Medical Definition Of Pharmacology Quiz

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Medical Definition Of Pharmacology Quiz - Quiz

Medical practitioners have different ways of naming medications. There are some strict rules that should be followed when it comes to medication and this is based on the conditions one is suffering from and amounts to be administered may vary. Take this medical definition of pharmacology quiz and get to see what you know about medicine and their administration. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?

    • A.

      Flumazenil

    • B.

      Methylene blue

    • C.

      Deferoxamine

    • D.

      Alkalinize urine

    Correct Answer
    A. Flumazenil
    Explanation
    Flumazenil is the correct answer because it is a specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It works by competitively binding to the benzodiazepine receptor sites in the central nervous system, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Flumazenil is commonly used in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines used during anesthesia. Methylene blue is used as an antidote for methemoglobinemia, deferoxamine is used for iron poisoning, and alkalinizing urine is used to enhance the elimination of certain drugs.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

    • A.

      Naloxone

    • B.

      Nitrite

    • C.

      CaEDTA

    • D.

      Dialysis

    Correct Answer
    C. CaEDTA
    Explanation
    CaEDTA is the correct answer because it is a chelating agent that can bind to lead ions and form a stable complex, which can then be excreted from the body. Naloxone is an antidote for opioid overdose, nitrite is used for cyanide poisoning, and dialysis is a treatment for kidney failure, but none of these are effective in treating lead toxicity.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

    • A.

      Kidney

    • B.

      Liver

    • C.

      Blood

    • D.

      Heart

    Correct Answer
    B. Liver
    Explanation
    Warfarin is primarily metabolized by the liver, specifically through the cytochrome P450 enzyme system. This system plays a crucial role in the metabolism and elimination of many drugs from the body. The liver is responsible for breaking down and converting warfarin into its active form, allowing it to exert its anticoagulant effects. Therefore, the liver is the primary site of activity for warfarin.

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  • 4. 

    Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

    • A.

      Gastritis

    • B.

      Peptic Ulcers

    • C.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

    • D.

      Thalamus hypertrophy

    Correct Answer
    D. Thalamus hypertrophy
    Explanation
    Lansoprazole is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs known as proton pump inhibitors. It is primarily used to treat conditions such as gastritis and peptic ulcers, which are related to the stomach and gastrointestinal system. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a rare condition that causes the stomach to produce too much acid, and lansoprazole is also used in its treatment. Thalamus hypertrophy, on the other hand, refers to an enlargement of the thalamus, which is a part of the brain. Lansoprazole is not used in the treatment of thalamus hypertrophy as it is unrelated to the stomach or gastrointestinal system.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

    • A.

      Valproic acid

    • B.

      Quinidine

    • C.

      Isoniazid

    • D.

      Ethosuximide

    Correct Answer
    B. Quinidine
    Explanation
    Cinchonism is a condition caused by the use of drugs that contain quinine-like compounds, such as quinidine. Symptoms of cinchonism include tinnitus, headache, dizziness, nausea, and visual disturbances. Quinidine is commonly used to treat certain heart rhythm disorders, but it can cause cinchonism as a side effect. Valproic acid is an anticonvulsant, isoniazid is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, and ethosuximide is an anticonvulsant used to treat absence seizures. None of these drugs are associated with the reaction of cinchonism.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

    • A.

      Valproic acid

    • B.

      Quinidine

    • C.

      Isoniazid

    • D.

      Ethosuximide

    Correct Answer
    C. Isoniazid
    Explanation
    Isoniazid is associated with the reaction of hepatitis. Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver, and isoniazid has been known to cause liver damage as a side effect. Regular monitoring of liver function is necessary for patients taking isoniazid to detect any signs of hepatitis. Valproic acid, quinidine, and ethosuximide are not typically associated with the reaction of hepatitis.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome? 

    • A.

      Valproic acid

    • B.

      Quinidine

    • C.

      Isoniazid

    • D.

      Ethosuximide

    Correct Answer
    D. Ethosuximide
    Explanation
    Ethosuximide is the correct answer because it has been associated with the development of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin condition that causes a painful rash, blisters, and peeling of the skin. It is often triggered by an adverse drug reaction. While other drugs listed in the options may have their own side effects, Ethosuximide is specifically known to be associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

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  • 8. 

     Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dysfunction?

    • A.

      Digitalis

    • B.

      Niacin

    • C.

      Tetracycline

    • D.

