Pharmacology Quiz: Do You Really Know About Drugs?

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Being that you are just one step closer to being a certified pharmacologist, it is quite important to ensure that you have adequate knowledge on all the drugs you might come across in practice, how you use and prescribe them. Do you know about drugs? Take up thus quick pharmacology quiz and get to find out. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Tamsulosin is selective for which adrenergic receptor?

    • A.

      A1a

    • B.

      A1b

    • C.

      A2a

    • D.

      A10

    Correct Answer
    A. A1a
    Explanation
    Tamsulosin is selective for the A1a adrenergic receptor. This means that it specifically targets and binds to this receptor subtype, leading to its pharmacological effects. By selectively binding to the A1a receptor, tamsulosin can block the action of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter, on this receptor, resulting in relaxation of smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This selective action of tamsulosin on the A1a receptor makes it a useful medication for the treatment of urinary symptoms associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

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  • 2. 

    A2 receptors when stimulated turn on NE release

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A2 is the most important receptor in the brain!! It turns off NE release. B receptors turn on NE release when stimulated.

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  • 3. 

    Adrenergic Recptors are:

    • A.

      Ion-channel

    • B.

      G-protein coupled receptors

    • C.

      Ligand regulated

    • D.

      Carboxylated

    Correct Answer
    B. G-protein coupled receptors
    Explanation
    G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) are a type of cell membrane receptor that are involved in signal transduction. They are activated by binding of ligands, such as hormones or neurotransmitters, which then triggers a cascade of intracellular signaling events. Adrenergic receptors specifically bind to the neurotransmitters epinephrine and norepinephrine, and are classified as GPCRs. This allows them to activate G-proteins, which in turn regulate various cellular processes. Therefore, the correct answer is G-protein coupled receptors.

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  • 4. 

    When A2 receptors are stimulated, they interact with Gi, which turns off cAMP and leads to more protein phosphorylation

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Turning off cAMP leads to LESS protein phosphorylation

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  • 5. 

    Isoproterenol is selective for what receptors?

    • A.

      A1

    • B.

      A2

    • C.

      B1

    • D.

      B2

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. B1
    D. B2
    Explanation
    Isoproterenol is selective for B1 and B2 receptors. These receptors are part of the beta-adrenergic receptor family. B1 receptors are mainly found in the heart and are responsible for increasing heart rate and contractility. B2 receptors are found in smooth muscle tissues, such as the bronchioles of the lungs, and their activation leads to relaxation and dilation of these muscles. Isoproterenol's selectivity for both B1 and B2 receptors makes it useful in medical treatments such as treating bradycardia or bronchospasm.

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  • 6. 

    Phenylephrine is selective for what receptors?

    • A.

      A1

    • B.

      A2

    • C.

      B1

    • D.

      B2

    Correct Answer
    A. A1
    Explanation
    Phenylephrine is selective for A1 receptors. A1 receptors are a subtype of alpha-adrenergic receptors found in smooth muscle cells of blood vessels. Activation of A1 receptors by phenylephrine causes vasoconstriction, leading to an increase in blood pressure. This selective action on A1 receptors makes phenylephrine useful in treating conditions like hypotension and nasal congestion.

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  • 7. 

    Norepinephrine is selective for what receptors?

    • A.

      A1

    • B.

      A2

    • C.

      B1

    • D.

      B2

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A1
    B. A2
    C. B1
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine is selective for A1, A2, and B1 receptors. These receptors are part of the adrenergic system, which is responsible for the body's response to stress and emergencies. A1 receptors are found in smooth muscles and blood vessels, causing vasoconstriction. A2 receptors are located in the brain and peripheral tissues, regulating neurotransmitter release. B1 receptors are primarily found in the heart, increasing heart rate and contractility. Therefore, norepinephrine can bind to and activate these receptors, leading to various physiological responses.

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  • 8. 

    At a low to medium therapeutic dose, sympathomimetic drugs are selective for their receptors, but at high or toxic doses they can stimulate other receptors

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    At low to medium therapeutic doses, sympathomimetic drugs are designed to selectively target specific receptors in the body. However, at high or toxic doses, these drugs can interact with and stimulate other receptors in addition to their intended targets. This can lead to unintended side effects or adverse reactions. Therefore, the statement that sympathomimetic drugs can stimulate other receptors at high or toxic doses is true.

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  • 9. 

    Giving phenylephrine would have what effect?

    • A.

      Increased HR

    • B.

      Decreased HR

    • C.

      Increased BP

    • D.

      Decreased BP

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Decreased HR
    C. Increased BP
    Explanation
    Phenylephrine would cause vasoconstriction (increased BP) but then the baroreceptors would kick in to keep the HR low.

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  • 10. 

