growth hormone secretion at these levels.

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30. Macrolides:

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that bind reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunits, inhibiting the translocation step of protein synthesis. They also cause a conformational change that terminates protein synthesis by interfering with transpeptidation. Therefore, all of the given statements are true about macrolides.

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31. The hypothalamus makes and secretes releasing factors into the portal blood.

Explanation

The hypothalamus is a region of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. One of its functions is to produce and release releasing factors into the portal blood. These releasing factors then travel to the pituitary gland, where they stimulate the release of specific hormones. This communication between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland is vital for maintaining hormonal balance in the body. Therefore, the statement that the hypothalamus makes and secretes releasing factors into the portal blood is true.

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32. _____________ signaling events involved in "metabolic" signaling by insulin.

Explanation

PI-3 Kinase is the correct answer because it is a key signaling molecule involved in metabolic signaling by insulin. Insulin binds to its receptor on the cell surface, leading to the activation of PI-3 Kinase. This enzyme then phosphorylates specific proteins, initiating a cascade of intracellular events that regulate glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis, and lipid metabolism. PI-3 Kinase plays a crucial role in mediating insulin's metabolic effects, making it a critical component of the insulin signaling pathway.

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33. ________________ is the most common adverse event due to insulin Rx.

Explanation

Hypoglycemia is the most common adverse event due to insulin Rx. This is because insulin lowers blood sugar levels, and if too much insulin is administered or if a person's blood sugar levels are already low, it can result in hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include dizziness, sweating, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. It is important for individuals taking insulin to monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their insulin dosage accordingly to avoid hypoglycemia.

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34. The gonads (ovaries) secretes the following, except: 

Explanation

The gonads, specifically the ovaries, secrete estradiol (E2) and progesterone (P4), which are important hormones involved in the menstrual cycle and reproductive processes. However, gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is not secreted by the ovaries. GnRH is actually produced and released by the hypothalamus, and it plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of other hormones, such as follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which in turn stimulate the ovaries to produce estradiol and progesterone. Therefore, GnRH is not secreted by the ovaries.

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35. Only free T4 and T3 are biologically active.

Explanation

Only free T4 and T3 are biologically active because these are the unbound forms of thyroid hormones that can freely enter cells and interact with their receptors to regulate various physiological processes. Bound forms of T4 and T3, which are attached to proteins in the blood, are considered inactive because they cannot easily cross cell membranes and exert their effects. Therefore, it is true that only free T4 and T3 are biologically active.

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36. _____________ is the main carrier of T4 and and T3.

Explanation

Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) is the main carrier of T4 and T3. TBG is a protein produced by the liver that binds to thyroid hormones and transports them through the bloodstream. It has a high affinity for T4 and T3, allowing it to effectively carry and deliver these hormones to target tissues throughout the body. This binding and transport mechanism helps regulate the levels and availability of thyroid hormones in the body, ensuring their proper functioning and distribution.

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37. At high plasma thyroid levels, thyrotropin-releasing hormones (TRH) and thyrotropin-stimulating hormones (TSH) synthesis and secretion are inhibited.

Explanation

High plasma thyroid levels indicate that there is already an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. In this situation, the body's feedback mechanism works to inhibit the synthesis and secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and thyrotropin-stimulating hormone (TSH). This is because the high levels of thyroid hormones signal that the body does not need any more stimulation for thyroid hormone production. Therefore, it is true that at high plasma thyroid levels, TRH and TSH synthesis and secretion are inhibited.

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38. Grave's disease is most common form of hyperthyroidism.

Explanation

Grave's disease is indeed the most common form of hyperthyroidism. It is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce excessive amounts of thyroid hormone. This results in symptoms such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, and irritability. Other forms of hyperthyroidism, such as toxic nodular goiter or thyroiditis, are less common compared to Grave's disease. Therefore, the statement "Grave's disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism" is true.

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39. Calcium and phosphate ion levels in the body are hormonally regulated.

Explanation

Calcium and phosphate ion levels in the body are hormonally regulated because hormones such as parathyroid hormone and calcitonin play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of these ions. Parathyroid hormone increases calcium levels in the blood by stimulating the release of calcium from bones and increasing its absorption in the intestines. Calcitonin, on the other hand, decreases calcium levels by inhibiting bone breakdown and increasing its excretion by the kidneys. This hormonal regulation ensures that calcium and phosphate levels are maintained within a narrow range, which is essential for various physiological processes in the body.

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40. ______________ arrest the growth and replication of bacteria at clinical serum concentrations, and ______________ kill bacteria at clinical serum concentrations. Used in seriously ill patients.

Explanation

Bacteriostatic drugs inhibit the growth and replication of bacteria at clinical serum concentrations, while bactericidal drugs kill bacteria at clinical serum concentrations. These drugs are used in seriously ill patients to control and eliminate bacterial infections.

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41. Insulin secretion is biphasic.

Explanation

Insulin secretion is biphasic, meaning that it occurs in two distinct phases. The first phase is a rapid and transient release of insulin immediately after a meal, which helps to quickly lower blood glucose levels. The second phase is a slower and sustained release of insulin that occurs over a longer period of time, helping to maintain stable blood glucose levels. This biphasic secretion pattern is important for regulating glucose metabolism in the body.

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42. What is the therapy of choice for hypothyroidism?

Explanation

Levothyroxine sodium is the therapy of choice for hypothyroidism because it is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4), which is the hormone that is deficient in hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine sodium is able to replace the deficient thyroid hormone in the body and restore normal thyroid function. It is considered the standard treatment for hypothyroidism due to its effectiveness and safety profile. Liothyronine sodium, methimazole, and carbimazole are not typically used as first-line therapies for hypothyroidism.

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43. Indicate Step 5:





Explanation

Raf-1 phosphorylates MEK on two Ser residues, activating it. MEK is a kinase that phosphorylates ERK on a Thr and a Tyr residue, which further activates ERK. This phosphorylation cascade is a key step in the insulin signaling pathway. The activation of ERK leads to the activation of nuclear transcription factors such as Elk1, which stimulates the transcription and translation of genes required for cell division. This step is important for insulin-mediated cell growth and proliferation.

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44. The following are main classes of adrenocortical hormones, except:

Explanation

Glucagon is not a class of adrenocortical hormones. Adrenocortical hormones are mainly classified into two classes: corticosteroids and androgens. Corticosteroids, such as cortisol, are involved in regulating various metabolic processes and immune responses. Androgens, such as testosterone, are responsible for the development and maintenance of male characteristics. Glucagon, on the other hand, is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a role in increasing blood sugar levels.

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45. Which of the following are patient-specific variables to determine the appropriate antimicrobial?