      Fluoroquinolones

    Correct Answer
    D. Fluoroquinolones
    Explanation
    Fluoroquinolones are a class of antibiotics that have been associated with the adverse reaction of tendon dysfunction. This can include symptoms such as tendonitis or even tendon rupture. The mechanism behind this reaction is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the drug's effect on collagen synthesis and the weakening of tendons. Therefore, fluoroquinolones should be used with caution in patients who may be at increased risk for tendon dysfunction, such as the elderly or those with a history of tendon disorders.

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  • 9. 

    A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

    • A.

      H

    • B.

      ACE inhibitor

    • C.

      Antifungal

    • D.

      Beta agonist

    Correct Answer
    B. ACE inhibitor
    Explanation
    A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. They work by blocking the action of an enzyme called angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which helps to relax blood vessels and reduce the workload on the heart. By inhibiting ACE, these drugs help to lower blood pressure and improve heart function. Examples of ACE inhibitors include lisinopril, enalapril, and ramipril.

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  • 10. 

    A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

    • A.

      H

    • B.

      ACE inhibitor

    • C.

      Antifungal

    • D.

      Beta agonist

    Correct Answer
    C. Antifungal
    Explanation
    A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered an antifungal because the suffix (azole) is commonly used to indicate drugs that are used to treat fungal infections. These drugs work by inhibiting the growth and reproduction of fungi, helping to eliminate the infection. Examples of antifungal drugs include fluconazole, ketoconazole, and miconazole.

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  • 11. 

    A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

    • A.

      Antidepressant

    • B.

      Protease inhibitor

    • C.

      Beta antagonist

    • D.

      H2 antagonist

    Correct Answer
    D. H2 antagonist
    Explanation
    A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered an H2 antagonist. The suffix "-tidine" is commonly used to indicate drugs that belong to the H2 antagonist class. H2 antagonists are medications that block the action of histamine on the H2 receptors in the stomach, thereby reducing the production of stomach acid. These drugs are commonly used to treat conditions such as gastric ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and excessive stomach acid production.

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  • 12. 

    A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______. 

    • A.

      Antidepressant

    • B.

      Protease inhibitor

    • C.

      Beta antagonist

    • D.

      H2 antagonist

    Correct Answer
    B. Protease inhibitor
    Explanation
    A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a protease inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are a class of drugs that inhibit the activity of proteases, which are enzymes involved in various biological processes. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of viral infections, particularly HIV, as they can prevent the replication of the virus by inhibiting the protease enzyme necessary for viral maturation. The suffix (navir) is often used to indicate drugs belonging to the protease inhibitor class.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?

    • A.

      Digitalis

    • B.

      Niacin

    • C.

      Tetracycline

    • D.

      Fluoroquinolones

    Correct Answer
    C. Tetracycline
    Explanation
    Tetracycline is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity. This means that individuals taking tetracycline may experience an exaggerated sensitivity to sunlight or other sources of ultraviolet (UV) light. This can result in severe sunburns or rashes when exposed to even small amounts of sunlight. It is important for individuals taking tetracycline to take precautions such as wearing protective clothing and sunscreen to minimize the risk of photosensitivity reactions.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

    • A.

      Cataracts

    • B.

      Hypotension

    • C.

      Psychosis

    • D.

      Acne

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypotension
    Explanation
    Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication used to treat various conditions, including inflammation and immune system disorders. Drug toxicity refers to the harmful effects caused by excessive or prolonged use of a drug. Cataracts, psychosis, and acne are known side effects of Prednisone, indicating a potential drug toxicity. However, hypotension, which refers to low blood pressure, is not typically associated with Prednisone toxicity. Therefore, hypotension is not related to drug toxicity of Prednisone.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

    • A.

      CHF

    • B.

      Tachycardia

    • C.

      AV block

    • D.

      Sedative appearance

    Correct Answer
    B. Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Atenolol is a beta blocker medication commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and heart disease. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, which leads to a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, which is a condition characterized by an abnormally fast heart rate. In fact, one of the main effects of atenolol is to slow down the heart rate. Therefore, tachycardia is not related to a drug toxicity of atenolol.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

    • A.

      Mexiletine

    • B.

      Disopyramide

    • C.

      Quinidine

    • D.

