Pharm Practice Exam 3
(165).webp "Pharm Practice Exam 3 - Quiz")
airway disease, hypertension, endocarditis, CAD/dyslipidemia, heart failure, antiarrhythmics, anemias, DVT/thromboembolism
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A patient complains that his asthma symptoms are awakening him two or three times a week. When asked he states he uses his SABA about daily. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
- A.
SABA PRN
- B.
SABA PRN and low dose ICS
- C.
SABA PRN, low dose ICS and LABA
- D.
SABA PRN, medium dose ICS and LABA
- E.
SABA PRN, high dose ICS and LABA, consider omalizumab
Correct Answer
C. SABA PRN, low dose ICS and LABAExplanation
The patient's symptoms indicate that his asthma is not well controlled, as they are awakening him multiple times a week. The appropriate treatment in this case would be to add a low dose ICS (inhaled corticosteroid) and a LABA (long-acting beta agonist) to his current SABA (short-acting beta agonist) PRN (as needed) regimen. This combination therapy will help to reduce inflammation and provide long-term control of his asthma symptoms. Considering omalizumab, a biologic medication, may be considered if the patient's symptoms remain uncontrolled even with the addition of low dose ICS and LABA.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which EPR-3 stage of asthma describes the patient in question 1?
- A.
Intermittent
- B.
Mild persistent
- C.
Moderate persistent
- D.
Severe persistent
Correct Answer
C. Moderate persistentExplanation
The patient in question 1 is described as having moderate persistent asthma. This stage of asthma is characterized by symptoms occurring daily, nighttime awakenings occurring more than once a week, and the need for short-acting bronchodilator use daily. The patient may also experience limitations in physical activity and lung function tests may show a FEV1 between 60-80% predicted.Rate this question:
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- 3.
If the patient's asthma is well controlled, which of the following is false?
- A.
Symptoms occur less than 2 days per week
- B.
FEV1 is greater than 80% predicted or at personal best
- C.
There is no interference with normal activities
- D.
Nighttime awakenings occur less than twice per week
Correct Answer
D. Nighttime awakenings occur less than twice per weekExplanation
If the patient's asthma is well controlled, nighttime awakenings should occur less than twice per week. This means that the patient should not be waking up more than two times per week due to asthma symptoms during the night. If the patient is experiencing nighttime awakenings more frequently, it suggests that their asthma is not well controlled.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is not a short-acting Beta-2 agonist?
- A.
Theophylline
- B.
Levalbuterol
- C.
Albuterol
- D.
Salmeterol
Correct Answer(s)
A. Theophylline
D. SalmeterolExplanation
Theophylline and salmeterol are both long-acting Beta-2 agonists, while albuterol and levalbuterol are short-acting Beta-2 agonists. Theophylline is a bronchodilator that works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, but it is not classified as a short-acting Beta-2 agonist. Salmeterol is also a long-acting Beta-2 agonist commonly used for the maintenance treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Therefore, the correct answer is theophylline and salmeterol.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following drugs works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, preventing the breakdown of cAMP, causing smooth muscle relaxation?
- A.
Beta-2 agonists
- B.
Methylxanthines
- C.
Anticholinergics
- D.
Corticosteroids
Correct Answer
B. MethylxanthinesExplanation
Methylxanthines work by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which prevents the breakdown of cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate). By inhibiting phosphodiesterase, methylxanthines increase the levels of cAMP in smooth muscle cells, leading to smooth muscle relaxation. This relaxation effect helps to open up airways and improve breathing, making methylxanthines commonly used in the treatment of respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which will decrease the metabolism of theophylline?
- A.
Smoking
- B.
Phenytoin
- C.
Oral contraceptives
- D.
Erythromycin
Correct Answer
D. ErythromycinExplanation
Erythromycin is known to decrease the metabolism of theophylline. This is because erythromycin inhibits the activity of the enzyme responsible for metabolizing theophylline in the liver. As a result, theophylline levels in the body can increase, leading to potential adverse effects. Smoking, phenytoin, and oral contraceptives do not have a significant impact on the metabolism of theophylline.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the therapeutic range of methylxanthine?
- A.
1-10 mg/dL
- B.