Explanation

The appropriate antimicrobial for a patient is determined by considering various patient-specific variables. Immune function, renal function, liver function, blood flow/perfusion, age, pregnancy, and lactation are all important factors to consider when determining the appropriate antimicrobial. These variables can affect the metabolism, clearance, and efficacy of the antimicrobial in the patient's body.

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46. _________________ is used only in patients with life-threatening infections where no other alternatives exist.

Explanation

Chloramphenicol is used only in patients with life-threatening infections where no other alternatives exist. This suggests that chloramphenicol is a last resort antibiotic, reserved for cases where other antibiotics have failed or are not effective. It may be used when the infection is severe and poses a significant risk to the patient's life, and there are no other suitable options available.

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47. Dopamine inhibits prolactin secretions, and thyrotophin releasing hormone stimulates prolactin secretions.

Explanation

Dopamine is known to inhibit the secretion of prolactin, a hormone that stimulates milk production in the mammary glands. On the other hand, thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) stimulates the release of prolactin. Therefore, it is true that dopamine inhibits prolactin secretions, while thyrotropin-releasing hormone stimulates prolactin secretions.

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48. There are no therapeutic uses of prolactin.

Explanation

Prolactin is a hormone primarily associated with lactation and milk production in mammals. While it does have important functions in reproductive health, such as regulating the menstrual cycle and promoting maternal behavior, there are currently no known therapeutic uses for prolactin. Therefore, the statement that there are no therapeutic uses of prolactin is true.

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49. What type of cells releases glucagon?

Explanation

Pancreatic α cells are responsible for releasing glucagon. Glucagon is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. These α cells are located in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas and play a crucial role in maintaining glucose homeostasis in the body.

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50. Just prior to the preovulatory GnRH/LH/FSH surges, estradiol (E2) and progesterone (P4) are stimulatory to GnRH release.

Explanation

Prior to the preovulatory GnRH/LH/FSH surges, estradiol (E2) and progesterone (P4) are stimulatory to GnRH release. This means that the levels of E2 and P4 increase and signal the release of GnRH, LH, and FSH. These hormones are essential for the ovulation process and the preparation of the uterus for potential pregnancy. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct as it accurately reflects the relationship between E2, P4, and GnRH release.

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51. Congenital hypothyroidism due to iodine deficiency remains the major preventable cause of mental retardation worldwide.

Explanation

Congenital hypothyroidism is a condition where a baby is born with an underactive thyroid gland. This can lead to mental retardation if not treated promptly. Iodine deficiency is a known cause of congenital hypothyroidism, and it is preventable by ensuring an adequate intake of iodine. Therefore, it is true that congenital hypothyroidism due to iodine deficiency is a major preventable cause of mental retardation globally.

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52. Which of the following are common auto-antibodies causing Grave's disease?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." In Grave's disease, all three types of auto-antibodies mentioned are commonly found. Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulins (TSIs) mimic the action of TSH and stimulate the thyroid gland to produce excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. Thyroid Growth Stimulating Immunoglobulins (TGSIs) promote the growth of thyroid cells, leading to goiter. TSH-Binding Inhibitor Immunoglobulins (TBII) interfere with the binding of TSH to its receptor, further stimulating the production of thyroid hormones. Therefore, all three auto-antibodies play a role in the development and progression of Grave's disease.

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53. Mobilization of Ca2+ from bone (resorption) causes skeleton instability.

Explanation

When Ca2+ is mobilized from bone, it leads to bone resorption, which means that the bone tissue is broken down and reabsorbed by the body. This process weakens the bone structure and can result in skeletal instability. Therefore, the statement that mobilization of Ca2+ from bone causes skeleton instability is true.

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54. ____________ increases bone resorption and increases Ca2+ delivery to the extracellular fluid.

Explanation

PTH, or parathyroid hormone, increases bone resorption, which is the process of breaking down bone tissue. This leads to the release of calcium into the extracellular fluid. PTH also stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb calcium, reduces calcium excretion, and enhances the production of calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D. Overall, PTH plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body by increasing calcium levels in the blood.

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55. The hypothalamus makes and secrete hormones indirectly into the general circulation.

Explanation

directly

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56. Thyroid hormones are the only known iodine-containing compounds with biological activity. 

Explanation

Thyroid hormones are the only known iodine-containing compounds with biological activity. This means that iodine is a crucial component of thyroid hormones, and without iodine, these hormones would not be able to carry out their biological functions. Therefore, it is true that thyroid hormones are the only iodine-containing compounds with biological activity.

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57. The first biologic bone loss Rx is Prolia.

Explanation

Prolia is the first biologic medication used for the treatment of bone loss. It is a prescription drug that helps to increase bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. Therefore, the statement "The first biologic bone loss Rx is Prolia" is true.

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58. Estrogen receptors alpha and beta: 

Explanation

Estrogen receptors alpha and beta have the ability to form homodimers and heterodimers before binding to estrogen receptor response elements. Additionally, when bound to DNA, they can recruit co-activators as well as co-repressors. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for the functions of estrogen receptors alpha and beta.

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59. Which antimicrobial to use? Keys to selection of best Rx:

Explanation

When selecting an antimicrobial, several factors need to be considered. These include the identification of the infecting organism, as different organisms may respond differently to specific drugs. The site of infection is also important, as certain drugs may be more effective in treating infections in specific areas of the body. Safety of the medication is crucial to ensure that it does not cause harm to the patient. Determining the organism's susceptibility to a particular drug helps in selecting the most effective treatment. Patient-specific factors, such as allergies or other medical conditions, should also be taken into account. Lastly, the cost of the medication is a practical consideration that may influence the choice of antimicrobial.

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60. What is the 2nd phase in biphasic insulin secretion?

Explanation

The second phase in biphasic insulin secretion is translocation. This refers to the movement of insulin-containing vesicles from the cytoplasm of beta cells to the cell membrane, allowing the release of insulin into the bloodstream. Translocation is an essential step in the regulation of blood sugar levels, as it enables the timely and controlled release of insulin in response to glucose levels in the body.

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61. Hepatic glucose production is altered in Type 2 diabetes.

Explanation

In Type 2 diabetes, hepatic glucose production is indeed altered. The liver plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels by producing glucose through a process called gluconeogenesis. In individuals with Type 2 diabetes, there is an increased production of glucose by the liver, leading to elevated blood sugar levels. This occurs due to insulin resistance, where the body's cells do not respond effectively to insulin, causing the liver to overproduce glucose. Therefore, the statement that hepatic glucose production is altered in Type 2 diabetes is true.

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62. In the follicular phase, GnRH binds its receptors in the pituitary and causes lutienizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) to be released from the pituitary.

