Pharm- Chf/ Antiarrhythmics/ Antianginals

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  • 1/55 Questions

    CHF includes congestion of the pulmonary or systemic circulation (backward failure) and reduced output to body tissues (forward failure)

    • True
    • False
Please wait...
About This Quiz

Ready for more work on pharmacy? Today we’ll be looking at a number of different pharmaceuticals, including antiarrhythmic agents, which are used to suppress abnormal rhythms of the heart. What can you tell us about this and more?

Pharm- Chf/ Antiarrhythmics/ Antianginals - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following  is not true about CHF

    • May be a chronic or an acute condition

    • Includes backwards and forward failure

    • Kidneys retain sodium and water

    • Leg and GI edema is seen in Left sided CHF

    Correct Answer
    A. Leg and GI edema is seen in Left sided CHF
    Explanation
    Leg and GI edema is not seen in left-sided CHF. Left-sided heart failure typically causes pulmonary edema, which results in symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. Right-sided heart failure, on the other hand, can cause peripheral edema, including edema in the legs and gastrointestinal tract.

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  • 3. 

    The triad of Right Ventricular Failure  features all of the following symptoms except

    • JVD

    • Clear Lungs

    • Tachypnea

    • Hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. Tachypnea
    Explanation
    Tachypnea is not a symptom of right ventricular failure. Right ventricular failure is characterized by JVD (jugular venous distention), clear lungs (indicating absence of pulmonary edema), and hypotension. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which is not directly associated with right ventricular failure.

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  • 4. 

    Ascites, Pleural Effusion and Pericardial Effusion are Signs of Right Heart Failure

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ascites, pleural effusion, and pericardial effusion are all fluid accumulations that can occur as a result of right heart failure. Right heart failure is characterized by the inability of the right side of the heart to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid backing up into the body's organs and tissues. Ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, pleural effusion is the buildup of fluid in the space around the lungs, and pericardial effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the sac surrounding the heart. Therefore, these three conditions are indeed signs of right heart failure.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following would not be included in first line drug therapy for CHF?

    • Fosiniopril (Monopril)

    • Candesartan (Atacand)

    • Metoprolol (Lopressor)

    • Captopril (Capoten)

    Correct Answer
    A. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
    Explanation
    first line includes ACE inhibitors and ARBs

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is a second-line drug for CHF?

    • Telmisartan (Micardis)

    • Digoxin (Lanoxin)

    • Inamrinone (Inocor)

    • A&C

    • B&C

    Correct Answer
    A. B&C
    Explanation
    Digoxin (Lanoxin) and Inamrinone (Inocor) are both second-line drugs for CHF. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that increases the force of the heart's contractions, while Inamrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that improves cardiac contractility. These drugs are used when first-line treatments, such as ACE inhibitors or beta blockers, are not sufficient in managing CHF symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is B&C.

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  • 7. 

    ACE inhibitors/ARBs increase Cardiac Output in CHF and non CHF patients

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    increase in CHF patients only

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  • 8. 

    Bumetanide (Bumex) and Fursimide (Lasix) are which class of drug

    • Thiazide diuretics

    • Loop Diuretics

    • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

    • Cardiac Glycosides

    Correct Answer
    A. Loop Diuretics
    Explanation
    Bumetanide (Bumex) and Furosemide (Lasix) are classified as loop diuretics. Loop diuretics work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production and removal of excess fluid from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as edema, high blood pressure, and congestive heart failure. Thiazide diuretics, phosphodiesterase inhibitors, and cardiac glycosides are different classes of drugs with different mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is a diuretics is less likely to be used in CHF because of its low level of effectiveness?

    • Furosemide (Lasix)

    • Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)

    • Bumetanide (Bumex)

    Correct Answer
    A. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)
    Explanation
    Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) is less likely to be used in CHF because of its low level of effectiveness. Diuretics are commonly used in CHF to reduce fluid buildup and relieve symptoms. Furosemide (Lasix) and Bumetanide (Bumex) are more commonly used diuretics in CHF due to their higher effectiveness in promoting diuresis. However, Metolazone has a weaker diuretic effect compared to these drugs, making it less effective in managing fluid overload in CHF patients.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is a Cardiac Glycoside?

