Test Your Knowledge On Pharmacology

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  • 1/70 Questions

    A 75 yo man who was a smoker is diagnosed with COPD and suffers from occasional bronchospasm. Which of the following would be effective in treating him?

    • Ipratropium aerosol
    • Scopolamine patches
    • Nicotine
    • Oxygen
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  • 2. 

    Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a similar manner similar to epinephrine.  Drug X is considered to be a

    • Agonist

    • Partial agonist

    • Competitive antagonist

    • Irreverisble antagonist

    • Inverse agonist

    Correct Answer
    A. Agonist
    Explanation
    An agonist mimics actions of endogenous ligand. A partial agonist would only produce a partial effect. An antagonist would block or decrease its effects. An inverse agonist would reverse the constiutive activity of the receptors and exert the opposite pharmacologicla effect of receptor agonists.

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  • 3. 

    Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine.  Drug X is considered to be a

    • Partial agonist

    • Agonist

    • Irreverisble antagonist

    • Inverse agonist

    • Competitive antagnist

    Correct Answer
    A. Agonist
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle similar to epinephrine. An agonist is a substance that activates a receptor and produces a biological response. Since Drug X produces a similar effect to epinephrine, which is known to be an agonist, Drug X is also considered to be an agonist.

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  • 4. 

    A 38 yo male has recently started monotherapy for mild hypertension.  At his most recent visit he complains of tiredness and not being able to complete three sets of tennis.  Which one of the following drugs is he most likely to be taking for hypertension?

    • Atenolol

    • Ephedrine

    • Phentolamine

    • Prazosin

    Correct Answer
    A. Atenolol
    Explanation
    The most likely drug that the 38-year-old male is taking for hypertension is atenolol. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat high blood pressure. One of the side effects of beta-blockers is fatigue or tiredness, which could explain the patient's complaint of feeling tired. Additionally, beta-blockers can also cause a decrease in exercise tolerance, which could explain why the patient is unable to complete three sets of tennis. Therefore, atenolol is the most likely drug that the patient is taking for his hypertension.

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  • 5. 

    CJis having convulsions due to alcohol poisoning.  It is important that a quick therapeutic response is obtained with anticonvulsant medications.  Whch of the following routes of admin would provide the fastest therapeutic response?

    • Topical route

    • Transdermal

    • Subq

    • IV

    • Oral route

    Correct Answer
    A. IV
    Explanation
    The intravenous (IV) route would provide the fastest therapeutic response in this situation. When a medication is administered intravenously, it is directly delivered into the bloodstream, allowing for rapid absorption and distribution throughout the body. This is especially important in cases of alcohol poisoning with convulsions, as prompt administration of anticonvulsant medications can help control seizures and prevent further complications. Topical, transdermal, subcutaneous, and oral routes would not provide the same level of immediate response as the IV route.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of a drug?

    • Tripling the rate of infusion

    • Quadrupling the rate of infusion

    • Doubling the rate of infusion

    • Doubling the rate of infusion and doubling the concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Doubling the rate of infusion
    Explanation
    Doubling the rate of infusion results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of a drug. This is because the steady state concentration of a drug is directly proportional to the rate of infusion. When the rate of infusion is doubled, more of the drug is being administered into the body per unit of time, leading to an increase in the steady state concentration of the drug.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

    • The para system often discharges as a single, functional system

    • The para system is involved in accomodation of near vision, movement of food and urination.

    • The postganglionic fibers of the para division are long compared to those of the sympathetic nervous system

    • The para system controls the secretion of the adrenal medulla

    • The para system uses norepi as a neurotransmitter

    Correct Answer
    A. The para system is involved in accomodation of near vision, movement of food and urination.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the parasympathetic nervous system is involved in the accommodation of near vision, movement of food, and urination. This is because the parasympathetic system is responsible for rest and digest functions, which include controlling the contraction of the ciliary muscle for near vision accommodation, stimulating peristalsis for movement of food through the digestive system, and promoting the relaxation of the urinary bladder for urination.

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  • 8. 

    Remedies for nasal stuffiness contain which of the following

    • Epinephrine

    • Phenylephrine

    • Norepi

    • Atropine

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenylephrine
    Explanation
    Phenylephrine is a common ingredient in remedies for nasal stuffiness. It is a decongestant that works by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. This helps to relieve nasal stuffiness and improve breathing. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are also decongestants, but they are not typically used in nasal decongestant remedies. Atropine is not a decongestant and is used for other medical purposes. Therefore, phenylephrine is the correct answer for remedies for nasal stuffiness.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the folllowing is correct?