5-15 mg/dL
- C.
1-15 mg/dL
- D.
5-20 mg/dL
Correct Answer
B. 5-15 mg/dLExplanation
The therapeutic range of methylxanthine is 5-15 mg/dL. This range is considered optimal for achieving the desired therapeutic effects of the medication while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Maintaining methylxanthine levels within this range ensures that the drug is effective in treating conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and apnea of prematurity, without causing adverse effects. Higher levels may lead to toxicity symptoms like nausea, vomiting, tremors, and seizures, while lower levels may result in inadequate therapeutic response. Therefore, monitoring and adjusting methylxanthine dosages to maintain levels within this range is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of methylxanthine?
- A.
CNS stimulation
- B.
Arrhythmia
- C.
Dysphonia
- D.
Convulsions
Correct Answer
C. DysphoniaExplanation
Dysphonia is not an adverse effect of methylxanthine. Methylxanthine is a class of drugs that includes caffeine and theophylline, which are known for their stimulant effects on the central nervous system (CNS). These drugs can cause CNS stimulation, leading to increased alertness and wakefulness. They can also cause arrhythmias, or irregular heart rhythms, and convulsions in some cases. However, dysphonia, which refers to difficulty or discomfort in speaking, is not typically associated with the use of methylxanthines.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following is not in the current guidelines for asthma?
- A.
Beta-2 Agonists
- B.
Anticholinergics
- C.
Corticosteroids
- D.
Leukotriene modifiers
Correct Answer
B. AnticholinergicsExplanation
Anticholinergics are not included in the current guidelines for asthma. The current guidelines recommend the use of beta-2 agonists, corticosteroids, and leukotriene modifiers for the management of asthma. Anticholinergics, such as ipratropium bromide, are not considered as first-line treatment options for asthma. They may be used in certain cases, such as for acute exacerbations or in combination with other medications, but they are not included in the current guidelines as a standard treatment option for asthma.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is true concerning patient education for use of an MDI?
- A.
Pts should put the inhaler in their mouth, especially when using steroids.
- B.
The patient should wait 15-30 seconds between puffs in all inhalers except SABAs
- C.
The patient should press the inhaler while breathing out slowly and deeply
- D.
Patients should hold their breath as they count to ten slowly if possible.
Correct Answer
D. Patients should hold their breath as they count to ten slowly if possible.Explanation
The correct answer is that patients should hold their breath as they count to ten slowly if possible. This is because holding the breath allows the medication to fully reach the lungs and be absorbed effectively. By holding the breath, the patient ensures that the medication has enough time to reach the desired area and have its intended effect. This technique is especially important for patients using an MDI (Metered Dose Inhaler) to ensure optimal delivery of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Infiltration with basophils is associated with:
- A.
Asthma
- B.
COPD
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
Endocarditis
Correct Answer
A. AsthmaExplanation
Infiltration with basophils is associated with asthma because basophils are a type of white blood cell that plays a role in allergic reactions. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, often triggered by allergens. Basophils release histamine and other chemicals that contribute to the inflammation and constriction of the airways in asthma. Therefore, the presence of basophils in the infiltrate is indicative of the allergic response seen in asthma.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which is the strongest diuretic?
- A.
Hydrochlorothiazide
- B.
Spironolactone
- C.
Furosemide
- D.
Amiloride
Correct Answer
C. FurosemideExplanation
Furosemide is the strongest diuretic among the options given. It belongs to a class of drugs called loop diuretics, which work by blocking the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. Furosemide is commonly used to treat conditions such as edema, congestive heart failure, and hypertension, where increased urine output is desired. It has a rapid onset of action and a potent diuretic effect compared to other diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide, spironolactone, and amiloride.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is a non-selective beta blocker?
- A.
Atenolol
- B.
Propanolol
- C.
Metoprolol
- D.
Acebutolol
Correct Answer
B. PropanololExplanation
Propanolol is a non-selective beta blocker because it blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. This means that it affects both the heart and the lungs. Atenolol, metoprolol, and acebutolol are all selective beta blockers, meaning they primarily target the beta-1 receptors in the heart.Rate this question:
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Jan 30, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Feb 21, 2010Quiz Created by
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