A Quick Test On Pharmacotherapy Of HIT

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| By Caitlinb
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1. HIT can occur even if platelets do not fall below 100 x 10^9/L.

Explanation

In 20% of patients, platelets do not fall this much.

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About This Quiz
A Quick Test On Pharmacotherapy Of HIT - Quiz

Pharmacotherapy is just like therapy, but one uses pharmaceutical drugs. Patients with HIT are at high risk for thrombotic events and are mostly prescribed to undergo pharmacotherapy. As... see morea pharmacology student, what do you know about the process as a whole? Take up the quick quiz below on the pharmacotherapy of HIT topic and get to refresh your memory. All the best!
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2. IgG antibodies + thrombocytopenia + thromboembolism is:

Explanation

HITTS stands for Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia and Thrombosis Syndrome. This condition occurs when a person develops antibodies against heparin, a blood thinner, leading to low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) and the formation of blood clots (thromboembolism). The presence of IgG antibodies, along with the symptoms of thrombocytopenia and thromboembolism, suggests HITTS. Seroconversion refers to the change in antibody status from negative to positive, and isolated HIT refers to the development of thrombocytopenia without thromboembolism.

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3. IgG antibodies + thrombocytopenia without thromboembolic events are:

Explanation

Isolated HIT refers to the presence of thrombocytopenia without thromboembolic events in a patient who has developed IgG antibodies. This condition occurs as a result of an immune response to heparin, a medication used to prevent blood clotting. The antibodies formed can bind to platelets, leading to their destruction and causing a decrease in platelet count. However, in isolated HIT, there is no development of thromboembolic events, which are blood clots that can block blood vessels.

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4. If a patient has kidney failure, which is the best agent to use?

Explanation

Argatroban is the best agent to use in a patient with kidney failure. This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an anticoagulant in patients with renal impairment. It is metabolized by the liver, so it does not require renal excretion, making it a suitable choice for patients with kidney failure who may have impaired renal function. Lepirudin and fondaparinux, on the other hand, are primarily eliminated by the kidneys and may require dose adjustments or careful monitoring in patients with renal impairment.

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5. IgG antibodies to heparin-platelet factor 4 complexes but not thrombocytopenia is:

Explanation

Seroconversion refers to the process in which an individual's blood serum changes from being negative to positive for a specific antibody. In this case, the presence of IgG antibodies to heparin-platelet factor 4 complexes indicates a seroconversion, meaning that the individual has developed antibodies against these complexes. However, the absence of thrombocytopenia suggests that the individual does not have HIT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia) or HITTS (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis syndrome).

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6. If we suspect HIT, check the patient's serum for HIT antibodies, assess for thrombosis, and diagnose a patient with HIT; Which of the following should we do next?

Explanation

– No, spontaneous bleeding during HIT is uncommon
– Platelet transfusions could possible increase thrombotic risk

-LMWHs are relatively contraindicated in HIT

-Why not just use warfarin?
– Early on, warfarin increases the risk of thrombosis in acute HIT
causing limb gangrene and skin necrosis
– Delay initiation of warfarin until the platelet count has substantially
recovered (e.g. >150K)
– Overlap warfarin (doses 5 days (2 of which should be at a therapeutic INR)

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7. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing HIT?

Explanation

heparin duration > 4 days....platelet count fall typically begins between days 5-10, which thrombocytopenia usually reached by day 7-14; thus, each day of heparin use beyond day 5 and to day 14, increases the risk of HIT

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8. First, heparin binds to platelet factor 4 tetramers that are secreted by platelet, which form an antigenic complex.  What happens immediately after this?

Explanation

After heparin binds to platelet factor 4 tetramers, B lymphocytes generate IgG antibodies to the complex. These IgG antibodies then bind to the Fc receptors on platelet cell surfaces. This binding of IgG antibodies to the Fc receptors further activates the platelets, perpetuating platelet activation and promoting thrombin production.

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9. Which of the following is valid for HAT?

Explanation

HAT (Heparin-Associated Thrombocytopenia) is a condition characterized by a decrease in platelet count due to the use of heparin. The onset of HAT typically occurs within 4 days after starting heparin treatment. The platelet count in HAT is typically between 100-150. HAT has a higher incidence compared to HIT (Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia). The recovery time for HAT is shorter than with HIT. HAT is caused by direct drug-induced platelet aggregation, meaning that the heparin directly affects the platelets.

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10. Which of the following would help us diagnose HIT?

Explanation

Platelet counts falling below normal levels, a median platelet count of about 55x10^9/L, thrombocytopenia occurring 5-10 days after heparin exposure, and the presence of IgG antibodies to heparin-PF4 complexes are all indicators that can help diagnose HIT (Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia).

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HIT can occur even if platelets do not fall below 100 x 10^9/L.
IgG antibodies + thrombocytopenia + thromboembolism is:
IgG antibodies + thrombocytopenia without thromboembolic events are:
If a patient has kidney failure, which is the best agent to use?
IgG antibodies to heparin-platelet factor 4 complexes but not...
If we suspect HIT, check the patient's serum for HIT antibodies,...
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing HIT?
First, heparin binds to platelet factor 4 tetramers that are secreted...
Which of the following is valid for HAT?
Which of the following would help us diagnose HIT?
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