    50% of the norepinephrine released into the neuroeffector junction is removed by what method?

    • A.

      Cleaved by esterases

    • B.

      Attaches to adrenergic receptors

    • C.

      Taken out of junction by a neuronal uptake pump

    • D.

      Diffusion

    Correct Answer
    C. Taken out of junction by a neuronal uptake pump
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter released into the neuroeffector junction. This question asks how 50% of the released norepinephrine is removed from the junction. The correct answer is that it is taken out of the junction by a neuronal uptake pump. This means that the norepinephrine is actively transported back into the neuron that released it, effectively removing it from the junction.

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  • 11. 

    How does amphetamine affect neuroepinephrine in the neuroeffector junction?

    • A.

      Blocks synthesis in the vesicle

    • B.

      Displaces from the vesicle

    • C.

      Causes the neuronal uptake pump to run backwards, pumping NE into the junction

    • D.

      Causes a lower binding affinity to the receptors

    • E.

      Inhibits dopamine from entering in the vesicle

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Displaces from the vesicle
    C. Causes the neuronal uptake pump to run backwards, pumping NE into the junction
    Explanation
    Amphetamine causes the neuronal uptake pump to run backwards, which leads to the pumping of neuroepinephrine (NE) into the neuroeffector junction. This occurs because amphetamine displaces NE from the vesicle, preventing its storage and causing it to be released into the junction. This results in an increased concentration of NE in the junction, leading to its effects on the neuroeffector junction.

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  • 12. 

    Which is NOT a source of tyramine?

    • A.

      BEER.

    • B.

      WINE

    • C.

      Acidic fruits

    • D.

      Cheese

    Correct Answer
    C. Acidic fruits
    Explanation
    Tyramine is a naturally occurring compound found in certain foods and beverages. It is commonly associated with triggering migraines and other adverse reactions in sensitive individuals. While beer, wine, and cheese are known sources of tyramine, acidic fruits do not contain significant amounts of this compound. Therefore, acidic fruits are not a source of tyramine.

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  • 13. 

    Which are drugs that release norepinephrine?

    • A.

      Amphetamine

    • B.

      Phentermine

    • C.

      MAOIs

    • D.

      Methylphenidate

    • E.

      Vicodin ES

    • F.

      Alprazolam

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Amphetamine
    B. Phentermine
    D. Methylphenidate
    Explanation
    Amphetamine, Phentermine, and methylphenidate are drugs that release norepinephrine. These drugs belong to a class called sympathomimetic amines, which stimulate the release of norepinephrine from nerve endings. Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in regulating various physiological processes, including attention, alertness, and mood. By increasing the release of norepinephrine, these drugs can have stimulant effects on the central nervous system, leading to increased wakefulness and focus.

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  • 14. 

    Cocaine & Imipramine block the removal of norepinephrine out of the neuroeffector junction.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cocaine and Imipramine are both known to inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter, at the neuroeffector junction. This means that they prevent the removal of norepinephrine from the synaptic cleft, leading to increased levels of norepinephrine in the brain. Therefore, the statement that cocaine and Imipramine block the removal of norepinephrine out of the neuroeffector junction is true.

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  • 15. 

    Pseudoephedrine is a direct acting adrenergic agonist because it releases norepinephrine from the storage vesicles and activates the receptors in the neuroeffector junction.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Pseudoephedrine is a MIXED agonist because it works by these 2 mechanisms to increase the action of norepinephrine.

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  • 16. 

    Cardiogenic shock is primarily related to low blood pressure.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Septic shock is primarily associated with low blood pressure. Cardiogenic shock is related to reduced work of the heart.

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  • 17. 

    How is visine used to treat ocular congestion?

    • A.

      Increases capillary permeability & dilates blood vessels

    • B.

      Increases capillary permeability & contracts blood vessels

    • C.

      Decreases capillary permeability & dilates blood vessels

    • D.

      Decreases capillary permeability & contracts blood vessels

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreases capillary permeability & contracts blood vessels
    Explanation
    Visine is used to treat ocular congestion by decreasing capillary permeability and contracting blood vessels. This action helps to reduce redness and swelling in the eyes, providing relief from congestion.

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  • 18. 

    How is phentermine used in appetite suppression?

    • A.

      It decreases the stimulation of dopamine receptors in the brain

    • B.

      It stimulates dopamine receptors in the brain

    • C.

      Releases NE in the CNS which releases dopamine

    • D.

      Turns on signal to body to increase food because the body senses it is losing weight.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. It stimulates dopamine receptors in the brain
    C. Releases NE in the CNS which releases dopamine
    Explanation
    Phentermine is used in appetite suppression by stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain. This stimulation leads to a decrease in appetite and a feeling of fullness. Additionally, phentermine releases norepinephrine (NE) in the central nervous system, which further triggers the release of dopamine. This combined action of stimulating dopamine receptors and releasing NE and dopamine helps to suppress appetite and control food cravings.