Explanation

During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, the hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which binds to its receptors in the pituitary gland. This binding stimulates the pituitary gland to release luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). These hormones play a crucial role in the development and maturation of ovarian follicles and the release of an egg during ovulation. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes the hormonal changes that occur during the follicular phase.

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63. Indicate Step 6:

Explanation

After the insulin receptor binds insulin and undergoes autophosphorylation, it phosphorylates IRS-1 on its Tyr residues. The SH2 domain of Grb2 then binds to the phosphorylated Tyr of IRS-1. Sos binds to Grb2, which in turn binds to Ras, causing GDP release and GTP binding to Ras. Activated Ras then binds and activates Raf-1. Raf-1 phosphorylates MEK on two Ser residues, activating it. MEK, in turn, phosphorylates ERK on a Thr and a Tyr residue, leading to its activation. Once activated, ERK moves into the nucleus and phosphorylates nuclear transcription factors such as Elk1, activating them. This activation of Elk1 and SRF stimulates the transcription and translation of genes needed for cell division.

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64. Vitamin D deficiency causes over-secretion of PTH and bone loss.

Explanation

Vitamin D deficiency can lead to an over-secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH), which in turn can result in bone loss. PTH helps regulate the levels of calcium and phosphorus in the body, and when there is a deficiency of vitamin D, the body is unable to properly absorb and utilize calcium. As a result, the parathyroid glands produce more PTH to compensate, which can cause the bones to release calcium, leading to bone loss. Therefore, the statement that vitamin D deficiency causes over-secretion of PTH and bone loss is true.

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65. Glucose is taken up by pancreatic β cells via _____________.

Explanation

Pancreatic β cells take up glucose via GLUT2. GLUT2 is a glucose transporter protein that is expressed in the plasma membrane of pancreatic β cells. It allows the entry of glucose into the cells, which is necessary for the production and release of insulin. GLUT2 has a high Km value, which means it has a low affinity for glucose and is responsible for facilitating the transport of glucose in and out of the cells depending on the concentration gradient. This allows pancreatic β cells to sense and respond to changes in blood glucose levels.

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66. Which of the following are Thiazolidinediones?

Explanation

Rosiglitazone (Avandia) and Pioglitazones (Actos) are Thiazolidinediones. Thiazolidinediones are a class of oral medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by increasing the body's sensitivity to insulin, helping to lower blood sugar levels. Nateglinide and Miglitol, on the other hand, are not Thiazolidinediones. Nateglinide is a meglitinide that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreas, while Miglitol is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that slows down the digestion of carbohydrates.

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67. The following are examples of progestins, except:

Explanation

Ethinyl estradiol 3-methyl ether is not a progestin because it is a synthetic estrogen derivative, not a progestin hormone. Progestins are synthetic versions of the hormone progesterone, which are used in various forms of hormonal contraception and hormone replacement therapy. Progesterone, 17a-acetoxyprogesterone (pregnane), 19-nortestosterone (estrane), and norgestrel (gonane) are all examples of progestins.

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68. The major site of conversion of T4 to T3 outside the thyroid is the ___________.

Explanation

The liver is the major site of conversion of T4 to T3 outside the thyroid. This conversion is important for the regulation of thyroid hormone levels in the body. The liver contains enzymes that facilitate the conversion process, allowing T4 to be converted into the more active form of thyroid hormone, T3. This conversion is crucial for the proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body, including metabolism, growth, and development.

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69. The anterior pituitary consists of neuronal tissues, and the posterior pituitary consists of non-neuronal tissues.

Explanation

anterior pituitary consists of non-neuronal
posterior pituitary consists of neuronal

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70. At most times during the menstrual cycle, estrogen and/or progesterone provide positive feedback to GnRH and LH release.

Explanation

negative feedback

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71. Indicate Step 2:

Explanation

The given answer is correct because it accurately identifies the step in the pathway where the insulin receptor phosphorylates IRS-1 on its Tyr residues. This step is crucial for the activation of downstream signaling molecules, such as Grb2 and Ras, which ultimately lead to the activation of ERK and the stimulation of gene transcription and cell division.

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72. Which of the following competitively antagonizes mineralcorticoid receptors?

Explanation

Spironolactone is the correct answer because it competitively antagonizes mineralocorticoid receptors. This means that it blocks the action of mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone, at their receptors. By doing so, spironolactone reduces the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys and promotes the excretion of potassium, leading to diuresis and natriuresis. Spironolactone is commonly used as a potassium-sparing diuretic and is also effective in treating conditions such as hypertension and heart failure.

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73. Individual cells in the pituitary generally make more than one hormone.

Explanation

“Rule of thumb”: Different pituitary cells make different hormones

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74. Human insulin is produced by recombinant RNA technology.

Explanation

recombinant DNA technology

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75. Which of the following are phases of the menstrual cycle?

Explanation

The phases of the menstrual cycle include follicular development and endometrial development, mid-cycle/ovulation, and the luteal phase. During the follicular phase, follicles in the ovaries mature and prepare to release an egg. The endometrial phase involves the thickening of the uterine lining in preparation for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. Mid-cycle/ovulation is when the mature egg is released from the ovary. The luteal phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by the production of progesterone to support a potential pregnancy.

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76. __________ synthesize T4 and T3.

Explanation

Follicular cells are responsible for synthesizing T4 and T3. These cells are found in the thyroid gland, which is responsible for producing and releasing thyroid hormones. T4 and T3 are important hormones that regulate metabolism, growth, and development in the body. Therefore, it is the follicular cells in the thyroid gland that play a crucial role in the production of these hormones.

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77. ____________ is the most common cause of thyroid dysfunction.

Explanation

Hypothyroidism is the most common cause of thyroid dysfunction. This condition occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, resulting in a slower metabolism. It can be caused by various factors such as autoimmune diseases, iodine deficiency, certain medications, or damage to the thyroid gland. Hypothyroidism can lead to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and depression. It is important to diagnose and treat hypothyroidism promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient's quality of life.

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78. The four parathyroid glands are located on the interior surface of the thyroid gland.

Explanation

Posterior surface

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79. Bisphosphonates are the first line Rx for prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis.

Explanation

Bisphosphonates are a class of drugs commonly used for the prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis. They work by inhibiting bone resorption, which helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. Bisphosphonates have been extensively studied and have shown to be effective in reducing the rate of bone loss and decreasing the incidence of fractures in postmenopausal women. Therefore, they are considered the first-line treatment option for this condition.

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80. Which of the following are specific-defined gene mutations of diabetes Mellitus?

Explanation

MODY (Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young) is a specific-defined gene mutation of diabetes Mellitus. It is a rare form of diabetes that is caused by a mutation in a single gene. Unlike Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes, which have multiple causes and risk factors, MODY is caused by a specific genetic mutation that affects the body's ability to produce insulin. People with MODY often develop diabetes at a younger age and have a strong family history of the disease.