    • Furosemide (Lasix)

    • Carvedilol (Coreg)

    • Milrinone (Primacor)

    • Digoxin (Lanoxin)

    Correct Answer
    A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
    Explanation
    Digoxin (Lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside. Cardiac glycosides are a class of medications that are used to treat heart failure and certain heart rhythm disorders. They work by increasing the force of the heart's contractions and slowing down the heart rate. Digoxin specifically is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure. It helps to improve the heart's pumping ability and reduce symptoms such as shortness of breath and fluid retention. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic, Carvedilol (Coreg) is a beta blocker, and Milrinone (Primacor) is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, none of which are cardiac glycosides.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not true about Cardiac Glycosides?

    • Positive Inotropic effects

    • Negative chronotropic effects

    • Indicated for VFib/Tachycardia

    • Should be used cautiously in pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicated for VFib/Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Cardiac glycosides are medications used to treat heart failure and certain arrhythmias. They have positive inotropic effects, meaning they increase the force of contraction of the heart muscle. They also have negative chronotropic effects, which means they decrease the heart rate. However, cardiac glycosides are not indicated for ventricular fibrillation (VFib) or tachycardia. They are typically used for atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. Additionally, cardiac glycosides should be used cautiously in pregnancy due to their potential effects on the fetus.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following drugs slows progression of heart failure and helps to reverse cardiac remodelling?

    • Atenolol (Tenormin)

    • Digoxin (lanoxin)

    • Milrinone (Primacor)

    • Hydralazine (Apresoline)

    Correct Answer
    A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
    Explanation
    beta blockers may actually worsen heart failure even though they have these positive effects

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is true about Phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

    • Uusually used for long term therapy

    • Includes Milrinone (Primacor) and Inamrinone (Inocor)

    • Prevents ventricular dysrhythmias

    • A & B

    • B & C

    Correct Answer
    A. Includes Milrinone (Primacor) and Inamrinone (Inocor)
    Explanation
    Phosphodiesterase inhibitors, including Milrinone (Primacor) and Inamrinone (Inocor), are usually used for long-term therapy. These medications work by inhibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase, which increases the levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in the cells. This leads to smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation, improving cardiac output and reducing afterload. While they do not directly prevent ventricular dysrhythmias, their positive inotropic effects can help stabilize the heart's rhythm and improve overall cardiac function. Therefore, the correct answer is "includes Milrinone (Primacor) and Inamrinone (Inocor)."

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following drugs reduce cardiac oxygen demand and are used when ACE inhibitors are not tolerated?

    • Milrinone (Primacor)

    • Nitroprusside (Nitropress)

    • Digoxin (Lanoxin)

    • Furosemide (Lasix)

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
    Explanation
    this describes direct vasodilators

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is true about Spironolactone?

    • Is a direct aldosterone antagonist

    • Prevents hyperkalemia and Na+ retention

    • Reverses cardiac remodeling

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a direct aldosterone antagonist
    Explanation
    Spironolactone is a direct aldosterone antagonist, meaning it blocks the action of aldosterone in the body. Aldosterone is a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels, so by inhibiting its effects, spironolactone can prevent hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and Na+ (sodium) retention. It does not, however, reverse cardiac remodeling.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following pacemaker-rate pairings are correct?

    • SA node 40-60

    • Ventricles 60-100

    • AV Junction 40-60

    • SA Node 20-40

    Correct Answer
    A. AV Junction 40-60
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AV Junction 40-60. The AV Junction is responsible for transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles. A normal heart rate for the AV Junction is between 40 and 60 beats per minute. This range ensures proper coordination between the atria and ventricles, allowing for efficient blood flow.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following would not be an indication for Pharmacotherapy in Arrhythmia patients?