    • Variation in response to a drug among different individuals is most likely to occur with a drug showing a large TI

    • The greater the efficacy, the greater the potency of a drug

    • A competitive antagonist increases the ED50

    • In selecting a drug, potency is usually more important than efficacy

    Correct Answer
    A. A competitive antagonist increases the ED50
    Explanation
    A competitive antagonist increases the ED50. A competitive antagonist is a substance that competes with an agonist for binding to the same receptor site, thereby reducing the effectiveness of the agonist. By blocking the receptor, the antagonist increases the concentration of the agonist needed to produce a response, resulting in an increase in the effective dose (ED50) of the agonist. This means that a higher dose of the agonist is required to achieve the same effect in the presence of a competitive antagonist.

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  • 10. 

    A soldiers unit is under attack of a nerve agent.  The symptoms exhibited are skeletal muscle paralysis, profuse bronchial secretions, miosis, bradycardia and convulsions.  The alarm indicates exposure to an organophosphate.  What is the correct treatment?

    • Administer pralidoxime

    • Administer atropine, and attempt to confirm the nature of the nerve agent

    • Adminsiter atropine and 2-PAM (praloxidime)

    • Do nothing until you confirm

    Correct Answer
    A. Adminsiter atropine and 2-PAM (praloxidime)
    Explanation
    The correct treatment for exposure to an organophosphate nerve agent is to administer atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime). Atropine helps to counteract the symptoms by blocking the effects of excessive acetylcholine in the body, while 2-PAM (pralidoxime) helps to reactivate the enzyme that breaks down the nerve agent. This combination of medications can help to alleviate the symptoms and improve the patient's condition. It is important to administer these treatments promptly to prevent further complications and minimize the effects of the nerve agent.

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  • 11. 

    Prolonged apnea seen in patients in which succinylcholine was used as a muscle relaxant has been shown to be due to 

    • Weak histamine releasing action

    • Depressed levels of plasma cholinesterase

    • A mutaiton in aceylcholine

    • Urinary atony

    Correct Answer
    A. Depressed levels of plasma cholinesterase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "depressed levels of plasma cholinesterase." Prolonged apnea in patients who received succinylcholine as a muscle relaxant is attributed to decreased levels of plasma cholinesterase. Succinylcholine is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase, and if the levels of this enzyme are reduced, the drug is not adequately broken down, leading to prolonged effects and potential respiratory paralysis.

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  • 12. 

    Patient BT presents with hypotension, rapid breathing, weak pulse pale skin and decreased urinary output.  It was determined that he was suffering from cardiogenic shock.  Which of the following agetns can be used?

    • Dopamine

    • Albuterol

    • Oxymetazoline

    • Pseudophredrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dopamine
    Explanation
    Dopamine can be used as a treatment for cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. Dopamine is a medication that can increase the heart's pumping strength and improve blood flow. It can help to increase blood pressure, improve urine output, and restore perfusion to vital organs. Therefore, dopamine is a suitable agent for treating the symptoms presented by patient BT.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation?

    • Contraction of the sphincter of the urinary bladder

    • Increase in heart rate

    • Inhibition of bronchial secretion

    • Decrease in intestinal motility

    • Contraction of sphincter muscle in the iris of the eye (miosis)

    Correct Answer
    A. Contraction of sphincter muscle in the iris of the eye (miosis)
    Explanation
    Parasympathetic stimulation is known for its role in promoting rest and relaxation in the body. One characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation is the contraction of the sphincter muscle in the iris of the eye, which leads to miosis or constriction of the pupil. This response helps to reduce the amount of light entering the eye, allowing for better focus on nearby objects. The other options listed, such as contraction of the sphincter of the urinary bladder, inhibition of bronchial secretion, decrease in intestinal motility, and increase in heart rate, are all characteristics of sympathetic stimulation, which is associated with the "fight or flight" response.

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  • 14. 

    BN developed an anaphylactic reaction to shellfish eating out.  An immediate antidote is required to counteract the allergen.  Which of the following can be used?

