Pharm 502 Quiz 2 Material

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Pharm 502 Quiz 2 Material - Quiz


This quiz is for the Purdue Calumet Nurse Practitioner Graduate nursing pharmacology program. The material in this quiz is for quiz number 2. The legalities of prescribing and the beginnings of the antibiotic section


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Normal WBC levels are

    • A.

      5,000 - 10,000

    • B.

      50%

    • C.

      More Bands than Segs

    • D.

      Fight infection and foreign bodies

    Correct Answer
    A. 5,000 - 10,000
    Explanation
    The normal range for white blood cell (WBC) levels in the body is between 5,000 and 10,000. This range is considered to be within the healthy and typical range for most individuals. White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, play a crucial role in the body's immune system. They help fight off infections and foreign bodies that may enter the body, such as bacteria or viruses. Maintaining WBC levels within this range is important for a healthy immune response.

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  • 2. 

    Types of white blood cells include

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      Basophils

    • D.

      Monocytes

    • E.

      Lymphocytes

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Neutrophils
    B. Eosinophils
    C. Basophils
    D. Monocytes
    E. Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all the types of white blood cells, namely neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes. White blood cells are an essential component of the immune system and play a crucial role in defending the body against infections and diseases. Each type of white blood cell has its own specific functions and characteristics. Neutrophils are the most abundant and are responsible for engulfing and destroying bacteria. Eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasites. Basophils release histamine and other chemicals during allergic reactions. Monocytes are large cells that can differentiate into macrophages and engulf pathogens. Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses and can be further categorized into B cells and T cells.

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  • 3. 

    Neutrophils are the most common type of WBC

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cells (WBCs) in the body. They play a crucial role in the immune system by fighting off infections and foreign substances. Neutrophils are responsible for phagocytosis, which is the process of engulfing and destroying pathogens. They are highly mobile and quickly respond to infection or inflammation. Due to their abundance and important functions, neutrophils are considered the most common type of WBC in the body.

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  • 4. 

    These are the most common of the WBCs and serve as the primary defense against infection. The typical response to infection or serious injury is an increased production of

    • A.

      Segmented Neutrophils

    • B.

      Banded Neutrophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Segmented Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Segmented neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cells (WBCs) and play a crucial role in the body's defense against infection. When there is an infection or serious injury, the body increases the production of segmented neutrophils to help combat the infection. These cells are capable of engulfing and destroying bacteria and other foreign substances, thereby preventing the spread of infection. The presence of segmented neutrophils in the blood is indicative of an active immune response and suggests that the body is fighting off an infection or injury.

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  • 5. 

    Early in the response to infection, immature forms of neutrophils will be seen. These are call ________  cells. The presence of these immature cells is called a "shift to the left" and can be the earliest sign of a WBC response, even before the WBC becomes elevated.

    • A.

      Segs

    • B.

      Bands

    • C.

      Monocypes

    • D.

      Neutrophils

    Correct Answer
    B. Bands
    Explanation
    Early in the response to infection, immature forms of neutrophils are seen. These immature neutrophils are called "bands." The presence of bands in the blood is referred to as a "shift to the left." This shift to the left can be observed before there is an increase in the total white blood cell count. Therefore, bands are the correct answer as they represent the immature neutrophils that are seen in the early stages of infection.

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  • 6. 

    These cells respond to inflammation, infection and foreign bodies by ingesting and digesting the foreign material. Increased ___________   counts are associated with:
    • Recovery from an acute infection
    • Viral illness
    • Parasitic infections
    • Collagen disease
    • Some cancers
    Decreased ________  counts are associated with:
    • HIV infection
    • Rheumatoid arthritis
    • Steroid exposure
    • Some cancers

    • A.

      Lymphocytes

    • B.

      Monocytes

    • C.

      Neutrophils

    • D.

      Basophils

    Correct Answer
    B. Monocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response. They are phagocytes, meaning they can engulf and digest foreign material such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites. When there is inflammation, infection, or the presence of foreign bodies in the body, monocytes are activated and increase in number. Therefore, increased monocyte counts are associated with recovery from acute infections, viral illnesses, parasitic infections, collagen diseases, and some cancers. On the other hand, decreased monocyte counts are associated with conditions such as HIV infection, rheumatoid arthritis, steroid exposure, and some cancers.

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  • 7. 

    These cells play both an immediate and delayed role in response to infection or inflammation. Increased numbers of ___________  are seen in:
    • Most viral infections
    • Some bacterial infections
    • Some cancers
    • Graves' disease
    Decreased numbers of __________  are seen in:
    • Steroid exposure
    • Some cancers
    • Immunodeficiency
    • Renal failure
    • Lupus

    • A.

      Lymphocytes

    • B.