    • Hemodynamic compromise occurs

    • Decrease in myocardial oxygen demand

    • Potential for malignant ventricular arrhythmias

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease in myocardial oxygen demand
    Explanation
    A decrease in myocardial oxygen demand would not be an indication for pharmacotherapy in arrhythmia patients because it does not directly address the abnormal heart rhythm. Pharmacotherapy is typically used to treat arrhythmias by either controlling the heart rate or restoring the normal heart rhythm. A decrease in myocardial oxygen demand may be beneficial for patients with heart disease or angina, but it does not specifically target the arrhythmia itself.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is inconsistent with the goals of antiarrhythmic therapy

    • Restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm

    • Suppress excitable areas outside normal pathway

    • Control ventricular rate and optimize cardiac output

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The answer "none of the above" is correct because all of the given options are consistent with the goals of antiarrhythmic therapy. Restoring and maintaining normal sinus rhythm, suppressing excitable areas outside the normal pathway, and controlling ventricular rate and optimizing cardiac output are all important objectives in the treatment of arrhythmias. Therefore, none of the options are inconsistent with the goals of antiarrhythmic therapy.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is true about Class I Antiaarhythmic drugs??

    • Divided into 3 sections

    • Alters potassium concentration of cell membrane

    • Alters sodium concentration of cell membrane

    • A & C

    • A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. A & C
    Explanation
    Class I antiarrhythmic drugs are divided into three sections based on their effects on the sodium concentration of the cell membrane. These drugs can alter both the potassium and sodium concentrations of the cell membrane. Therefore, the correct answer is A & C.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following Antiarrhythmic Classes is a Beta Blocker?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • Ib

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Beta blockers are a type of antiarrhythmic medication that work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart. Class II antiarrhythmics, which include drugs like propranolol and metoprolol, are beta blockers. These medications are commonly used to treat arrhythmias by slowing down the heart rate and reducing the force of contractions. Therefore, the correct answer is II.

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  • 21. 

    Class IV Antiarrhythmic drugs are _____________ blockers

    • Beta

    • Na+

    • K+

    • Ca++

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Ca++
    Explanation
    Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs are calcium (Ca++) blockers. These drugs work by blocking the calcium channels in the heart, which helps to slow down the conduction of electrical impulses and relax the smooth muscle in the heart. By blocking calcium, these drugs can help to control abnormal heart rhythms and prevent certain types of arrhythmias.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is a Class Ic Antiarrhythmic?

    • Quinidine

    • Propafenone (Rythmol)

    • Lidocaine

    • Mexiletene

    Correct Answer
    A. Propafenone (Rythmol)
    Explanation
    Propafenone (Rythmol) is classified as a Class Ic antiarrhythmic medication. This class of drugs works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal heart rhythms. Quinidine, Lidocaine, and Mexiletene are also antiarrhythmic medications, but they belong to different classes (Class Ia, Ib, and Ib respectively).

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is a Class Ia Antiarrhythmic?

    • Flecainide (Tambocor)

    • Disopyramide (Norpace)

    • Mexiletene

    • A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. Disopyramide (Norpace)
    Explanation
    Disopyramide (Norpace) is classified as a Class Ia antiarrhythmic medication. Class Ia antiarrhythmics work by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which slows down the conduction of electrical impulses and helps to stabilize abnormal heart rhythms. Flecainide (Tambocor) and Mexiletene are both Class Ic antiarrhythmics, which have a similar mechanism of action but are not classified as Class Ia. Therefore, the correct answer is Disopyramide (Norpace).

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  • 24. 

    Lidocaine and Mexiletene are which class of Antiarrhythmic?

    • IV

    • Misc

    • Ib

    • Ic

    Correct Answer
    A. Ib
    Explanation
    Lidocaine and Mexiletene belong to class Ib of antiarrhythmics. Class Ib antiarrhythmics are characterized by their ability to selectively block sodium channels in cardiac cells, which helps to stabilize the electrical activity of the heart and prevent abnormal heart rhythms. These drugs are particularly effective in treating ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following drugs is a moderate sodium channel blocker and may promote Torsades des Pointes?

