Practice Exam V

82 Questions

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Pharmacology & Anesthesia; Diagnostic Procedures Review - 82 Questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not one of the main sources from which drugs are derived?
    • A. 

      Biotechnology

    • B. 

      Animals

    • C. 

      protein

    • D. 

      Laboratory synthesis

  • 2. 
    The entire process of the drug within the body is ____.
    • A. 

      Contraindication

    • B. 

      Pharmacokinetics

    • C. 

      pharmaceutical

    • D. 

      indication

  • 3. 
    Which subcategory of drug preparation is a combination of two liquids than cannot mix?
    • A. 

      Emulsion

    • B. 

      suspension

    • C. 

      Solution

    • D. 

      Semisolid

  • 4. 
    Which type of drug name is advocated in the health care setting?
    • A. 

      Chemical

    • B. 

      Generic

    • C. 

      Trade

    • D. 

      Brand

  • 5. 
    Route of administration where medication is placed between the cheek and teeth for absorption is ____.
    • A. 

      Dermal

    • B. 

      inhalation

    • C. 

      Intramuscular

    • D. 

      Buccal

  • 6. 
    Buccal and sublingual administration are also considered to be ____.
    • A. 

      Intracardiac

    • B. 

      Topical

    • C. 

      Oral

    • D. 

      Inhalation

  • 7. 
    Drug administered within a joint is ____. 
    • A. 

      Subcutaneous

    • B. 

      Intravenous

    • C. 

      Intra-articular

    • D. 

      Dermal

  • 8. 
    Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological and/or physical dependence and abuse are called ____.
    • A. 

      Over the counter

    • B. 

      Chemical

    • C. 

      Prescription

    • D. 

      Controlled substances

  • 9. 
    The process of drug absorption into the blood stream by capillaries refers to ____.
    • A. 

      Active transport

    • B. 

      Biotransformation

    • C. 

      Passive transport

    • D. 

      Transference

  • 10. 
    The transport of the drug substance that occurs once it enters the circulatory system is ____.
    • A. 

      binding

    • B. 

      Distribution

    • C. 

      Barrier

    • D. 

      Absorption

  • 11. 
    The main function of the liver in metabolism is to ____.
    • A. 

      break down drug molecules

    • B. 

      Transport the drug

    • C. 

      Absorb the drug

    • D. 

      Distribute the drug

  • 12. 
    What organ is primarily responsible for the excretion of a drug?
    • A. 

      liver

    • B. 

      lungs

    • C. 

      Kidneys

    • D. 

      intestines

  • 13. 
    Pharmacodynamics describes the interaction of  the ____.
    • A. 

      target organ and circulatory system

    • B. 

      Drugs and capillaries

    • C. 

      Heart and lungs

    • D. 

      Drug molecules and target cells

  • 14. 
    The time it takes from administration of a drug and for its action to become evident refers to ____.
    • A. 

      transition period

    • B. 

      Onset

    • C. 

      Duration

    • D. 

      function

  • 15. 
    What theory states that the active substance in a drug has an affinity for a specific chemical constituent of a cell?
    • A. 

      Drug-enzyme interaction

    • B. 

      Drug-receptor interaction

    • C. 

      Membrane interaction

    • D. 

      Antagonistic drug interaction

  • 16. 
    Anticoagulant drugs prevent ____.
    • A. 

      Blood-clotting mechanisms

    • B. 

      vomiting

    • C. 

      nausea

    • D. 

      Anxiety

  • 17. 
    The process used to relieve  pain during surgical intervention refers to ____ administration.
    • A. 

      Tranquilizer

    • B. 

      Anesthesia

    • C. 

      Narcotics

    • D. 

      Neuromuscular block

  • 18. 
    Which of the following focuses on altering the patient’s level of consciousness and minimizing pain and awareness?
    • A. 

      Conduction blockade

    • B. 

      General anesthesia

    • C. 

      hypnosis

    • D. 

      Amnesia

  • 19. 
    Which stage of general anesthesia can lead to patient death?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 20. 
    Surgical intervention takes place during the ____.
    • A. 

      Induction phase

    • B. 

      Maintenance phase

    • C. 

      emergence phase

    • D. 

      Recovery phase

  • 21. 
    Sellick’s maneuver is also known as ____.
    • A. 

      cricoid pressure

    • B. 

      intubation

    • C. 

      tracheostomy

    • D. 