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  • 19. 

    Whis is NOT an adverse effect of adrenergic agonists?

    • A.

      Hypertension

    • B.

      Worsening of open angle glaucoma

    • C.

      Urinary retention

    • D.

      Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    B. Worsening of open angle glaucoma
    Explanation
    Adrenergic agonists are used to TREAT open angle glaucoma. Worsening of narrow angle glaucoma is an adverse event caused by stimulating A1.

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  • 20. 

    Labetalol & carvedilol are selective antagonists for which receptors?

    • A.

      A1

    • B.

      A2

    • C.

      B1

    • D.

      B2

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A1
    C. B1
    D. B2
    Explanation
    Labetalol and carvedilol are selective antagonists for A1, B1, and B2 receptors. Selective antagonists are drugs that specifically bind to and block the activity of certain receptors in the body. In this case, labetalol and carvedilol target A1, B1, and B2 receptors. These receptors are found in various tissues and organs, including the heart, blood vessels, and lungs. By blocking these receptors, labetalol and carvedilol can help to lower blood pressure, reduce heart rate, and relax blood vessels, making them useful in the treatment of conditions such as hypertension and heart failure.

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  • 21. 

    Atenolol, Metoprolol, Acebutalol & Esmolol are considered "3rd generation" adrenergic antagonists.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    They are 2nd generation. Labetalol/Carvedilol are 3rd generation.

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  • 22. 

    After giving an alpha blocking drug, what would be the effect of a dose of epinephrine?

    • A.

      Increase in BP

    • B.

      Decrease in BP

    • C.

      Increase in HR

    • D.

      Decrease in HR

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Decrease in BP
    C. Increase in HR
    Explanation
    B2 receptors are activated, which causes vasodilation & decrease in BP. The B1 receptors stimulate increased contractility of the heart which increases HR. The baroreceptors are also stimulated to increase HR.

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  • 23. 

    In treating benign prostatic hyperplasia, the desired result of alpha-blocking treatment is:

    • A.

      Increased urine outflow

    • B.

      Increased urinary retention

    • C.

      Decreased urine outflow

    • D.

      Contraction of smooth muscle of the prostate

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased urine outflow
    Explanation
    The urgency/retention is caused by contraction of the smooth muscle of the prostate pressing on the urethra. Blocking A1A by tamsulosin results in increased urine outflow.

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  • 24. 

    Raynauds:

    • A.

      Presents in the extremities - with white digits that show when exposed to cold temperature

    • B.

      Is cauased by excessive vasoconstriction in combination with plaques in arterioles

    • C.

      Is treated by alpha blocking drugs

    • D.

      Treatment includes prazosin or phenoxybenzamine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Presents in the extremities - with white digits that show when exposed to cold temperature
    B. Is cauased by excessive vasoconstriction in combination with plaques in arterioles
    C. Is treated by alpha blocking drugs
    D. Treatment includes prazosin or phenoxybenzamine
    Explanation
    Raynaud's is a condition that presents in the extremities, specifically the digits, with white discoloration when exposed to cold temperatures. This is due to excessive vasoconstriction in combination with plaques in the arterioles. The condition can be treated with alpha blocking drugs, such as prazosin or phenoxybenzamine. These medications help to relax and widen the blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing symptoms.

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  • 25. 

    Phentolamine is injected in the corpus cavernosum of the penis to treat impotence.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    (shudders) yuck

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  • 26. 

    Yohimbe blocks A1 receptors as a neutraceutical treatment of ED in males

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Yohimbe or "horny goat weed" blocks A1 and is believed that it is connected with brain pathways associated with interest in sex (aphrodisiac)

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  • 27. 

    Beta receptor antagonists affects in the system include:

    • A.

      Increased force of heart contractility

    • B.

      Increased renin secretion of the kidney

    • C.

      Bronchodilation

    • D.

      Decreased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
    Explanation
    Beta receptor antagonists, also known as beta blockers, work by blocking the beta receptors in the body. These receptors are found in various organs and tissues, including the heart, kidneys, and lungs. By blocking these receptors, beta blockers have several effects on the body. One of these effects is a decrease in glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, which refers to the breakdown of glycogen into glucose and the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, respectively. This decrease in glucose production and release helps to lower blood sugar levels and can be beneficial in conditions such as diabetes.

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  • 28. 

    Beta blockers should be used in acute heart failure.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    used ONLY in chronic heart failure, when constant sympathetic input is hurting the heart and compromising its function further.

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  • 29. 