      Procainamide

    Correct Answer
    B. Disopyramide
    Explanation
    Disopyramide is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker. Class IA drugs block sodium channels and prolong the action potential duration. Disopyramide specifically blocks sodium channels in cardiac tissue, which helps to decrease the excitability of cardiac cells and slow down conduction. Mexiletine is a class IB Sodium Channel blocker, Quinidine is a class IA Sodium Channel blocker, and Procainamide is also a class IA Sodium Channel blocker.

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  • 17. 

     Which of the following is considered a class III Potassium Channel blocker?

    • A.

      Propafenone

    • B.

      Disopyramide

    • C.

      Aminodarone

    • D.

      Quinidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Propafenone
    Explanation
    Propafenone is considered a class III Potassium Channel blocker. This drug works by blocking the potassium channels in the heart, which prolongs the action potential duration and refractory period. This helps in preventing abnormal electrical signals and arrhythmias. Class III antiarrhythmic drugs, such as propafenone, are commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and other cardiac arrhythmias. Disopyramide, aminodarone, and quinidine are also antiarrhythmic drugs, but they belong to different classes.

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  • 18. 

    Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.

    • A.

      Proximal convoluted tubule

    • B.

      Loop of Henle

    • C.

      Collecting duct

    • D.

      Distal convoluted tubule

    Correct Answer
    D. Distal convoluted tubule
    Explanation
    Potassium sparing diuretics primarily affect the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. These diuretics work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and reducing the secretion of potassium in this part of the nephron. By doing so, they increase the excretion of sodium and water while sparing potassium from being excreted. This helps to maintain a balance of electrolytes in the body and can be useful in conditions such as hypertension and heart failure.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin? 

    • A.

      Headaches

    • B.

      Tachycardia

    • C.

      Dizziness

    • D.

      Projectile vomiting

    Correct Answer
    D. Projectile vomiting
    Explanation
    Projectile vomiting is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is a medication used to treat angina and heart conditions. Its common side effects include headaches, tachycardia (rapid heartbeat), and dizziness. Projectile vomiting, on the other hand, is not typically associated with Nitroglycerin use and may be indicative of another underlying condition or reaction to a different substance.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

    • A.

      Nausea

    • B.

      Renal dysfunction

    • C.

      Anemia

    • D.

      Muscle wasting

    Correct Answer
    D. Muscle wasting
    Explanation
    Muscle wasting is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used to relieve pain and reduce inflammation. Its side effects can include nausea, renal dysfunction, and anemia, but muscle wasting is not typically associated with Ibuprofen toxicity. Muscle wasting is more commonly seen in conditions such as muscular dystrophy, malnutrition, or prolonged immobilization.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)?

    • A.

      Increased pulse

    • B.

      Urinary incontinence

    • C.

      Constipation

    • D.

      Mydriasis

    Correct Answer
    B. Urinary incontinence
    Explanation
    Atropine, a cholinoreceptor blocker, is known to have various side effects. Increased pulse, constipation, and mydriasis (dilation of the pupil) are all common side effects of Atropine. However, urinary incontinence is not typically associated with the use of Atropine. Therefore, urinary incontinence is not a side effect of Atropine.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)?

    • A.

      Rash

    • B.

      Angioedema

    • C.

      Cough

    • D.

      Congestion

    Correct Answer
    D. Congestion
    Explanation
    Congestion is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril). Ace inhibitors are commonly prescribed to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. They work by relaxing blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. However, some common side effects of Ace inhibitors include rash, angioedema (swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat), and cough. Congestion is not typically associated with the use of Ace inhibitors.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)? 

    • A.

      Nausea

    • B.

      Flush appearance

    • C.

      Vertigo

    • D.

      Sexual dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    D. Sexual dysfunction
    Explanation
    Nifedipine is a vasodilator commonly used to treat high blood pressure and angina. It works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, which can lead to several side effects. Nausea, flush appearance, and vertigo are known side effects of nifedipine due to its vasodilating properties. However, sexual dysfunction is not a recognized side effect of nifedipine. This medication is not typically associated with impairing sexual function or causing sexual dysfunction in patients.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not a side effect of the Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?

    • A.

      Hypertension

    • B.

      Asthma

    • C.

      Dry oral cavity

    • D.

      Lethargic behavior

    Correct Answer
    B. Asthma
    Explanation
    Sympathoplegics (Clonidine) are a class of drugs that work by inhibiting the sympathetic nervous system. They are commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the side effects of sympathoplegics is dry oral cavity, which can cause discomfort and increased risk of oral health issues. Another side effect is lethargic behavior, which can cause drowsiness and fatigue. However, asthma is not a side effect of sympathoplegics. In fact, sympathoplegics can be used to treat asthma by relaxing the airways and reducing bronchoconstriction.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not a side effect of the Diuretics (Loop diuretics)?

