Test Your Knowledge On Pharmacology
Take these quiz questions on the Pharmacology and learn more about it now!
- 1.A drug given as a 100 mg single dose results in a peak plasma concentration of 20 ug/mL. The apparent volume of distribution is (assume a rapid distribution and negligible elimination prior to measuring the peak plasma level):
- A.
0.5 L
- B.
1L
- C.
2L
- D.
5L
- E.
10L
- 2.A drug with a half life of 12 hours is administered by continuous intravenous infusion. How long will it take for the drug to reach 90 percent of its final steady state level?
- A.
18 hours
- B.
24 hours
- C.
30 hours
- D.
40 hours
- E.
90 hours
- 3.Which of the following results in a doubling of the steady state concentration of the drug?
- A.
Doubling the rate of infusion
- B.
Maintaining the rate of infusion but doubling the loading dose
- C.
Doubling the rate of infusion and doubling the concentration of the infused drug
- D.
Tripling the rate of infusion
- E.
Quadrupling the rate of infusion
- 4.Heart failure patient shows dig toxicity. She received 125 mcg as standard dose. Serum levels were reported to be 2 ng/Ml. Target therapeutic levels is 0.8 ng. What dose should she receive?
- A.
25 mcg
- B.
50 mcg
- C.
75 mcg
- D.
100 mcg
- 5.The addition of the glucoronic acid to a drug
- A.
Decreases its water solubility
- B.
Usually leads to inactivation of the drug
- C.
Is an example of a Phase I reaction
- D.
Occurs at the same rate in adults and newborns
- E.
Involve cytochrome P450
- 6.Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a similar manner similar to epinephrine. Drug X is considered to be a
- A.
Agonist
- B.
Partial agonist
- C.
Competitive antagonist
- D.
Irreverisble antagonist
- E.
Inverse agonist
- 7.Which of the following is correct?
- A.
If 10 mg of Drug A produces the same response as 100 mg of Drug B, Drug A is more efficacious than Drug B.
- B.
The greater the efficacy, the greater the potency of a drug.
- C.
IN selecting a drug, potency is usually more important than efficacy.
- D.
A competitive antagonist increases the ED50.
- E.
Variation in response to a drug among different individuals is most likely to occur with a drug showing a large therapeutic index.
- 8.Variation in the sensitivity of a population of individuals to increasing doses of a drug is best determined by which of the following?
- A.
Efficacy
- B.
Potency
- C.
Therapeutic index
- D.
Graded dose-response curve
- E.
Quantal dose-response curve
- 9.Which of the following statements most accurately describes a system having spare receptors?
- A.
The number of spare receptors determines the maximum effect.
- B.
Spare receptors are sequestered in the cytosol.
- C.
A single drug-receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated
- D.
Spare receptors are active even in the absensce of agonist.
- E.
Agonist affinity for spare receptors is less than their affinity for nonspare receptors.
- 10.Which one of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?
- A.
THe PNS uses norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter
- B.
The PNS often discharges as a single, functional system
- C.
The PNS division is involved in accomodation of near vision, movement of food and urination.
- D.
The postganglionic fibers of the PNS are long compared to those of the sympathetic nervous system
- E.
The PNS controls the secretion of the adrenal medulla.
- 11.Which one of the following is characteristic of parasympathetic stimulation?
- A.
Decrease in intestinal motility
- B.
Inhibition of bronchial secretion
- C.
Contraction of sphincter muscle in the iris of the eye (miosis)
- D.
Contraction of sphincter of urinary bladder
- E.
Increase in heart rate
- 12.Which of the following is characteristic of the SNS?
- A.
Discrete response to activation
- B.
Actions mediated by muscarinic and nicotinic
- C.
Effects only mediated by norepi
- D.
Responses predominate during physical activity or when experiencing fright
- E.
Subjected to voluntary control
- 13.Patient presents with salivation, lacrimation, urination and defecation as side effects of a medication. Which one of the following receptors mediates the actions of this drug?