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81. Glucose is ___________ by glucokinase.

Explanation

Glucose is phosphorylated by glucokinase. This means that a phosphate group is added to the glucose molecule, resulting in the formation of glucose-6-phosphate. Phosphorylation is an important process in glucose metabolism as it helps to trap glucose inside the cell and initiate further metabolic reactions.

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82. What is the 1st phase in biphasic insulin secretion?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fusion. In biphasic insulin secretion, the first phase involves the fusion of insulin-containing vesicles with the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells. This fusion allows the release of a rapid and initial burst of insulin into the bloodstream in response to increased blood glucose levels. This first phase is followed by a second phase, which involves a slower and sustained release of insulin.

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83. The thyroid produces 3 fundamentally different hormones: (Choose from the following)

Explanation

The thyroid gland produces three fundamentally different hormones: thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine are responsible for regulating metabolism and energy production in the body. Calcitonin helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood by promoting its uptake into the bones. Glucocorticoids, on the other hand, are hormones produced by the adrenal glands, not the thyroid gland, and are involved in regulating metabolism, immune function, and stress response.

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84. T4, but not T3, can also bind transthyretin and albumin.

Explanation

The statement suggests that T4 has the ability to bind both transthyretin and albumin, while T3 does not possess this capability. This implies that T4 has a broader binding range compared to T3, which supports the statement being true.

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85. Calcium enters the body from dietary sources (not generated in the body) and is absorbed exclusively from the intestine.

Explanation

Calcium is an essential mineral that is not produced by the body, so it must be obtained from dietary sources. The statement correctly states that calcium enters the body from dietary sources. Furthermore, the statement also correctly states that calcium is absorbed exclusively from the intestine. This means that the body can only absorb calcium from the food we eat through the intestinal wall. Therefore, the answer "True" is the correct choice.

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86. Which of the following are Meglitinides?

Explanation

Nateglinide and Replaglinide are both classified as Meglitinides. These drugs are commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. They work by targeting the beta cells in the pancreas to increase insulin secretion, helping to lower blood sugar levels. Rosiglitazone/Avandia and Metformin, on the other hand, belong to different drug classes and have different mechanisms of action for managing diabetes.

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87. Indicate Step 7:

Explanation

Phosphorylated Elk1 joins SRF to stimulate the transcription and translation of a set of genes needed for cell division. This statement explains the role of phosphorylated Elk1 in activating SRF (serum response factor) and promoting the expression of genes required for cell division. Elk1 is phosphorylated by ERK, which is activated through a signaling cascade involving Raf-1, MEK, and Ras. The activation of Elk1 and subsequent stimulation of gene expression is an important step in the cellular response to growth factors and is essential for cell division.

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88. Vitamin D increases the transcellular movement of Ca2+ in the intestine via three steps:

Explanation

Vitamin D increases the movement of Ca2+ in the intestine through three steps. First, it decreases the diffusion of Ca2+ through the cell. This means that less Ca2+ is able to passively move through the cell. Second, it increases the movement of Ca2+ across the mucosal membrane. This means that more Ca2+ is actively transported across the membrane. Third, it increases the diffusion of Ca2+ through the cell. This means that more Ca2+ is able to passively move through the cell. Lastly, it increases the energy-dependent extrusion of Ca2+ across the serosal membrane. This means that more Ca2+ is actively transported out of the cell and into the bloodstream.

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89. Brain glucose uptake occurs at different rates during absorptive and post-absorptive periods and is not altered in type 2 diabetes.

Explanation

Occurs at same rate

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90. Thyroid hormones decreases O2 consumption (multi-organ effect).

Explanation

increases oxygen consumption

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91. Which of the following are ionic inhibitors in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?

Explanation

Perchlorate and Thiocyanate are both ionic inhibitors used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism. These substances work by blocking the uptake of iodine by the thyroid gland, which is necessary for the production of thyroid hormones. By inhibiting this process, the production of excessive thyroid hormones is reduced, helping to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is not an ionic inhibitor, but rather an antithyroid medication that works by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is sometimes used to manage the symptoms of hyperthyroidism, but it does not directly inhibit the production or uptake of thyroid hormones.

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92. Oral glucose has less stimulus for insulin secretion than IV due to stimulatory effects of GI hormones.

Explanation

greater stimulus

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93. Measuring concentrations of AGE is an important clinical biomarker for glucose control.

Explanation

measure hemoglobin

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94. The following can alter insulin absorption and duration of action:

Explanation

Insulin absorption and duration of action can be influenced by various factors. The injection site plays a crucial role as insulin is absorbed differently in different areas of the body. Blood flow is also important as it affects the rate at which insulin is distributed throughout the body. Temperature can impact insulin absorption, with higher temperatures potentially increasing absorption. Physical activity can also affect insulin absorption and action by increasing blood flow and altering the body's metabolism. Overall, all of these factors, including injection site, blood flow, temperature, and physical activity, can have an impact on how insulin is absorbed and how long it remains active in the body.

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95. Which of the following are Biguanides?

Explanation

Metformin is a biguanide. Biguanides are a class of oral diabetes medications that work by reducing the production of glucose in the liver and improving the body's response to insulin. They are commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. Glipizide, Actos, and Avandia are not biguanides. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication, while Actos and Avandia belong to a class of medications called thiazolidinediones.

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96. Thyroid gland is essential for life and disorders of the thyroid are common.

Explanation

thyroid gland is not essential for life

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97. Calcitonin is more effective than bisphosphonates in inhibition of bone resorption.

Explanation

less effective

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98. Metformin:

Explanation

Metformin is a first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) because it has been shown to effectively lower blood glucose levels. It works by enhancing glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and increasing glucose uptake into tissues. Additionally, metformin reduces hepatic glucose output by decreasing the rates of gluconeogenesis, which is the production of glucose by the liver. Metformin also activates AMPK, a cellular enzyme that helps regulate energy balance and glucose metabolism. Therefore, the correct answer is A, C, and D, as all of these statements accurately describe the actions and effects of metformin.

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99. Hypoglycemia is a potent inhibitor of hepatic glucose output (HGO).

Explanation

Hyperglycemia

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100. The _________________ produces estrogen (E2) and inhibin.

Explanation

The graafian follicle is responsible for producing estrogen (E2) and inhibin. The graafian follicle is a mature ovarian follicle that contains the developing egg. As it grows, it secretes estrogen, which plays a crucial role in the regulation of the menstrual cycle and the development of secondary sexual characteristics. Additionally, the graafian follicle also produces inhibin, a hormone that helps regulate the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary gland.