    • A.

      Alkalosis

    • B.

      Nausea

    • C.

      Hypotension

    • D.

      Potassium deficits

    Correct Answer
    B. Nausea
    Explanation
    Loop diuretics are medications that help increase urine production and promote the excretion of excess fluids from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. One of the side effects of loop diuretics is alkalosis, which is an increase in blood pH. This occurs because loop diuretics can cause excessive loss of bicarbonate ions in the urine. Another side effect is hypotension, which is low blood pressure. Loop diuretics work by increasing urine output, which can lead to a decrease in blood volume and subsequently lower blood pressure. Potassium deficits are also a side effect of loop diuretics, as they can cause increased excretion of potassium in the urine. However, nausea is not typically associated with the use of loop diuretics.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Isoflurane)?

    • A.

      Elevated lipid levels

    • B.

      Nausea

    • C.

      Increased blood flow to the brain.

    • D.

      Decreased respiratory function

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated lipid levels
    Explanation
    Isoflurane is a commonly used inhalation anesthetic that affects the central nervous system. It is known to cause various effects such as nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. However, elevated lipid levels are not one of the effects of isoflurane. This means that the drug does not have an impact on increasing lipid levels in the body.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Midazolam)? 

    • A.

      Amnesia

    • B.

      Decreased respiratory function

    • C.

      Dizziness

    Correct Answer
    C. Dizziness
    Explanation
    Dizziness is not an effect of the drug Midazolam. Midazolam is a sedative medication commonly used for anesthesia and to treat anxiety or insomnia. It works by depressing the central nervous system, causing sedation, relaxation, and amnesia. However, it is not known to cause dizziness as a side effect.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Clozapine)?

    • A.

      Agranulocytosis

    • B.

      Antipsychotic

    • C.

      Used for Schizophrenia

    • D.

      Increased appetite

    Correct Answer
    D. Increased appetite
    Explanation
    Clozapine is an antipsychotic drug used for treating schizophrenia. One of the side effects of this drug is agranulocytosis, which is a condition characterized by a low level of white blood cells, making the body more susceptible to infections. However, increased appetite is not an effect of clozapine.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not treated with (Epinephrine)?

    • A.

      Renal disease

    • B.

      Asthma

    • C.

      Hypotension

    • D.

      Glaucoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal disease
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is a medication that is commonly used to treat conditions such as asthma, hypotension (low blood pressure), and glaucoma. However, it is not used to treat renal disease. Renal disease refers to any condition that affects the kidneys, and the treatment for this usually involves managing the underlying cause of the disease and potentially using medications to control symptoms or complications. Epinephrine is not typically used in the treatment of renal disease as it does not directly address the issues related to kidney function.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is not treated with (Ephedrine)?

    • A.

      COPD

    • B.

      Hypotension

    • C.

      Congestion

    • D.

      Incontinence

    Correct Answer
    A. COPD
    Explanation
    COPD is not treated with Ephedrine. Ephedrine is a medication that is commonly used to treat hypotension (low blood pressure), congestion, and incontinence. However, it is not typically used for the treatment of COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), which is a chronic lung disease characterized by airflow limitation and breathing difficulties. Other medications, such as bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, are usually prescribed for managing COPD symptoms.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following are not treated with Barbiturates?

    • A.

      Seizures

    • B.

      Hypotension

    • C.

      Insomnia

    • D.

      Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypotension
    Explanation
    Barbiturates are a type of medication that act as central nervous system depressants. They are commonly used to treat seizures, insomnia, and anxiety. However, they are not typically used to treat hypotension, which is low blood pressure. Barbiturates can actually lower blood pressure even further, so they are not recommended for this condition.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following are not treated with opoid analgesics like (dextromethorphan and methadone)?

    • A.

      Pulmonary Edema

    • B.

      Cough suppression

    • C.

      Sedation

    • D.

      Pain

    Correct Answer
    C. Sedation
    Explanation
    Sedation is not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone. Opioid analgesics are primarily used for pain relief, cough suppression, and treatment of pulmonary edema. Sedation, on the other hand, is typically managed with sedative medications such as benzodiazepines or barbiturates.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following are not treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?

    • A.

      CHF

    • B.

      HTN

    • C.