    • Norepi

    • Epi

    • Dopamine

    • Phenylephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Epi
    Explanation
    An anaphylactic reaction is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. In this scenario, the person developed an anaphylactic reaction after eating shellfish. The immediate antidote required to counteract the allergen is epinephrine (also known as adrenaline). Epinephrine is the most effective medication for treating anaphylaxis as it helps to relax the muscles in the airways, improve breathing, and reduce swelling and hives. Norepinephrine, dopamine, and phenylephrine are not commonly used for treating anaphylaxis and are not as effective as epinephrine in this situation.

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  • 15. 

    Patient presents with salivation, lacrimation, urination and defecation as side effects of a medication.  Which one of the following receptors mediates the actions of this drug?

    • Nicotoinic receptors

    • Alpha receptors

    • Muscarinic receptors

    • Beta receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscarinic receptors
    Explanation
    Muscarinic receptors of the PNS maintain essential body functions such as digestion and waste elimination. THe nicotinic receptors are recetpors for acetylcholline!!! It plays a major role in skeletal muscle, ganglia, etc. alpha and beta are recetpors for norepi and eli and activation of these receptors does not produce these effects.

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  • 16. 

    Drug used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

    • Edrophonium

    • Atropine

    • Bethanechol

    • Aceylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Edrophonium
    Explanation
    Edrophonium is a drug used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction and leads to muscle weakness and fatigue. Edrophonium is a short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor that temporarily improves muscle strength in individuals with myasthenia gravis. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, the neurotransmitter responsible for muscle contraction. By temporarily increasing acetylcholine levels, edrophonium can help confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis by improving muscle strength in affected individuals. Atropine, bethanechol, and acetylcholine are not commonly used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.

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  • 17. 

    A 75 year old man who was a smoker is diagnosed with COPD and suffers from occasional bronchospasm.  Which of the following would be effective in treating him?

    • Ipratropium bromide

    • Scopolamine patches

    • Mecamylamine

    • Oxygen

    • Nicotine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ipratropium bromide
    Explanation
    This is the drug of choice, especially in a patient who can not tolerate an adrenergic agonist, which would dilate the bronchioles. Oxygen would improve aeration but not dilation.

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  • 18. 

    KB wants to go on a cruise.  To prevent motion sickness he can take

    • Scopolamine

    • Nicotine

    • Tropicamide

    • Succinylcholine

    Correct Answer
    A. Scopolamine
    Explanation
    Scopolamine is a medication commonly used to prevent motion sickness. It works by blocking certain signals in the brain that are responsible for causing nausea and vomiting. By taking scopolamine, KB can reduce the chances of experiencing motion sickness while on the cruise. Nicotine, tropicamide, and succinylcholine are not typically used for motion sickness prevention.

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  • 19. 

    A 60 yo asthmatic comes in with  diffitulty starting to urinate.  PE reveals BP of 160/100 and a slightly enlarged prostate.  Which of the following meds can be used for both conditions?

    • Doxazosin

    • Isoproterenol

    • Labetalol

    • Propranolol

    • Phentolamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Doxazosin
    Explanation
    Doxazosin is the correct answer because it is an alpha-1 blocker that can be used to treat both hypertension and symptoms of an enlarged prostate. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the prostate and the bladder neck, making it easier to urinate. Additionally, by blocking alpha-1 receptors on blood vessels, it lowers blood pressure. Isoproterenol, labetalol, propranolol, and phentolamine are not indicated for the treatment of an enlarged prostate.

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  • 20. 

    A patient with an acute attack of glaucoma is treated with pilocarpine.  The primary reason for its effectiveness for this condition is:

    • Action to terminate acetylcholinesterase

    • Selectivity for nicotinic receptors

    • Ability to inhibit secretions, such as tears, saliva and sweat

    • Ability to lower intraocular pressure

    • Inability to enter the brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to lower intraocular pressure
    Explanation
    Pilocarpine can abort an acute attack of glaucoma because it causes pupillary constriction to lower intraocular pressure. It binds mainly to muscarinic receptors and can enter the brain. It is NOT effective in inhibiting secretions.

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  • 21. 

    Which one of the following can PRECIPITATE an attack of open angle glaucoma if instilled in the eye?

    • Tropicamide

    • Atropine

    • Pilocarpine

    • Echothiophate

    • Physostigmine

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine
    Explanation
    Atropine can precipitate an attack of open-angle glaucoma if instilled in the eye. Open-angle glaucoma is caused by a blockage in the drainage system of the eye, leading to increased intraocular pressure. Atropine is a medication that dilates the pupil and relaxes the muscles of the eye, which can further obstruct the drainage system and increase intraocular pressure. This can trigger an attack of open-angle glaucoma and worsen the condition. Therefore, atropine should be used with caution in individuals with glaucoma.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is for the SNS?