      ACLS

  • 22. 
    Which is not a risk associated with general anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Cardiac arrest

    • B. 

      Shock

    • C. 

      Muscle relaxation

    • D. 

      Allergic reaction

  • 23. 
    Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?
    • A. 

      Opioids

    • B. 

      Dissociative

    • C. 

      induction

    • D. 

      tranquilizers

  • 24. 
    Benzodiazepines are ____.
    • A. 

      Analgesics

    • B. 

      Sedatives

    • C. 

      Stimulants

    • D. 

      Cholinergics

  • 25. 
    Where is the endotracheal tube placed?
    • A. 

      Intravenous

    • B. 

      intrathecal

    • C. 

      Trachea

    • D. 

      Lungs

  • 26. 
    Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ____.
    • A. 

      Opioids

    • B. 

      Dissociative agents

    • C. 

      Narcotic antagonists

    • D. 

      Hypnotic agents

  • 27. 
    Which agents work by mimicking a release of acetylcholine across the neuromuscular junction?
    • A. 

      depolarizing

    • B. 

      Nondepolarizing

    • C. 

      Cholinergic

    • D. 

      Spinal

  • 28. 
    A noninvasive method used to monitor rate, rhythm, and electrical conduction of the heart is ____.
    • A. 

      Blood pressure monitoring

    • B. 

      Electrocardiography

    • C. 

      Cardiac catheterization

    • D. 

      pulse oximetry

  • 29. 
    Antiemetic agents are used to prevent ____. 
    • A. 

      Bleeding

    • B. 

      Nausea

    • C. 

      Clotting

    • D. 

      Hypotension

  • 30. 
    Which of the following provides a breath-by-breath analysis of expired carbon dioxide?
    • A. 

      Capnography

    • B. 

      Spirometry

    • C. 

      Oxygen analyzer

    • D. 

      Infusion control device

  • 31. 
    An induced hypothermia level of 68o F and below is ____.
    • A. 

      light hypothermia

    • B. 

      Moderate hypothermia

    • C. 

      Deep hypothermia

    • D. 

      Profound hypothermia

  • 32. 
    Which of the following induces hypothermia?
    • A. 

      Warming blanket

    • B. 

      internal cavity cooling

    • C. 

      Humidification

    • D. 

      Oxygen tent

  • 33. 
    The patient warming device that utilizes warm air blown into a special blanket is called ____.
    • A. 

      hypo/hyperthermia unit

    • B. 

      Bair hugger

    • C. 

      Sequential stockings

    • D. 

      Baby warmer

  • 34. 
    Which of the following uses a light absorption technique to assess oxygen saturation levels in arterial blood?
    • A. 

      pulse oximeter

    • B. 

      temperature monitors

    • C. 

      Electrocardiogram

    • D. 

      Arterial catheter

  • 35. 
    The most widely used amino amide drug is ____ hydrochloride.
    • A. 

      lidocaine

    • B. 

      Mepivacaine

    • C. 

      Bupivacaine

    • D. 

      Cocaine

  • 36. 
    Nerve plexus block, Bier block, spinal block, and epidural block are common types of ____.
    • A. 

      local infiltration

    • B. 

      monitored anesthesia

    • C. 

      Cryoanesthesia

    • D. 

      Regional blockade

  • 37. 
    What type of block is used for surgery of one hour or less in length on an extremity?
    • A. 

      nerve plexus

    • B. 

      Bier

    • C. 

      Spinal

    • D. 

      Epidural

  • 38. 
    Patient position, and agent baricity can influence the effect of ____.
    • A. 

      Nerve plexus

    • B. 

      Local anesthetic

    • C. 

      Spinal anesthetic

    • D. 

      Caudal block

  • 39. 
    Which is NOT an advantage of spinal anesthesia?
    • A. 

      patient remains conscious

    • B. 

      bowel contraction

    • C. 

      Muscle relaxant

    • D. 

      Hypotension

  • 40. 
    Hypnoanesthesia and acupuncture are types of ____.
    • A. 

      Nontraditional anesthesia

    • B. 

      Regional anesthesia

    • C. 

      Topical anesthesia

    • D. 

      Monitored anesthesia

  • 41. 
    Which is the sole responsibility of the circulator?
    • A. 

      identify patient

    • B. 

      Document physical findings

    • C. 