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101. Indicate Step 3:

Explanation

In this step, the SH2 domain of Grb2 binds to the phosphorylated tyrosine (P-Tyr) residues of IRS-1. Sos, which is bound to Grb2, then binds to Ras. This binding of Sos to Ras causes the release of GDP (guanosine diphosphate) and the binding of GTP (guanosine triphosphate) to Ras. This activation of Ras is an important step in the insulin signaling pathway, as it leads to the activation of downstream signaling cascades, ultimately resulting in the stimulation of cell division.

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102. ____________ is the first-line alternative in patients who are intolerant to bisphosphonates.

Explanation

SERMs (Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators) are the first-line alternative for patients who are intolerant to bisphosphonates. SERMs, such as raloxifene, work by selectively binding to estrogen receptors and have both estrogenic and antiestrogenic effects. They help to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in postmenopausal women. Calcitonin is another medication used for osteoporosis, but it is not typically considered the first-line alternative. Calcimimetics, on the other hand, are used for the treatment of hyperparathyroidism and are not indicated for osteoporosis.

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103. Insulin can bind to IGF receptors with high affinity.

Explanation

low affinity

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104. Dysregulation of insulin signaling pathways is one of the hallmarks of Type I diabetes.

Explanation

Type II

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105. The following are stimulatory factors in the regulation of insulin secretion, except:

Explanation

Dopamine is not a stimulatory factor in the regulation of insulin secretion. Insulin secretion is primarily regulated by factors such as dietary amino acids, acetylcholine (via the vagus nerve), glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP), and fatty acids. Dopamine, on the other hand, is known to inhibit insulin secretion rather than stimulate it. Therefore, it is not considered a stimulatory factor in the regulation of insulin secretion.

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106. Thyrotropin-stimulating hormones (TSH) is stimulated by T3 and T4 and inhibited by thyrotropin-releasing hormones (TRH).

Explanation

Stimulated by TRH and inhibited by T3 and T4

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107. _____________ is metabolized by CYP2D6 and inhibitor of CYP2D6.

Explanation

Calcimimetics are metabolized by CYP2D6 and also inhibit CYP2D6. This means that calcimimetics are both substrates and inhibitors of the CYP2D6 enzyme. CYP2D6 is an important enzyme in drug metabolism, responsible for the breakdown of many medications in the body. When calcimimetics are metabolized by CYP2D6, they can also inhibit the enzyme, potentially leading to drug-drug interactions with other medications that are also metabolized by CYP2D6.

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108. The following can greatly improve outcomes for diabetic patients:

Explanation

Early diagnosis, careful glucose monitoring, and control can greatly improve outcomes for diabetic patients. Early diagnosis allows for prompt intervention and management of the disease, preventing further complications. Careful glucose monitoring helps in maintaining blood sugar levels within the target range, reducing the risk of hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Control of diabetes through medication, lifestyle modifications, and adherence to treatment plans can prevent the progression of the disease and minimize the impact on the patient's health. Overall, these measures contribute to better management of diabetes and improved patient outcomes.

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109. Proparathyroid hormone (PPTH) is converted to parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).

Explanation

golgi apparatus

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110. The zonae fasciculata/reticularis secretes aldosterone.

Explanation

The adrenal cortex has two major functional compartments:
-The zona glomurosa secretes aldosterone
-The zonae fasciculata/reticularis secretes glucocorticoids (cortisol) and weak androgens

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111. Insulin regulates hepatic glucose production by:

Explanation

Insulin regulates hepatic glucose production through multiple mechanisms. It signals via PI3K in the hypothalamus, which helps regulate appetite and energy balance. Insulin also activates phosphodiesterases in the liver, leading to the breakdown of cAMP, a molecule that promotes glucose production. Additionally, insulin activates hepatic PP-1, an enzyme that de-phosphorylates glycogen phosphorylase a, thereby inhibiting glycogen breakdown and reducing glucose release from the liver. Therefore, all of the given options are correct explanations for how insulin regulates hepatic glucose production.

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112. In the follicular phase, a "pulse generator" in the basal hypothalamus produces a large burst of neuronal activity.

Explanation

small burst of neuronal activity

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113. Dopamine D2 antagonists inhibit prolactin release.

Explanation

Dopamine D2 agonists

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114. The following are oral Rx for Type 2 diabetes mellitus, except:

Explanation

Insulin desensitizers are not oral medications for Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Insulin secretagogues, α-Glucosidase inhibitors, and Dipeptidyl Peptidase 4 (DPPIV) inhibitors are all oral medications commonly used to treat Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, the correct answer is "Insulin desensitizers."

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115. Vancomycin:

Explanation

Vancomycin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall. It does this by binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala of the pentapeptide, which prevents the trans-glycosylation step in peptidoglycan polymerization. This ultimately leads to the disruption of the bacterial cell wall, making it bactericidal for dividing microorganisms. Vancomycin is particularly effective against gram-positive organisms and is important in treating multiple drug-resistant organisms such as MRSA and enterococci.

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116. Which of the following are α-Glucosidase inhibitors?

Explanation

Miglitol and Acarbose are α-Glucosidase inhibitors. These drugs work by slowing down the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the small intestine. By inhibiting the α-Glucosidase enzyme, they prevent the breakdown of complex carbohydrates into simple sugars, thereby reducing the post-meal rise in blood glucose levels. Actos and Avandia, on the other hand, are thiazolidinediones used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity.

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117. Calcium-sensitive receptor (CaSR) activation by Ca2+ results in increased PTH secretion.

Explanation

decreased PTH secretion

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118. Secondary hypothyroidism is a failure of the hypothalamus stimulation, and tertiary hypothyroidism is a failure of the pituitary stimulation of the thyroid.

Explanation

Secondary hypothyroidism: failure of pituitary
Tertiary hypothyroidism: failure of hypothalamus

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119. GnRH:

Explanation

The correct answer is A and B. GnRH secretion is inhibited by estrogen and stimulated by estrogen. This means that the secretion of GnRH is regulated by the presence or absence of estrogen in the body. Additionally, the secretion amplitude (not frequency) of GnRH is regulated at the level of the pituitary.

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120. In the follicular phase, __________ and __________ feedback to the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit LH and FSH release.

Explanation

During the follicular phase, estrogen (E2) and inhibin feedback to the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit LH and FSH release. Estrogen acts as a negative feedback signal to prevent excessive production of LH and FSH, while inhibin specifically inhibits FSH release. This feedback mechanism helps regulate the levels of these hormones and ensure proper follicular development and ovulation. Progesterone and estradiol are not involved in inhibiting LH and FSH release during the follicular phase.

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121. Alterations in bone turnover are seen first in the peripheral bone.