    • Actions mediated by muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

    • Effects only mediated by norepi

    • Discrete response to activation

    • Responses predominate during physical activity or when experiencing fright

    • Subjected to voluntary control

    Correct Answer
    A. Responses predominate during physical activity or when experiencing fright
    Explanation
    This answer refers to the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). The SNS is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, which is activated during physical activity or when experiencing fear or fright. This response includes increased heart rate, dilation of blood vessels, and release of adrenaline, among other physiological changes.

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  • 23. 

    The drug of choice for treating decreased salivation accompanying head and neck irradiation is 

    • Scopolamine

    • Acetylcholine

    • Physostigmine

    • Carbachol

    • Pilocarpine

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilocarpine
    Explanation
    Pilocarpine is the drug of choice for treating decreased salivation accompanying head and neck irradiation. Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist that works by stimulating the muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands, increasing the production of saliva. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of dry mouth caused by radiation therapy. Scopolamine, acetylcholine, physostigmine, and carbachol are not typically used for this purpose.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of the drug?

    • Doubling the rate of infusion

    • Maintaining the rate of infusion but doubling the loading dose

    • Doubling the rate of infusion and doubling the concentration of the infused drug

    • Tripling the rate of infusion

    • Quadrupling the rate of infusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Doubling the rate of infusion
    Explanation
    steady state is directly proportional to the infusion rate. INcreasing the loading dose provides a transient increase in drug level, but the steady state level remains unchanged. If you would double the rate and concnetration of infused drug you would quadruple the steady state drug concentration. Tripling or quadrupling the rate of infusion leads to either a 3 or 4 increase in the steady state concentration.

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  • 25. 

    Which one of the following is characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation?

    • Decrease in intestinal motility

    • Inhibition of bronchial secretion

    • Contraction of sphincter muscle in the iris of the eye (miosis)

    • Contraction of sphincter of urinary bladder

    • Increase in heart rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Contraction of sphincter muscle in the iris of the eye (miosis)
    Explanation
    PNS also does digestion and waste removal. Increase in heart rate is sympathetic nervous system. increased intestinal motility to facilitate peristalsis, relaxation of ruinary sphincter and increased bronchial secretions.

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  • 26. 

    Variation in the sensitivity of a population of individuals to increasing doses of a drug is best determined by which of the following?

    • Therpeutic index

    • Quantal dose response curve

    • Efficacy

    • Potency

    • Graded dose response curve

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantal dose response curve
    Explanation
    The quantal dose response curve is the best way to determine the variation in sensitivity of a population to increasing doses of a drug. This curve analyzes the proportion of individuals in a population that exhibit a specific response to different doses of a drug. By plotting the dose on the x-axis and the response on the y-axis, it allows for the identification of the threshold dose, the effective dose, and the lethal dose for a particular response. This curve provides valuable information about the range of responses within a population, helping to assess the sensitivity variations to the drug.

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  • 27. 

    Which one of the following drugs, when administered IV, can decreased blood flow to the skin, increase blood flow to skeletal muscle and increase the force and rate of cardiac contraction?

    • Phenylephrine

    • Isoproterenol

    • Norepi

    • Epi

    Correct Answer
    A. Epi
    Explanation
    Epinephrine (epi) is the correct answer because it is a sympathomimetic drug that acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. When administered intravenously, epinephrine causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin, leading to decreased blood flow to the skin. It also causes vasodilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscle, increasing blood flow to skeletal muscle. Additionally, epinephrine stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, increasing the force and rate of cardiac contraction.

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  • 28. 

    Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers are associated with all of the following except

    • Effects are reversed by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

    • Intermediate to long duration of action

    • Bind but do not activate Ach receptor

    • Initial activation of ACh receptor and depolarization of the motor end plate

    • Most of these agents have minimal cardiovascular effects

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial activation of ACh receptor and depolarization of the motor end plate
    Explanation
    Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers are drugs that bind to the acetylcholine receptors but do not activate them, leading to muscle relaxation. They have an intermediate to long duration of action and their effects can be reversed by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. Most of these agents have minimal cardiovascular effects. However, they do not cause initial activation of ACh receptor and depolarization of the motor end plate, which is the correct answer.

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  • 29. 