      Document emotional status

    • D. 

      Ensure preoperative duties completed

  • 42. 
    Who is responsible for making mental assessments of patient’s size and condition to anticipate items needed for procedure?
    • A. 

      Anesthesia provider

    • B. 

      circulator

    • C. 

      STSR

    • D. 

      Surgeon

  • 43. 
    Who maintains the sterile field until the patient is out of the operating room?
    • A. 

      nurse’s aide

    • B. 

      Circulator

    • C. 

      STSR

    • D. 

      Surgeon

  • 44. 
    Who is responsible for performing counts?
    • A. 

      Surgeon and first assistant

    • B. 

      Circulator and nurse’s aide

    • C. 

      STSR and circulator

    • D. 

      STSR and anesthesia provider

  • 45. 
    Diagnostic imaging includes which of the following?
    • A. 

      History and physical

    • B. 

      Biopsy

    • C. 

      direct visualization

    • D. 

      Radiography

  • 46. 
    An AP radiographic film is taken ____.
    • A. 

      Laterally

    • B. 

      Front to back

    • C. 

      Cephalad to caudad

    • D. 

      posteriorly

  • 47. 
    A myelogram is used to ____. 
    • A. 

      Evaluate the spine

    • B. 

      Assess peripheral vascular disease

    • C. 

      Assess pneumothorax

    • D. 

      Evaluate joint disease

  • 48. 
    What is used to enhance visualization of structures during a diagnostic imaging procedure?
    • A. 

      Saline

    • B. 

      Contrast medium

    • C. 

      Lugol’s solution

    • D. 

      Local anesthetic

  • 49. 
    Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic structures during the surgical procedure?
    • A. 

      Conventional X-ray

    • B. 

      Ultrasound

    • C. 

      Fluoroscopy

    • D. 

      MRI

  • 50. 
    Angiography is used to ____.
    • A. 

      Evaluate the heart

    • B. 

      assess peripheral vascular disease

    • C. 

      Detect ureteral stones

    • D. 

      Image soft tissue

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is used to evaluate heart function?
    • A. 

      angiography

    • B. 

      MRI

    • C. 

      Ultrasound

    • D. 

      Cardiac catheterization

  • 52. 
    Cholangiography is a radiographic study of the ____.
    • A. 

      Colon

    • B. 

      Gall bladder

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      brain

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is the most useful for viewing soft tissue? 
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      ultrasound

    • C. 

      Conventional X-ray

    • D. 

      MIBG scan

  • 54. 
    Ultrasound involves the use of ____.
    • A. 

      Radioisotope scanning

    • B. 

      High-frequency sound waves

    • C. 

      Spinning hydrogen atoms

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic radiation

  • 55. 
    Ultrasound is ideal for examination of the fetus because ____.
    • A. 

      radioisotopes are injected

    • B. 

      An electromagnetic field is created

    • C. 

      It does not use ionizing radiation

    • D. 

      contrast media is injected

  • 56. 
    Nuclear medicine studies are also referred to as ____.
    • A. 

      ultrasound

    • B. 

      MRI

    • C. 

      Isotope scanning

    • D. 

      CT scanning

  • 57. 
    The MIBG scan is a specific type of isotope scan used to identify a problem with the ____.
    • A. 

      Heart

    • B. 

      adrenal gland

    • C. 

      pituitary gland

    • D. 

      Kidney

  • 58. 
    Urine collected over a 24 hour period is tested to determine ____.
    • A. 

      infection

    • B. 

      Presence of blood

    • C. 

      malignancy

    • D. 

      Level of nitrogenous wastes

  • 59. 
    The term staging refers to ____.
    • A. 

      Presence of infection

    • B. 

      Degree of tumor metastasis

    • C. 

      Presence of blood

    • D. 

      Degree of heart block

  • 60. 
    The normal percentage of oxygen saturation in arterial blood is ____.
    • A. 

      96% to 100% of capacity

    • B. 

      90% to 95% of capacity

    • C. 

      85% to 89% of capacity

    • D. 

      80% to 84% of capacity

  • 61. 
    The ____ is the physician who will provide a biopsy report.
    • A. 

      General surgeon

    • B. 

      Family practitioner

    • C. 

      Pathologist

    • D. 

      Oncologist

  • 62. 
    The gram stain is a technique used to identify a ____.
    • A. 

      virus

    • B. 