Explanation

axial

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122. Which of the following are natural estrogens?

Explanation

Estradiol, estrone, and estriol are all natural estrogens. Estrogens are hormones that are primarily produced in the ovaries and play a crucial role in the development and regulation of the female reproductive system. These hormones are responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and maintenance of pregnancy. Estradiol is the most potent and abundant estrogen, while estrone and estriol are less potent but still important in various physiological processes. Esthinylestradiol, on the other hand, is a synthetic estrogen commonly used in hormonal contraceptives.

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123. Estrogen directly regulate osteoclasts.

Explanation

osteoblasts

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124. The most important regulatory hormone(s) of calcium and phosphate regulation: (Choose from the following)

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) are the most important regulatory hormones for calcium and phosphate regulation. PTH acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood by promoting bone resorption, reducing calcium excretion in the urine, and enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines. Calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D, works in conjunction with PTH to increase calcium absorption in the intestines and promote bone mineralization. Together, PTH and calcitriol play a crucial role in maintaining calcium and phosphate homeostasis in the body.

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125. Tetracyclines: 

Explanation

Tetracyclines are a group of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis. They do this by binding to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, which prevents the binding of tRNA to the A site. This blocks the incorporation of amino acids into the growing peptide chain. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B, as tetracyclines both bind to the 30S subunit and block tRNA binding to the A site.

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126. Indicate Step 4:

Explanation

In this step, it is stated that Activated Ras binds and activates Raf-1. This means that once Ras is activated by Sos, it binds to Raf-1 and triggers its activation. Raf-1 is a protein kinase that plays a crucial role in the MAP kinase signaling pathway. Once activated, Raf-1 phosphorylates MEK, which in turn phosphorylates ERK. The activation of Raf-1 is an important step in the cascade of events that ultimately leads to the phosphorylation of nuclear transcription factors and the stimulation of gene expression required for cell division.

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127. ______________ suppressed in conditions favoring increase bone resorption.

Explanation

OPG (osteoprotegerin) is a protein that plays a crucial role in regulating bone remodeling. It acts as a decoy receptor for RANKL (receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand), preventing it from binding to RANK (receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B) on osteoclasts. Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption, so when OPG is present, it inhibits the interaction between RANKL and RANK, ultimately suppressing bone resorption. Therefore, in conditions where bone resorption needs to be decreased, OPG would be favored.

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128. Which of the following pertaining to Growth Hormone are true?

Explanation

Growth hormone is primarily secreted during sleep, with the highest quantities being released at night. Ghrelin, a hormone produced in the stomach, stimulates the release of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), which in turn triggers the secretion of growth hormone. Somatostatin (SST) inhibits the release of growth hormone, acting as a negative regulator. Growth hormone indirectly stimulates the release of insulin-like growth factors (IGFs), which are responsible for the growth-promoting effects of growth hormone.

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129. Control of prolactin release is mainly stimulatory. 

Explanation

inhibitory

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130. Decreased dietary Vitamin D, Ca2+, or phosphate will decrease 1α-hydroxylase.

Explanation

increase 1α-hydroxylase

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131. Which of the following are protein synthesis inhibitors that targets bacteria?

Explanation

Tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, macrolides, clindamycin, and linezolid are all protein synthesis inhibitors that target bacteria. These drugs work by interfering with the bacterial ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis. By inhibiting protein synthesis, these antibiotics prevent the bacteria from producing essential proteins needed for their survival and growth. This ultimately leads to the death or inhibition of bacterial growth, making these drugs effective against bacterial infections.

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132. 24-hydroxylase activity is inhibited by calcitrol and stimulated by factors that stimulate 1α-hydroxylase.

Explanation

24-hydroxylase activity is stimulated by calcitrol and inhibited by factors that stimulate 1α-hydroxylase.

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133. Prolactin:

Explanation

Stress can stimulate the release of prolactin. Prolactin is a hormone that is secreted by the pituitary gland and is involved in various physiological processes, such as milk production in lactating females. During times of stress, the body activates the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis, which leads to the release of stress hormones such as cortisol. This activation of the HPA axis can also stimulate the release of prolactin. Therefore, stress can act as a stimulator for the release of prolactin.

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134. Chloramphenicol: (Choose from the following)

Explanation

Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that is known to penetrate bacterial cells via facilitated diffusion. This means that it can easily enter the bacterial cell through a specific transport mechanism. Additionally, chloramphenicol binds reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit at the P site. This binding inhibits the transpeptidation reaction, which is essential for bacterial protein synthesis. Therefore, chloramphenicol's ability to penetrate bacterial cells and inhibit protein synthesis makes it an effective antibiotic against certain bacterial infections.

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135. Deactivated cAMP triggers protein kinase activity and the subsequent phosphorylation of proteins necessary for steroidogenesis.

Explanation

activated cAMP

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136. Glucagon is an antagonist for G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) that signals via stimulatory G-protein (Gs).

Explanation

agonist

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137. Which of the following are classes of anti-thyroid Rx?

Explanation

The correct answer includes all the classes of anti-thyroid Rx. Anti-thyroid drugs are medications specifically used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Ionic inhibitors are substances that block the uptake of iodine by the thyroid gland, thereby reducing the production of thyroid hormones. High concentrations of iodide also inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism to destroy or reduce the function of the thyroid gland. Adjuvant Rx refers to additional treatments or medications used in conjunction with the primary therapy.

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138. Pituitary hormones are typically homodimeric glycoproteins and have an alpha and beta subunit. 

Explanation

heterodimeric

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139. Thryotropin Releasing Hormone: (Choose from the following)

Explanation

The Thryotropin Releasing Hormone is made in several areas of the hypothalamus and secreted at the median eminence. It is also synthesized and secreted throughout the brain as a neurotransmitter. Additionally, it is secreted in a pulsatile manner from the anterior hypothalamus.

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140. Which of the following are steps in thyroid hormone biosynthesis?

Explanation

The steps in thyroid hormone biosynthesis include the uptake of iodide, oxidation and iodination, formation of T4 and T3 from iodotyrosines, resorption, proteolysis of colloid, secretion of thyroid hormones, and conversion of T4 to T3 in peripheral tissues. These steps are essential for the production and release of thyroid hormones in the body.

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141. Growth Hormone Receptor:

Explanation

The growth hormone receptor is responsible for causing autophosphorylation of JAK2 and recruitment of IRS-1. This means that when the growth hormone binds to its receptor, it activates JAK2, leading to its own phosphorylation. Additionally, the receptor recruits IRS-1, which is a signaling molecule that plays a role in transmitting signals from the receptor to downstream pathways. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B.

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142. Which of the following are true pertaining to oxytocin?