      Nephritis

    • D.

      Hypercalciuria

    Correct Answer
    C. Nephritis
    Explanation
    Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension (HTN) and congestive heart failure (CHF). It works by increasing the amount of urine produced, which helps to lower blood pressure and reduce fluid buildup. However, hydrochlorothiazide is not typically used to treat nephritis, which is inflammation of the kidneys. Nephritis usually requires other specific treatments, such as immunosuppressive medications or antibiotics, depending on the underlying cause. Hypercalciuria, which is the presence of high levels of calcium in the urine, can be treated with hydrochlorothiazide as it helps to reduce calcium excretion.

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  • 34. 

     Which of the following are not treated with Nifedipine?

    • A.

      Angina

    • B.

      Arrhythmias

    • C.

      HTN

    • D.

      Fluid retention

    Correct Answer
    D. Fluid retention
    Explanation
    Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat conditions such as angina, arrhythmias, and hypertension. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and reducing the workload on the heart. However, fluid retention is not typically treated with Nifedipine. Instead, diuretics are commonly prescribed to help reduce fluid buildup in the body. Therefore, fluid retention is not treated with Nifedipine.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following are not treated with Methotrexate?

    • A.

      Sarcomas

    • B.

      Leukemias

    • C.

      Ectopic pregnancy

    • D.

      Rheumatic fever

    Correct Answer
    D. Rheumatic fever
    Explanation
    Methotrexate is a medication commonly used to treat certain types of cancer, such as sarcomas and leukemias. It is also used to treat ectopic pregnancies, which occur when a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus. However, Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever, which is an inflammatory condition affecting the joints, heart, and other organs. Rheumatic fever is usually managed with other medications, such as antibiotics and anti-inflammatory drugs.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone?

    • A.

      Cushing's disease

    • B.

      Testicular cancer

    • C.

      Lympthomas

    • D.

      Chronic leukemias

    Correct Answer
    B. Testicular cancer
    Explanation
    Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication commonly used to treat various inflammatory conditions and autoimmune disorders. However, it is not typically used in the treatment of testicular cancer. Testicular cancer is usually managed with surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, or a combination of these approaches. Prednisone may be used in some cases to manage symptoms related to cancer treatment, such as inflammation or allergic reactions, but it is not a primary treatment for testicular cancer itself.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following are not treated with Dexamethasone?

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Asthma

    • C.

      Addison's disease

    • D.

      Wilson's disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Wilson's disease
    Explanation
    Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid that is commonly used to treat inflammation and autoimmune conditions such as asthma and Addison's disease. However, it is not used to treat Wilson's disease. Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder that causes copper to accumulate in the body, leading to liver and neurological problems. The treatment for Wilson's disease typically involves medications that help remove excess copper from the body, such as chelating agents or zinc supplements. Dexamethasone does not have any specific effect on copper metabolism and therefore is not used in the treatment of Wilson's disease.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following are not treated with Lansoprazole?

    • A.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

    • B.

      Gastritis

    • C.

      Hypertension

    • D.

      Reflux

    Correct Answer
    C. Hypertension
    Explanation
    Lansoprazole is a medication used to treat conditions related to excessive stomach acid production. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, gastritis, and reflux are all conditions that can be caused or worsened by excessive stomach acid, and therefore can be treated with Lansoprazole. However, hypertension is not related to stomach acid production, and therefore is not treated with Lansoprazole.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin?

    • A.

      Protamine

    • B.

      Methylene blue

    • C.

      N-acetylcysteine

    • D.

      Glucagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Protamine
    Explanation
    Protamine is the correct answer because it is a medication used as an antidote for heparin, a blood thinner. Heparin is commonly used to prevent blood clots, but in some cases, it can lead to excessive bleeding. Protamine works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its effects, allowing the blood to clot normally again. It is commonly used in emergency situations where heparin needs to be reversed quickly, such as in cases of overdose or when a patient needs urgent surgery.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Copper?

    • A.

      Glucagon

    • B.

      Aminocaproic acid

    • C.

      Atropine

    • D.

      Penicillamine

    Correct Answer
    D. Penicillamine
    Explanation
    Penicillamine is the correct answer as it is known to be an effective antidote for copper toxicity. It works by binding to excess copper in the body and forming a stable complex that can be excreted. This helps to reduce the toxic effects of copper and restore normal copper levels in the body. Glucagon, aminocaproic acid, and atropine are not specifically used as antidotes for copper toxicity.

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