      Bacteria

    • C. 

      Mold

    • D. 

      Prion

  • 63. 
    Anaerobic bacteria are able to survive ____.
    • A. 

      Without oxygen

    • B. 

      in high concentrations of oxygen

    • C. 

      In conditions of extreme heat or cold

    • D. 

      With or without oxygen

  • 64. 
    A culture provides information about the type of ____.
    • A. 

      helminth present

    • B. 

      virus present

    • C. 

      Bacteria present

    • D. 

      Cancer cells present

  • 65. 
    Thoracentesis is the removal of ____.
    • A. 

      CSF for laboratory analysis

    • B. 

      fluid from the pleural cavity

    • C. 

      Fluid from the peritoneal cavity

    • D. 

      fluid from a joint space

  • 66. 
    Electroencephalography is a recording of ____.
    • A. 

      fetal activity

    • B. 

      Electrical activity of the heart

    • C. 

      electrical activity of the brain

    • D. 

      Movement of blood circulation

  • 67. 
    Display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called ____.
    • A. 

      EEG

    • B. 

      ECG

    • C. 

      EMG

    • D. 

      PET scan

  • 68. 
    Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ____.
    • A. 

      Pulse oximetry

    • B. 

      Capnography

    • C. 

      Spirometry

    • D. 

      Plethysmography

  • 69. 
    An estimation of the arterial levels of carbon dioxide is determined with the use of ____.
    • A. 

      Pulse oximetry

    • B. 

      capnography

    • C. 

      Arterial blood gases

    • D. 

      plethysmography

  • 70. 
    Information about the patient's lung capacity, resistance, and ventilatory pressure is obtained and displayed with the use of ____.
    • A. 

      ECG

    • B. 

      capnography

    • C. 

      spirometry

    • D. 

      EMG

  • 71. 
    What is the first priority of the STSR when an intraoperative X-ray is being taken?
    • A. 

      Plethysmography

    • B. 

      phleborheography

    • C. 

      Electrocardiography

    • D. 

      Echocardiography

  • 72. 
    Roentgenography is synonymous with the term ____.
    • A. 

      protect the sterile field from contamination

    • B. 

      gown and glove X-ray technician

    • C. 

      Bring the radiographic equipment into the operating room

    • D. 

      deliver X-ray cassette to Radiography Department

  • 73. 
    Auscultation involves the use of a/an ____. 
    • A. 

      ultrasound

    • B. 

      Radiography

    • C. 

      electrodiagnostic studies

    • D. 

      pathology

  • 74. 
    An otoscope is used for viewing the ____.
    • A. 

      Endoscope

    • B. 

      C-arm

    • C. 

      stethoscope

    • D. 

      otoscope

  • 75. 
    Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be verified by ____.a
    • A. 

      peritoneal cavity

    • B. 

      Eye

    • C. 

      Brain

    • D. 

      Ear

  • 76. 
    Mammography utilizes X-rays to locate tumors of the ____.
    • A. 

      radiography

    • B. 

      Pulse oximetry

    • C. 

      Auscultation

    • D. 

      Endoscopy

  • 77. 
    Which of the following can be performed to create an easy entrance into most vessels of the body?
    • A. 

      brain

    • B. 

      spinal cord

    • C. 

      Breast

    • D. 

      Thyroid gland

  • 78. 
    Contrast media can be introduced ____.
    • A. 

      Spinal tap

    • B. 

      Seldinger technique

    • C. 

      Thoracentesis

    • D. 

      arthrotomy

  • 79. 
    For which portion of the body is Renografin most often used?
    • A. 

      Topically

    • B. 

      intravenously

    • C. 

      Rectally

    • D. 

      Nasopharyngeally

  • 80. 
    Which vein is frequently used for insertion of an angiographic catheter?
    • A. 

      Urinary system

    • B. 

      Biliary tree

    • C. 

      Ureters

    • D. 

      Cerebral portal

  • 81. 
    The Doppler probe can be utilized within the sterile field provided that it is ____.
    • A. 

      Radial

    • B. 

      Subclavian

    • C. 

      Cephalic

    • D. 

      saphenous

  • 82. 
    The normal blood value of platelets is ____.
    • A. 

      Cleaned with saline

    • B. 

      Covered with a sterile drape

    • C. 

      Never used within the sterile field

    • D. 

      Soaked in a low-level disinfectant