      Monocytes

    • C.

      Neutrophils

    • D.

      Basophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body's immune response. They are involved in both the immediate and delayed response to infection or inflammation. In viral infections, bacterial infections, some cancers, and Graves' disease, there is an increased number of lymphocytes present. This is because the body is trying to fight off the infection or abnormal cells. On the other hand, decreased numbers of lymphocytes are seen in conditions such as steroid exposure, some cancers, immunodeficiency, renal failure, and lupus. This decrease in lymphocytes can weaken the immune system and make the body more susceptible to infections.

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  • 8. 

    • Neutrophils are what percentage of the total WBC?

    • A.

      20 to 40 %

    • B.

      2 to 8

    • C.

      1 to 4

    • D.

      0 to 3

    • E.

      40 to 60

    Correct Answer
    E. 40 to 60
    Explanation
    Neutrophils make up a significant percentage of the total white blood cells (WBC) in the body, ranging from 40 to 60%. This means that out of every 100 WBCs, approximately 40 to 60 of them are neutrophils. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response, particularly in fighting bacterial infections. Their high percentage in the total WBC count reflects their importance in the body's defense against pathogens.

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  • 9. 

  • Lymphocytes are what percent of the total WBC's
    • A.

      20 - 40

    • B.

      2 - 8

    • C.

      1 - 4

    • D.

      0 - 3

    • E.

      40 - 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 - 40
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes make up approximately 20-40% of the total white blood cells (WBCs). This means that out of every 100 white blood cells, 20-40 of them are lymphocytes.

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  • 10. 

  • Monocytes are what percent of the total WBC's
    • A.

      20 -40

    • B.

      2 - 8

    • C.

      1 - 4

    • D.

      0 - 3

    • E.

      40 - 60

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 - 8
    Explanation
    Monocytes are a type of white blood cells (WBCs) that play a crucial role in the immune system. The given answer range of 2-8 percent represents the normal percentage of monocytes in the total WBC count. This means that monocytes typically make up around 2-8 percent of the total white blood cells in the body.

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  • 11. 

    Eosinophils are what percent of the total WBC's

    • A.

      20 - 40

    • B.

      2 - 8

    • C.

      1 - 4

    • D.

      0 - 3

    • E.

      40 - 60

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 - 4
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that make up approximately 1-4% of the total WBC count.

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  • 12. 

    Basophils are what percent of total WBC

    • A.

      20 - 40

    • B.

      2 - 8

    • C.

      0.5 - 1

    • D.

      40 - 60

    • E.

      0 - 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.5 - 1
    Explanation
    Basophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that play a role in the immune response. They make up a small percentage of the total WBC count, typically ranging from 0.5% to 1%. This means that for every 100 white blood cells, 0.5 to 1 of them are basophils.

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  • 13. 

    Bands are what percent of total WBC

    • A.

      20 - 40

    • B.

      2 - 8

    • C.

      0.5 - 1

    • D.

      40 - 60

    • E.

      0 - 3

    Correct Answer
    E. 0 - 3
    Explanation
    This answer represents the percentage range of bands (immature white blood cells) in the total white blood cell count. The range of 0-3% suggests that bands make up a very small percentage of the total white blood cells.

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  • 14. 

    Penicillins have a potential side effect of seizure

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Penicillins, a group of antibiotics, have been known to have the potential side effect of causing seizures. Seizures are sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbances in the brain that can result in various symptoms such as convulsions, loss of consciousness, and abnormal movements. While this side effect is rare, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of it and monitor patients closely, especially those who may be at a higher risk for seizures. Therefore, the statement "Penicillins have a potential side effect of seizure" is true.

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  • 15. 

    1. Nursing Implications, monitoring parameters and patient instructions
      1. Check _______
      2. Adjust dosage in decreased renal function

  • Correct Answer
    allergy
    Explanation
    This question is asking the healthcare provider to check for allergies in the patient. This is important because if the patient has an allergy to a certain medication, it could cause adverse reactions or complications. The healthcare provider should monitor the patient for any signs of an allergic reaction and adjust the dosage of medications if the patient has decreased renal function. This is because decreased renal function can affect the clearance of medications from the body, so a lower dosage may be needed to prevent toxicity.

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  • 16. 

    1. Nursing Implications, monitoring parameters and patient instructions
      1. Check allergy history
        1. Adjust ________________ 

  • Correct Answer
    dose in decreased renal function
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that the nurse should adjust the dose of medication in patients with decreased renal function. This is important because the kidneys play a crucial role in eliminating drugs from the body, and if their function is impaired, the drug may not be cleared efficiently, leading to potential toxicity. Therefore, adjusting the dose ensures that the medication is appropriate for the patient's renal function, minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

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  • 17. 