Explanation

Oxytocin is a nonpeptide hormone and neurotransmitter. It is released in response to suckling, cervix changes, and stress. It also stimulates prostaglandin synthesis.

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143. Which of the following are sulfonylureas?

Explanation

Glibenclamide and Glipizide are both sulfonylureas. Sulfonylureas are a class of oral medications commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by stimulating the pancreas to produce more insulin, which helps lower blood sugar levels. Nateglinide, on the other hand, is a different type of medication called a meglitinide, and Metformin is a biguanide. Both Nateglinide and Metformin also help lower blood sugar levels, but they do so in different ways than sulfonylureas.

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144. Parathyroid hormones (PTH) reduces the formation of:

Explanation

Parathyroid hormones (PTH) are known to reduce the formation of Type I collagen, alkaline phosphatase, and osteoclacin. Type I collagen is the most abundant collagen in the human body and is responsible for providing strength and structure to bones, tendons, and other connective tissues. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme involved in bone mineralization and is necessary for the proper formation of bones. Osteoclacin is a protein produced by osteoblasts, which plays a role in regulating bone mineralization. Therefore, the reduction in the formation of these substances by PTH can have detrimental effects on bone health and integrity.

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145. Which of the following are disorders of mineral homeostasis?

Explanation

Hypercalcemia, hypocalcemia, disturbed phosphate metabolism, vitamin D, and vitamin D deficiency are all disorders of mineral homeostasis. Hypercalcemia refers to high levels of calcium in the blood, while hypocalcemia refers to low levels of calcium in the blood. Disturbed phosphate metabolism refers to an imbalance in the levels of phosphate in the body. Vitamin D is essential for the regulation of calcium and phosphate levels in the body, and a deficiency in vitamin D can lead to mineral homeostasis disorders. Therefore, all of the given options are correct answers as they are all related to disorders of mineral homeostasis.

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146. Calcitriol aids in the absorption and retention of Ca2+ and phosphate in the liver.

Explanation

Calcitriol aids in the absorption and retention of Ca2+ and phosphate in the small intestine.

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147. Which of the following are SERMS?

Explanation

Tamoxifen, Raloxifene, and Toremifene are all selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). SERMs are a class of drugs that selectively bind to estrogen receptors in different tissues, acting as estrogen agonists in some tissues and estrogen antagonists in others. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of hormone receptor-positive breast cancer, as they inhibit the growth of cancer cells that rely on estrogen for growth. Additionally, Raloxifene is also used for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Clomiphene, on the other hand, is not a SERM but rather a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that is used to induce ovulation in women with infertility issues.

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148. Which of the following are inhibitors of adrenocortical secretion?

Explanation

Mitotane, Metyrapone, Aminoglutethimide, Ketoconazole, and Trilostane are all inhibitors of adrenocortical secretion. Adrenocortical secretion refers to the production and release of hormones by the adrenal cortex, which plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. These inhibitors work by different mechanisms to inhibit the synthesis or release of adrenal hormones, such as cortisol. Mitotane is primarily used to treat adrenal cancer and can suppress adrenal function. Metyrapone inhibits the enzyme involved in cortisol synthesis. Aminoglutethimide blocks the conversion of cholesterol to cortisol. Ketoconazole inhibits several enzymes involved in steroid synthesis. Trilostane inhibits an enzyme that is necessary for cortisol synthesis.

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149. Which of the following are "metabolic effects"?

Explanation

The metabolic effects listed in the answer choices are glucose uptake, glycogen synthesis, and lipogenesis. Glucose uptake refers to the process of cells taking in glucose from the bloodstream to be used as a source of energy. Glycogen synthesis involves the formation of glycogen, which is a stored form of glucose in the liver and muscles. Lipogenesis is the process of synthesizing lipids or fats. These metabolic effects are all involved in the regulation and storage of energy in the body.

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150. Which of the following are thioureylenes?

Explanation

Propylthiouracil, Methimazole, and Carbimazole are all thioureylenes. These compounds are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism, a condition in which the thyroid gland produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. Thioureylenes work by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones, helping to reduce the symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine sodium, on the other hand, is not a thioureylene. It is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine and is used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones.

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151. Reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys are highly regulated by Vitamin D.

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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152. Which of the following are anti-estrogens?

Explanation

Clomiphene and Fulvestrant are both anti-estrogens. Clomiphene works by blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, which leads to an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) production, stimulating ovulation. Fulvestrant, on the other hand, is a selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD) that binds to estrogen receptors and causes their degradation, thereby inhibiting estrogen signaling. Tamoxifen and Formestane are not anti-estrogens; Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that has both estrogenic and anti-estrogenic effects depending on the tissue, while Formestane is an aromatase inhibitor that reduces estrogen production.

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153. Antimicrobials: (Choose from the following)

Explanation

The correct answer includes a comprehensive list of different types of antimicrobials and their mechanisms of action. It covers agents that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis, bacteriostatic agents that disrupt ribosomal subunits to inhibit protein synthesis, bactericidal agents that alter protein synthesis by binding to ribosomal subunits, and agents that affect bacterial nucleic acid metabolism by inhibiting RNA polymerase or topoisomerases. This answer provides a thorough understanding of the different ways antimicrobials can target bacteria and inhibit their growth.