    A 68 comes to ED with acute heart failure.  The patient requires immediate therapy.  Which of the following can be used?

    • Albuterl

    • Phenylephrine

    • Epi

    • Dobutamine

    • Norepi

    Correct Answer
    A. Dobutamine
    Explanation
    Dobutamine can be used in the case of acute heart failure because it is a medication that stimulates the heart and increases its pumping ability. This can help improve cardiac output and relieve symptoms of heart failure. Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for asthma and not indicated for heart failure. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor used for nasal congestion and not appropriate for heart failure. Epi (epinephrine) is a medication used for severe allergic reactions and cardiac arrest, but not typically used for heart failure. Norepi (norepinephrine) is a medication used for low blood pressure, but not commonly used for heart failure.

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  • 30. 

    A drug given as a 100 mg single dose results in a peak plasma concentration of 20 ug/mL.  The apparent volume of distribution is (assume a rapid distribution and negligible elimination prior to measuring the peak plasma level):  

    • 0.5 L

    • 1L

    • 2L

    • 5L

    • 10L

    Correct Answer
    A. 5L
    Explanation
    Vd=D/C, where D= the total amount of drug in the body and C=plasma concentration of drug. Thus Vd=100mg/20mg/mL=100/20mg/L= 5L.

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  • 31. 

    Heart failure patient shows dig toxicity.  She received 125 mcg as standard dose.  Serum levels were reported to be 2 ng/Ml.  Target therapeutic levels is 0.8 ng.  What dose should she receive?

    • 25 mcg

    • 50 mcg

    • 75 mcg

    • 100 mcg

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 mcg
    Explanation
    The patient is experiencing digoxin toxicity, as their serum levels are higher than the target therapeutic levels. To reduce the risk of toxicity, the dose of digoxin should be decreased. The current dose is 125 mcg, and the serum level is 2 ng/Ml. The target therapeutic level is 0.8 ng. To achieve this target level, the dose should be reduced by half, resulting in a dose of 50 mcg.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is characteristic of the SNS?

    • Discrete response to activation

    • Actions mediated by muscarinic and nicotinic

    • Effects only mediated by norepi

    • Responses predominate during physical activity or when experiencing fright

    • Subjected to voluntary control

    Correct Answer
    A. Responses predominate during physical activity or when experiencing fright
    Explanation
    SNS is fight or flight.

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  • 33. 

    A 38 yo male has recently started mono therapy for mild hypertension.  At his most recent office visit, he complains of tiredness and not being able to complete three sets of tennis.  Which one of the following drugs is he most likely to be taking for hypertension?

    • Albuterol

    • Atenolol

    • Ephedrine

    • Prazosin

    Correct Answer
    A. Atenolol
    Explanation
    The most likely drug that the 38-year-old male is taking for hypertension is atenolol. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat high blood pressure. One of the side effects of beta-blockers is fatigue or tiredness, which aligns with the patient's complaint. Additionally, atenolol is not known to enhance athletic performance, so the patient's inability to complete three sets of tennis is consistent with this medication.

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  • 34. 

    A 6o yo asthmatic man comes in for a checkup and complains that he is having some difficulty in "starting to urinate".  Physical exam indicates that the man has a BP of 160/100 and a slightly enlarged prostate.  Which of the following medications would be useful in treating both of these conditions?

    • Doxazosin

    • Labetalol

    • Phentolamine

    • Propranolol

    Correct Answer
    A. Doxazosin
    Explanation
    Doxazosin is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called alpha-1 blockers. It works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, which helps to improve urine flow and reduce symptoms of an enlarged prostate. Additionally, doxazosin can also lower blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels, making it a suitable choice for this patient who has both an enlarged prostate and high blood pressure. Labetalol, phentolamine, and propranolol are not indicated for the treatment of an enlarged prostate.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes a system having spare receptors?

    • The number of spare receptors determines the maximum effect

    • Agonist affinity for spare receptors is less than their affinitiy for nonspare receptors

    • Spare receptors are active even in the absence of agonist

    • Spare receptors are sequestered in the cytosol

    • A single drug receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated

    Correct Answer
    A. A single drug receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated
    Explanation
    When a system has spare receptors, it means that there are more receptors available than necessary to produce a maximal response. In this case, a single drug receptor interaction can activate multiple cellular response elements, leading to a greater overall effect. This is because even though some receptors may not be bound by the drug, they are still active and can contribute to the cellular response. Therefore, the correct answer is that a single drug receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated.