    • Lidocaine

    • Flecainide (Tambocor)

    • Propafenone (Rythmol)

    • Quinidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Quinidine
    Explanation
    Class Ia

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  • 26. 

    After reviewing a pt's charts you see that they are on Quinidine. Which of the following assumptions may be true?

    • Their dosage was 300mg b.i.d

    • They may have had Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

    • They were using a Class 1b sodium channel blocker

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. They may have had Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
    Explanation
    dosage is q.i.d/every 6 hrs

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  • 27. 

    Pregnancy, Bacterial endocarditis, Myasthenia gravis and Hx of Torsades des Pointes are contraindications for which of the following drugs?

    • Lidocaine

    • Flecainide (Tambocor)

    • Adenosine (Adenocard)

    • Quinidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Quinidine
    Explanation
    Pregnancy, bacterial endocarditis, myasthenia gravis, and a history of Torsades des Pointes are contraindications for Quinidine.

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  • 28. 

    A patient presents with CHF and recent onset of arrhythmia. They have NKDA and currently take Verapamil. Which of the following drugs should not be prescribed for their arrhytmias?

    • Quinidine

    • Lidocaine

    • Propanolol (Inderal)

    • A & C

    Correct Answer
    A. A & C
    Explanation
    both have significant interactions with verapamil

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  • 29. 

    A patient presents to the ER for an MI and later develops arrythmias. Which of the following drugs should be used to treat them?

    • Flecainide (Tambocor)

    • Lidocaine (Generic)

    • Amiodarone (Cordarone)

    • Ibutilide (Corvert)

    Correct Answer
    A. Lidocaine (Generic)
    Explanation
    Flecainide (Tambocor) = high toxicity, and is a last ditch drug
    lidocaine is very effective in MI associated arrhythmias and has a low risk of toxicity

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  • 30. 

    Lidocaine is given IV with a starting dose of 150-200mg over 15 mins

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Lidocaine is indeed given intravenously (IV) with a starting dose of 150-200mg administered over a period of 15 minutes. This method of administration allows for a rapid onset of action and is commonly used for various medical purposes, such as local anesthesia, cardiac arrhythmias, and pain management.

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  • 31. 

    A patient presents with MI associated arrhythmias. they are currently taking Amiodarone, Verapamil, Quinidine. and Digoxin. Which of these drugs would have to be discontinued if you want to start the patient on Lidocaine?

    • Amiodarone

    • Verapamil

    • Quinidine

    • Digoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Amiodarone
    Explanation
    Amiodarone would have to be discontinued if the patient wants to start on Lidocaine. Lidocaine is a class Ib antiarrhythmic drug, and combining it with Amiodarone, which is a class III antiarrhythmic drug, can increase the risk of serious side effects such as QT prolongation and ventricular arrhythmias. Therefore, it is recommended to discontinue Amiodarone before starting Lidocaine to avoid potential drug interactions and adverse effects.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is a strong sodium channel blocker

    • Class Ia drugs

    • Flecainide (Tambocor)

    • Lidocaine

    • Amiodarone (Cordarone)

    Correct Answer
    A. Flecainide (Tambocor)
    Explanation
    Flecainide (Tambocor) is a strong sodium channel blocker. Class Ia drugs, including Flecainide, work by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal heart rhythms. Lidocaine and Amiodarone are also antiarrhythmic drugs, but they belong to different classes and have different mechanisms of action. Lidocaine is a Class Ib drug that primarily blocks sodium channels in damaged or ischemic tissues, while Amiodarone is a Class III drug that affects multiple ion channels in the heart. Therefore, Flecainide is the correct answer as it is specifically classified as a strong sodium channel blocker.

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  • 33. 

    For SVT prophylaxis you should prescribe Flacainide ( Tambocor) -100mg q12hrs and increase 100mg/day  max 400mg./day

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    this is the the Ventricular arrythmia dose. SVT is 50mg and increase to a max of 300mg/day

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following EKG findings is inconsistent with a WPW Syndrome patient?