- A.
Nicotoinic receptors
- B.
Alpha receptors
- C.
Muscarinic receptors
- D.
Beta receptors
- 14.A patient with an acute attack of glaucoma is treated with pilocarpine. The primary reason for its effectiveness for this condition is:
- A.
Action to terminate acetylcholinesterase
- B.
Selectivity for nicotinic receptors
- C.
Ability to inhibit secretions, such as tears, saliva and sweat
- D.
Ability to lower intraocular pressure
- E.
Inability to enter the brain
- 15.A soldiers unit has come under attack with a nerve agent. The symptoms exhibited are skeletal muscle, paralysis, profuse bronchial secretions, miosis, bradycardia, and convulsions. The alarm indicates exposure to an organophosphate. What is the correct treatment?
- A.
Do nothing until you confirm the nature of the nerve agent
- B.
Administer atropine, and attempt to confirm the nature of the nerve agent
- C.
Adminsiter atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
- D.
Administer pralidoxime
- 16.A patient on a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis would be expected to have improved neuromuscular function after being treated wtih
- A.
Donepezil
- B.
Edrophonium
- C.
Atropine
- D.
Ecthothipohate
- E.
Neostigmine
- 17.The drug of choice for treating decreased salivation accompanying head and neck irradiation is
- A.
Physiostigmine
- B.
Scopolamine
- C.
Carbachol
- D.
Acetylcholine
- E.
Pilocarpine
- 18.A 75 year old man who was a smoker is diagnosed with COPD and suffers from occasional bronchospasm. Which of the following would be effective in treating him?
- A.
Ipratropium bromide
- B.
Scopolamine patches
- C.
Mecamylamine
- D.
Oxygen
- E.
Nicotine
- 19.Which of the following may precipitate an attack of open-angle glaucoma if instilled into the eye?
- A.
Physostigmine
- B.
Atropine
- C.
Pilocarpine
- D.
Echothiophate
- E.
Tropicamide
- 20.The prolonged apnea sometimes seen in patients who have undergone an operation in which succinylcholine was used as a muscle relaxant has been shown:
- A.
Urinary atony
- B.
Depressed levels of plasma cholinesterase
- C.
A mutation in acetylcholinesterase
- D.
A mutation in the nicotinic receptor at the NMJ
- E.
Weak histamine releasing action
- 21.A 50 yo male farm worker is brought to the ED. He was found confused in the orchard and since then has lost consciousness. His heart rate is 45, and his blood pressure is 80/44. He is sweating and salivating profusely. Which of the following treatments is indicated?
- A.
Physostigmine
- B.
Norepi
- C.
Trimethaphan
- D.
Atropine
- E.
Edrophonium
- 22.Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers are associated with all of the following except
- A.
Initial activation of AcH receptor and depolarization of the motor end plate
- B.
Effects are reversible by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
- C.
Intermediate to long duration of action
- D.
Bind but do not activate AcH receptor
- E.
Most of these agents have minimal cardiovascular effects
- 23.A 68 year old man presents to the ED with acute heart failure. THis patient requires immediate drug therapy to improve his cardiac function. Which one of the following drugs would be most beneficial?
- A.
Albuterol
- B.
Dobutamine
- C.
Epi
- D.
Norepi
- E.
Phenylephrine
- 24.Remedies for nasal stuffiness often contain which one of the following drugs?
- A.
Albuterol
- B.
Atropine
- C.
Epinephrine
- D.
Norepi
- E.
Phenylephrine
- 25.Which one of the following drugs, when administered intravenously, can decrease blood flow to the skin, increase blood flow to skeletal muscle, and increase the force and rate of cardiac contraction?
- A.
Epi
- B.
Isoproterenol
- C.
Norepi
- D.
Epi
- E.
Terbutaline
Questions: 20 | Attempts: 23552 | Last updated: Jan 8, 2021
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