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  • 36. 

    CJ is a farm worker that was found wandering in the orchards sffering from dry mouth, blurred vision, sandy eyes and tachycardia.  CJ admitted to having these sx after spraying the crop with insecticide.  Which of the following can be used to counteract the side effects?

    • Atropine

    • Nicotine

    • Physostigmine

    • Pancuronium

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine
    Explanation
    Atropine can be used to counteract the side effects experienced by CJ after spraying the crop with insecticide. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that can help alleviate symptoms such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and tachycardia. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in the transmission of nerve impulses. By inhibiting the effects of acetylcholine, atropine can help relieve the symptoms caused by excessive cholinergic activity, which may result from insecticide exposure. Nicotine, physostigmine, and pancuronium are not typically used to counteract the side effects of insecticide exposure.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following may precipitate an attack of open-angle glaucoma if instilled into the eye?

    • Physostigmine

    • Atropine

    • Pilocarpine

    • Echothiophate

    • Tropicamide

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine
    Explanation
    Atropine may precipitate an attack of open-angle glaucoma if instilled into the eye. Open-angle glaucoma is characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and atropine is known to cause pupil dilation and increase intraocular pressure. Therefore, the use of atropine in individuals with open-angle glaucoma can worsen the condition and potentially trigger an attack.

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  • 38. 

    Acetylcholine is the NT mediating ganglionic transmission.  Which of the following receptors mediate aceylcholine effects at the autonomic ganglia?

    • Nicotinic receptors

    • Msucarinic receptors

    • Alpha receptors

    • Beta receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Nicotinic receptors
    Explanation
    Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that mediates ganglionic transmission in the autonomic nervous system. The receptors that mediate acetylcholine effects at the autonomic ganglia are nicotinic receptors. These receptors are named after nicotine, as they can be activated by nicotine and acetylcholine. Nicotinic receptors are ion channels that allow the flow of ions, such as sodium and potassium, across the cell membrane when acetylcholine binds to them. This activation leads to the transmission of signals between neurons in the autonomic ganglia, allowing for the regulation of various bodily functions.

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  • 39. 

    A 68 year old man presents to the ED with acute heart failure.  THis patient requires immediate drug therapy to improve his cardiac function.  Which one of the following drugs would be most beneficial?

    • Albuterol

    • Dobutamine

    • Epi

    • Norepi

    • Phenylephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dobutamine
    Explanation
    Dobutamine increases cardiac output without significantly increasing heart rate, a complicating condition in heart failure. Epi can significantly increase heart rate and is not typically used for acute heart failure.

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  • 40. 

    Postpartum female with atonic bladder.  Which of these can be used?

    • Atropine

    • Aceylcholine

    • Bethanecol

    • Scopolamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Bethanecol
    Explanation
    Bethanecol can be used in the case of a postpartum female with atonic bladder. Bethanecol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates the bladder muscles, helping to increase bladder tone and improve urinary retention. This medication can be beneficial in cases where the bladder is not contracting effectively, as in the case of atonic bladder. Atropine, acetylcholine, and scopolamine are not suitable options for this condition.

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  • 41. 

    A 50 yo is brought to the ED after found confused in an orchard.  His HR is 45 and BP is 80/40.  He is sweating and salivating profusely.  Which of the following treatments is indicated?

    • Norepi

    • Physostigmine

    • Atropine

    • Edrophonium

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is atropine. The patient's presentation of confusion, bradycardia, hypotension, sweating, and salivation is consistent with organophosphate poisoning. Atropine is the treatment of choice for organophosphate poisoning as it acts as a competitive antagonist at muscarinic receptors, counteracting the excessive cholinergic stimulation caused by the poisoning. Norepinephrine, physostigmine, and edrophonium are not indicated in this scenario.

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  • 42. 

    A 34 yo has hypertension and chornic migraines but won't take multiple meds.  Which of these can he take?

    • Propranolol

    • Prazosin

    • Phentolamine

    • Clonidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Propranolol
    Explanation
    Propranolol is a suitable option for the 34-year-old with hypertension and chronic migraines who does not want to take multiple medications. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can effectively manage both conditions. It helps lower blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart. Additionally, propranolol can prevent migraines by reducing the frequency and severity of attacks. It does so by blocking the release of certain chemicals in the brain that trigger migraines. Therefore, propranolol is a suitable choice for this patient's needs.