    • Long p-r interval

    • Delta wave

    • Long QRS complex

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Long p-r interval
    Explanation
    A long p-r interval is inconsistent with a WPW Syndrome patient because WPW Syndrome is characterized by a shortened p-r interval due to an abnormal accessory pathway. This pathway allows for rapid conduction of electrical impulses, resulting in a shortened p-r interval. Therefore, a long p-r interval would be inconsistent with this condition.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following describes Flecainide (Tambocor)?

    • Common first line PO drug

    • Relatively low risk of toxicity

    • Effective PVC suppressor

    • No serious side effects

    • B & D

    Correct Answer
    A. Effective PVC suppressor
    Explanation
    not first line PO, side effect: life threatening V-Tach, effective PVC supressor, last ditch drug b/c high toxicity

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is not a selective beta-1 antagonist used for Antiarrhythmatic therapy?

    • Esmolol (brevibloc)

    • Motoprolol (Lopressor)

    • Propanolol (Inderal)

    • Acebutolol (Sectral)

    Correct Answer
    A. Propanolol (Inderal)
    Explanation
    Propanolol (Inderal) is not a selective beta-1 antagonist used for Antiarrhythmatic therapy. It is a non-selective beta blocker that blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. Esmolol (brevibloc), Motoprolol (Lopressor), and Acebutolol (Sectral) are all selective beta-1 antagonists that are commonly used for Antiarrhythmatic therapy.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following describes Acebutolol (sectral)

    • Good choice for short term SVT Management

    • Good choice for refractory tachycardia

    • Class I Antiarrhythmatic

    • Effective in the management of PVCs

    • A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. Effective in the management of PVCs
    Explanation
    A & B describe Esmolol (Brevibloc)

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  • 38. 

    Propanolol (Inderal) is given PO 10-30mg t.i.d-q.i.d most commonly but in emergencies it is given IV 1-3mg and repeated as needed every 1-2mins

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because Propanolol (Inderal) is commonly administered orally at a dosage of 10-30mg, three to four times a day. However, in emergency situations, it can also be given intravenously at a lower dosage of 1-3mg, and repeated as necessary every 1-2 minutes. This allows for a faster onset of action and more immediate effects in emergency situations.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is an indication for Propanolol (inderal)

    • COPD

    • Essential Tremor

    • Asthma

    • Diabetes

    • A & C

    Correct Answer
    A. Essential Tremor
    Explanation
    Other answers are contraindications...other indications include post MI, Migraine prophylaxis, and performance anxiety

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  • 40. 

    Amiodarone (cordarone), Ibutilide (Corvert), Dofetilie (tikosyn), and Sotalol (Betapace) all share which of the following properties?

    • Sodium Channel blockers

    • Class III Antiarrythmic

    • Have both Beta and potasium blocking properties

    • Rarely cause arrythmias

    Correct Answer
    A. Class III Antiarrythmic
    Explanation
    c= Sotalol (betapace) and all Class III drugs have the potential to induce arrhythmia

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following true about Amiodarone?

    • Available IV 400-1600mg/day and PO 150mg then increase to 360

    • Half life of 58 days

    • No serious side effects

    • Treat AFib/Flutter and V Tach

    • B & D

    Correct Answer
    A. B & D
    Explanation
    Dosage is PO 400-1600mg/day and IV 150mg then increase to 360
    may cause worse dysrhythmias and pulmonary fibrosis

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following drugs are better for supraventricular arrythmias than ventricular?

    • Amiodarone(Cordarone)

    • Class IV Antiarrhythmics

    • Quinidine

    • Adenosine (Adenocard)

    Correct Answer
    A. Class IV Antiarrhythmics
    Explanation
    Class IV antiarrhythmics are better for supraventricular arrhythmias than ventricular arrhythmias because they specifically target and block the calcium channels in the heart's conduction system. This action helps to slow down the electrical conduction in the atrioventricular (AV) node, which is responsible for transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles. By inhibiting the AV node conduction, class IV antiarrhythmics can effectively treat supraventricular arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter, without significantly affecting the ventricular conduction.