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Insulin-stimulated glucose transport is impaired in adipose tissue and...
_____________ is the most important fuel for the brain.
Some critically ill patients require immediate antibiotic treatment...
Glucagon increases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.
_______________ occurs when the body cannot use glucose as a fuel...
Bone remodeling is carried out by "bone remodeling units",...
Ca2+ in the plasma is the main factor in regulating PTH release.
Calcitriol is the active form of Vitamin D.
__________________ are involved in the maintenance of electrolyte...
________________ is a failure to produce sufficient thyroid hormone.
If the liver is insulin-resistant, it will continue to produce glucose...
Glycosylated hemoglobin is a critical biomarker for glucose control.
Insulin resistance/Metabolic syndrome is constellation of symptoms...
One of the glycemic goals is to maintain fasting blood glucose between...
As insulin is a polypeptide, it can be taken orally.
Calcitriol controls 1α-hydroxylase synthesis and PTH secretion via...
Type 1 diabetics have essentially no functional β cells...
In the early proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle, the uterine...
Ionic inhibitors interfere with the concentrations of iodide by the...
Vitamin D plays an active role in Ca2+ homeostasis.
Levels of the enzyme 1α-hydroxylase are tightly regulated in order to...
What type of cells releases insulin?
Hyperinsulinemia is a condition in which normal amounts of insulin are...
Insulin secretagogues promote insulin secretion from β cells.
___________ are oral insulin sensitizer, and 1st line therapy for Type...
Anti-thyroid drugs block the incorporation of iodine into tyrosyl...
Indicate Step 1:
The main effect of adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) is on...
Somatostatin inhibits growth hormone secretion by its actions at the...
Macrolides:
The hypothalamus makes and secretes releasing factors into the portal...
_____________ signaling events involved in "metabolic" signaling by...
________________ is the most common adverse event due to insulin Rx.
The gonads (ovaries) secretes the following, except: 
Only free T4 and T3 are biologically active.
_____________ is the main carrier of T4 and and T3.
At high plasma thyroid levels, thyrotropin-releasing hormones (TRH)...
Grave's disease is most common form of hyperthyroidism.
Calcium and phosphate ion levels in the body are hormonally regulated.
______________ arrest the growth and replication of bacteria at...
Insulin secretion is biphasic.
What is the therapy of choice for hypothyroidism?
Indicate Step 5:
The following are main classes of adrenocortical hormones, except:
Which of the following are patient-specific variables to determine the...
_________________ is used only in patients with life-threatening...
Dopamine inhibits prolactin secretions, and thyrotophin releasing...
There are no therapeutic uses of prolactin.
What type of cells releases glucagon?
Just prior to the preovulatory GnRH/LH/FSH surges, estradiol (E2) and...
Congenital hypothyroidism due to iodine deficiency remains the major...
Which of the following are common auto-antibodies causing Grave's...
Mobilization of Ca2+ from bone (resorption) causes skeleton...
____________ increases bone resorption and increases Ca2+ delivery to...
The hypothalamus makes and secrete hormones indirectly into the...
Thyroid hormones are the only known iodine-containing compounds with...
The first biologic bone loss Rx is Prolia.
Estrogen receptors alpha and beta: 
Which antimicrobial to use? Keys to selection of best Rx:
What is the 2nd phase in biphasic insulin secretion?
Hepatic glucose production is altered in Type 2 diabetes.
In the follicular phase, GnRH binds its receptors in the pituitary and...
Indicate Step 6:
Vitamin D deficiency causes over-secretion of PTH and bone loss.
Glucose is taken up by pancreatic β cells via _____________.
Which of the following are Thiazolidinediones?
The following are examples of progestins, except:
The major site of conversion of T4 to T3 outside the thyroid is the...
The anterior pituitary consists of neuronal tissues, and the posterior...
At most times during the menstrual cycle, estrogen and/or progesterone...
Indicate Step 2:
Which of the following competitively antagonizes mineralcorticoid...
Individual cells in the pituitary generally make more than one...
Human insulin is produced by recombinant RNA technology.
Which of the following are phases of the menstrual cycle?
__________ synthesize T4 and T3.
____________ is the most common cause of thyroid dysfunction.
The four parathyroid glands are located on the interior surface of the...
Bisphosphonates are the first line Rx for prevention and treatment of...
Which of the following are specific-defined gene mutations of diabetes...
Glucose is ___________ by glucokinase.
What is the 1st phase in biphasic insulin secretion?
The thyroid produces 3 fundamentally different hormones: (Choose from...
T4, but not T3, can also bind transthyretin and albumin.
Calcium enters the body from dietary sources (not generated in the...
Which of the following are Meglitinides?
Indicate Step 7:
Vitamin D increases the transcellular movement of Ca2+ in the...
Brain glucose uptake occurs at different rates during absorptive and...
Thyroid hormones decreases O2 consumption (multi-organ effect).
Which of the following are ionic inhibitors in the treatment of...
Oral glucose has less stimulus for insulin secretion than IV due to...
Measuring concentrations of AGE is an important clinical biomarker for...
The following can alter insulin absorption and duration of action:
Which of the following are Biguanides?
Thyroid gland is essential for life and disorders of the thyroid are...
Calcitonin is more effective than bisphosphonates in inhibition of...
Metformin:
Hypoglycemia is a potent inhibitor of hepatic glucose output (HGO).
The _________________ produces estrogen (E2) and inhibin.
Indicate Step 3:
____________ is the first-line alternative in patients who are...
Insulin can bind to IGF receptors with high affinity.
Dysregulation of insulin signaling pathways is one of the hallmarks of...
The following are stimulatory factors in the regulation of insulin...
Thyrotropin-stimulating hormones (TSH) is stimulated by T3 and T4 and...
_____________ is metabolized by CYP2D6 and inhibitor of CYP2D6.
The following can greatly improve outcomes for diabetic patients:
Proparathyroid hormone (PPTH) is converted to parathyroid hormone...
The zonae fasciculata/reticularis secretes aldosterone.
Insulin regulates hepatic glucose production by:
In the follicular phase, a "pulse generator" in the basal hypothalamus...
Dopamine D2 antagonists inhibit prolactin release.
The following are oral Rx for Type 2 diabetes mellitus, except:
Vancomycin:
Which of the following are α-Glucosidase inhibitors?
Calcium-sensitive receptor (CaSR) activation by Ca2+ results in...
Secondary hypothyroidism is a failure of the hypothalamus stimulation,...
GnRH:
In the follicular phase, __________ and __________ feedback to the...
Alterations in bone turnover are seen first in the peripheral bone.
Which of the following are natural estrogens?
Estrogen directly regulate osteoclasts.
The most important regulatory hormone(s) of calcium and phosphate...
Tetracyclines: 
Indicate Step 4:
______________ suppressed in conditions favoring increase bone...
Which of the following pertaining to Growth Hormone are true?
Control of prolactin release is mainly stimulatory. 
Decreased dietary Vitamin D, Ca2+, or phosphate will...
Which of the following are protein synthesis inhibitors that targets...
24-hydroxylase activity is inhibited by calcitrol and stimulated by...
Prolactin:
Chloramphenicol: (Choose from the following)
Deactivated cAMP triggers protein kinase activity and the subsequent...
Glucagon is an antagonist for G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) that...
Which of the following are classes of anti-thyroid Rx?
Pituitary hormones are typically homodimeric glycoproteins and have an...
Thryotropin Releasing Hormone: (Choose from the following)
Which of the following are steps in thyroid hormone biosynthesis?
Growth Hormone Receptor:
Which of the following are true pertaining to oxytocin?
Which of the following are sulfonylureas?
Parathyroid hormones (PTH) reduces the formation of:
Which of the following are disorders of mineral homeostasis?
Calcitriol aids in the absorption and retention of Ca2+ and phosphate...
Which of the following are SERMS?
Which of the following are inhibitors of adrenocortical secretion?
Which of the following are "metabolic effects"?
Which of the following are thioureylenes?
Reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys are highly regulated by Vitamin...
Which of the following are anti-estrogens?
Antimicrobials: (Choose from the following)
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