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  • 43. 

    A 65 yo has a BP of 165/105 and was placed of HCTZ to lower his BP.  After 6 weeks of therapy his BP was still not normal.  Which would be good to add?

    • Methylphenidate

    • Dobutamine

    • Prazosin

    • Terbutaline

    Correct Answer
    A. Prazosin
    Explanation
    Prazosin would be a good addition to the therapy because it is an alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist that helps to relax and widen blood vessels, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure. This medication can be effective in treating hypertension, especially when other medications like HCTZ have not been successful in normalizing blood pressure levels.

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  • 44. 

    Which one of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

    • THe PNS uses norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter

    • The PNS often discharges as a single, functional system

    • The PNS division is involved in accomodation of near vision, movement of food and urination.

    • The postganglionic fibers of the PNS are long compared to those of the sympathetic nervous system

    • The PNS controls the secretion of the adrenal medulla.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PNS division is involved in accomodation of near vision, movement of food and urination.
    Explanation
    The PNS maintains essential bodily functions, such as vision, movement of food and urination. It USES acetylcholine!!!!! and is discharges as discrete fibers that are activated separately. The postganglionic fibers of the PNS are short compared to those of sympathetic.

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  • 45. 

    Remedies for nasal stuffiness often contain which one of the following drugs?

    • Albuterol

    • Atropine

    • Epinephrine

    • Norepi

    • Phenylephrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenylephrine
    Explanation
    THis is an alpha 1 agonist that constricts the nasal mucosa, thereby decreasing airway resistance

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  • 46. 

    A patient is treated with drug A, which has a high affinity for albumin and is administered in amounts that do not exceed the binding capacity of albumin.  A second drug, B, is added to the treatment regimen.  Durg B also has a high affinity for albumin but is adminsitered in amounts that are 100 times the binding capacity of albumin.  Which of the following occurs after administration of drug B?

    • A decrease in the tissue concentrations of drug A

    • An increase in the tissue concentrations of drug A

    • A decrase in the Vd of drug A

    • A decrease in the half life of drug A

    • Addition of more drug A significantly alters the serum concentration of unbound drug B

    Correct Answer
    A. An increase in the tissue concentrations of drug A
    Explanation
    Drug B has a high affinity for albumin and is administered in amounts that are 100 times the binding capacity of albumin. This means that drug B will saturate albumin binding sites, preventing drug A from binding to albumin. As a result, there will be an increase in the unbound fraction of drug A, leading to an increase in the tissue concentrations of drug A.

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  • 47. 

    A hiker is attacked by a grizzly bear.  Which of the following responses would be triggered by a sympathetic nervous system in response to the predator?

    • Miosis

    • Decrease in glucagon production

    • Bronchodilation

    • Increased motility of GI tract

    • Decrease heart rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchodilation
    Explanation
    When a hiker is attacked by a grizzly bear, the sympathetic nervous system is activated. This response is commonly known as the "fight or flight" response. Bronchodilation is one of the physiological responses triggered by the sympathetic nervous system in this situation. It involves the relaxation of the smooth muscles in the bronchioles, allowing for increased airflow to the lungs. This helps to improve oxygen intake and prepare the body for physical exertion or escape from the predator.

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  • 48. 

    A drug with a half life of 12 hours is administered by continuous intravenous infusion.  How long will it take for the drug to reach 90 percent of its final steady state level?

    • 18 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 30 hours

    • 40 hours

    • 90 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 40 hours
    Explanation
    3.3 x t1/2= 3.3x12= about 40 hours

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  • 49. 

    AM is a 59 yo white male that suffers from cHD.  At an office visit has has crushing, squeezing and pressure that radiates to left arm.  AM becomes unconscious in ED and cardiac rhythm diminishes.  IN an effort to restore cardiac rhythm he can be given 

    • Clonidine

    • Bethanechol

    • Oxymetazoline

    • Epi

    Correct Answer
    A. Epi
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of a heart attack (crushing, squeezing, and pressure that radiates to the left arm) and becomes unconscious with a diminishing cardiac rhythm. The correct answer, epi (epinephrine), is a medication commonly used in cardiac arrest situations to restore cardiac rhythm. Epinephrine acts as a vasoconstrictor, increasing blood flow to the heart and brain, and stimulating the heart to beat more forcefully. This medication can help improve blood circulation and increase the chances of survival in a cardiac arrest situation.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 26, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Perduekm

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