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  • 43. 

    A patient present with recent arrythmia. Their EKG shows delta waves, short PR intervals and long QRS complexes. Which of the following medications are contraindicated?

    • Verapamil (Calan)

    • Adenosine (Adenocard)

    • Digoxin (Lanoxin)

    • Dronedarone (Multaq)

    Correct Answer
    A. Verapamil (Calan)
    Explanation
    contraindicated in WPW syndrome

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  • 44. 

    Adenosine (Adenocard) can be describe by all of the following except

    • Short half life of 15 seconds

    • Administered PO

    • Negatice Inotrope, Chronotrope, and Dromotrope

    • DOC for acute SVT

    Correct Answer
    A. Administered PO
    Explanation
    only administered as rapid IV bolus

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  • 45. 

    You should warn your patient to expect transient asystole, facial flushing, dyspnea, hypotension and palpitations  when taking which of the following drugs ?

    • Amiodarone ( Cordarone)

    • Adenosine (Adenocard)

    • Digoxin ( Lanoxin)

    • Dronedarone (Multaq)

    Correct Answer
    A. Adenosine (Adenocard)
    Explanation
    Adenosine (Adenocard) is the correct answer because it is known to cause transient asystole, facial flushing, dyspnea, hypotension, and palpitations. Adenosine is commonly used in the treatment of supraventricular tachycardia, and these side effects are expected due to its mechanism of action. It works by slowing down the electrical conduction in the heart, which can briefly stop the heart (asystole) before it restarts in a normal rhythm. The facial flushing, dyspnea, hypotension, and palpitations are all common side effects of adenosine administration.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following drugs is conveniently available as IM IV and PO but need to monitored for toxicity?

    • Verapamil (Calan)

    • Digoxin (Lanoxin)

    • Adenosine (Adenocard)

    • Flecainide (Tambocor)

    Correct Answer
    A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
    Explanation
    Digoxin (Lanoxin) is conveniently available as intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), and oral (PO) formulations. However, it needs to be monitored for toxicity. This suggests that while it is easily accessible in different forms for administration, there is a risk of potential adverse effects or harmful reactions. Monitoring for toxicity is necessary to ensure the safe and effective use of the drug.

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  • 47. 

    /Which of the following drugs has proporties of all the Antiarrhythmatic classes but has a black box warning for heart failure?

    • Adenosine (Adenocard)

    • Dronedarone (Multaq)

    • Disopyramide (Norpace)

    • Propafenone (Rythmol)

    Correct Answer
    A. Dronedarone (Multaq)
    Explanation
    Dronedarone (Multaq) is the correct answer because it has properties of all the antiarrhythmic classes, meaning it can be used to treat different types of arrhythmias. However, it also has a black box warning for heart failure, which means that it can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms or even cause heart failure in some patients. This warning indicates that caution should be exercised when prescribing this drug to patients with a history of heart failure or those at risk for developing heart failure.

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  • 48. 

    Angina results from an imbalance between O2 demand and O2 delivery

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Angina is a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. This happens when there is an imbalance between the demand for oxygen by the heart and the delivery of oxygen to the heart. Therefore, it is true that angina results from an imbalance between O2 demand and O2 delivery.

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  • 49. 

    Angina pain commonly radiates to all of the following places except

    • Left shoulder

    • Abdomen

    • Left arm

    • Spine

    • Jaw

    Correct Answer
    A. Abdomen
    Explanation
    Angina pain is caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. It typically presents as a discomfort or pain in the chest, but can also radiate to other areas. The pain commonly radiates to the left shoulder, left arm, spine, and jaw due to the nerve pathways that connect these areas to the heart. However, it does not typically radiate to the abdomen. This is because the nerves that supply sensation to the abdomen are not directly connected to the heart, therefore making it an exception in terms of angina pain radiation.

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