    If a patient carries a large box up the stairs and experiences angina, it means that his oxygen demand is greater than the oxygen supply (due to coronary artery disease, atherosclerosis, etc). It would be reasonable that this patient starts taking a beta blocker to treat his acute angina symptoms.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Beta blockers are used to PREVENT angina. Patient would use nitrostat for treatment.

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  • 30. 

    Timolol treats glaucoma by reducing the formation of aqueous humor and thereby lowering the IOP

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Timolol is a medication used to treat glaucoma, a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It works by reducing the production of aqueous humor, the fluid that fills the front part of the eye. By decreasing the formation of aqueous humor, Timolol helps to lower the IOP, which is essential for managing glaucoma and preventing further damage to the optic nerve. Therefore, the statement "Timolol treats glaucoma by reducing the formation of aqueous humor and thereby lowering the IOP" is true.

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  • 31. 

    Beta blockers can be used to treat:

    • A.

      Tension headache

    • B.

      Performance anxiety

    • C.

      Acute heart failure

    • D.

      Hypotension

    Correct Answer
    B. Performance anxiety
    Explanation
    Used to treat performance anxiety & muscle tremors in people like fine musicians or sharp shooters. It affects the movement of glucose & potassium in/out of the muscle and prevents excessive stimulation.

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  • 32. 

    Which is not an adverse effect of beta blockers?

    • A.

      Wheezing

    • B.

      CNS effects

    • C.

      Rebound angina

    • D.

      Tachycardia

    Correct Answer
    D. Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Tachycardia is not an adverse effect of beta blockers. Beta blockers actually work to decrease heart rate, so tachycardia would not be expected as a side effect. Wheezing, CNS effects, and rebound angina are all potential adverse effects of beta blockers.

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  • 33. 

    Which drug has the highest oral bioavailability?

    • A.

      Pindolol

    • B.

      Nadolol

    • C.

      Atenolol

    • D.

      Metoprolol

    Correct Answer
    A. Pindolol
    Explanation
    Pindolol has the highest oral bioavailability among the given options. Oral bioavailability refers to the percentage of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation after oral administration. Pindolol is known to have a high oral bioavailability, meaning that a larger proportion of the drug is absorbed and reaches the bloodstream when taken orally compared to the other drugs listed (Nadolol, Atenolol, and Metoprolol). This suggests that Pindolol is more efficiently absorbed and has a higher systemic availability when taken orally.

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  • 34. 

    Clonidine is a adrenergic neuron blocking drug.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Clonidine is a drug that blocks the activity of adrenergic neurons. Adrenergic neurons are responsible for releasing norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter that plays a role in the sympathetic nervous system. By blocking these neurons, clonidine reduces the release of norepinephrine, leading to various effects such as lowering blood pressure and reducing anxiety. Therefore, the statement that clonidine is an adrenergic neuron blocking drug is true.

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  • 35. 

    Metyrosine:

    • A.

      Blocks the conversion of tyrosine to dopa

    • B.

      Is used to treat pheochromocytoma (only real treatment is tumor removal)

    • C.

      Inhibits tyrosine esterase

    • D.

      Can enter into the brain & cause CNS effects

    • E.

      Inhibits the rate-limiting step of norepinephrine production

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Blocks the conversion of tyrosine to dopa
    B. Is used to treat pheochromocytoma (only real treatment is tumor removal)
    D. Can enter into the brain & cause CNS effects
    E. Inhibits the rate-limiting step of norepinephrine production
    Explanation
    Metyrosine is a medication that blocks the conversion of tyrosine to dopa. This is significant because dopa is a precursor to norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter involved in the stress response. By inhibiting this conversion, metyrosine reduces the production of norepinephrine, which can be beneficial in the treatment of conditions such as pheochromocytoma. Additionally, metyrosine can enter the brain and cause central nervous system (CNS) effects, further contributing to its therapeutic actions. It is important to note that while metyrosine can be used to manage symptoms, the only definitive treatment for pheochromocytoma is surgical removal of the tumor.

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  • 36. 

    Reserpine affects NE uptake:

    • A.

      By blocking the neuronal reputake pump

    • B.

      By blocking the transport of norepinephrine & dopamine into the storage vesicle

    • C.

      By releasing NE from the storage vesicle

    • D.

      By pumping NE opposite of the neuronal reuptake pump to go out of the cell

    Correct Answer
    B. By blocking the transport of norepinephrine & dopamine into the storage vesicle
    Explanation
    Reserpine affects NE uptake by blocking the transport of norepinephrine and dopamine into the storage vesicle. This means that reserpine prevents the reuptake of these neurotransmitters into the vesicles, which are responsible for storing them. As a result, the levels of norepinephrine and dopamine in the synaptic cleft are reduced, leading to decreased neurotransmission.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 02, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Mkg55177
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