    Penicillin

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Second Generation

    • C.

      Third Generation

    Correct Answer
    A. First Generation
    Explanation
    Penicillin is classified into different generations based on their spectrum of activity and pharmacokinetic properties. The first generation of penicillin includes drugs like penicillin G and penicillin V, which are narrow-spectrum antibiotics effective against Gram-positive bacteria. These drugs have a short half-life and require frequent dosing. Second and third-generation penicillins were developed to have broader spectra of activity, increased resistance to beta-lactamase enzymes, and improved pharmacokinetic properties. However, the given question does not provide any context or criteria to determine the correct answer.

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  • 18. 

    Ampicillin

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Second Generation

    • C.

      Third Generation

    Correct Answer
    A. First Generation
  • 19. 

    Amoxicillin

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Second Generation

    • C.

      Third Generation

    Correct Answer
    A. First Generation
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin belongs to the first generation of antibiotics. First-generation antibiotics are the earliest developed drugs in a particular class and are usually effective against a broad range of bacteria. They are often used to treat common infections such as respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and skin infections. Amoxicillin is a commonly prescribed antibiotic that is effective against a wide variety of bacteria, including both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. It is frequently used to treat infections caused by streptococci, staphylococci, and other organisms.

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  • 20. 

    First Generation penicillins have good gram negative coverage

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    First Generation penicillins have limited gram negative coverage. They are primarily effective against gram positive bacteria, such as Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species. Gram negative bacteria, on the other hand, have an outer membrane that makes it difficult for penicillins to penetrate and kill these types of bacteria. Therefore, the statement that First Generation penicillins have good gram negative coverage is false.

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  • 21. 

    First generation penicillins have good gram positive coverage

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    First generation penicillins are a class of antibiotics that are effective against a wide range of gram-positive bacteria. They work by inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall, leading to the death of the bacteria. This makes them particularly useful in treating infections caused by gram-positive bacteria such as Streptococcus and Staphylococcus species. Therefore, the statement "First generation penicillins have good gram positive coverage" is true.

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  • 22. 

    Penicillin has good gram positive coverage

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that is effective against many gram-positive bacteria. It works by inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall, causing the bacteria to weaken and eventually die. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which makes them more susceptible to the effects of penicillin. Therefore, penicillin is known for its good gram-positive coverage, making the statement "Penicillin has good gram-positive coverage" true.

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  • 23. 

    Amoxicillin has good gram positive coverage

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including many gram-positive organisms. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls, which makes them susceptible to the action of amoxicillin. This antibiotic inhibits the formation of the bacterial cell wall, leading to the death of the bacteria. Therefore, it can be concluded that amoxicillin has good gram-positive coverage, making the statement "True" accurate.

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  • 24. 

    Ampicillin has poor gram positive coverage

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Ampicillin does not have poor gram positive coverage. In fact, it is an antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of gram-positive bacteria, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus. It is also effective against some gram-negative bacteria. Therefore, the given statement is incorrect.

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  • 25. 

    Ampicillin has gram negative coverage

    • A.

      Very Good

    • B.

      Good

    • C.

      Some

    • D.

      Poor

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Some
    Explanation
    The statement "Ampicillin has gram negative coverage" indicates that Ampicillin is effective against some gram-negative bacteria. This suggests that Ampicillin can be used to treat certain infections caused by gram-negative bacteria, but it may not be effective against all types of gram-negative bacteria.

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  • 26. 

    Amoxicillin has gram negative coverage

    • A.

      Very Good

    • B.

      Good

    • C.

      Some

    • D.

      Poor

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Some
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin has some gram-negative coverage. This means that while it is effective against certain types of gram-negative bacteria, it may not be effective against all of them. It is important to note that amoxicillin is primarily used to treat gram-positive infections, so its effectiveness against gram-negative bacteria may vary. Other antibiotics with broader spectrum coverage may be more suitable for treating gram-negative infections.

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  • 27. 

    Penicillin has some anaerobic coverage

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Penicillin is an antibiotic that has some anaerobic coverage, meaning it is effective against certain anaerobic bacteria. Anaerobic bacteria are microorganisms that can survive and grow in environments with little to no oxygen. Penicillin's anaerobic coverage makes it a suitable treatment option for infections caused by anaerobic bacteria. Therefore, the statement "Penicillin has some anaerobic coverage" is true.

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  • 28. 

    Ampicillin and amoxicillin are interchangable

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    • C.

      Depends on the hospital

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ampicillin and amoxicillin are interchangeable because they both belong to the same class of antibiotics called penicillins. They have similar chemical structures and mechanisms of action, making them effective against a wide range of bacterial infections. Both drugs are commonly used to treat similar types of infections, such as respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and skin infections. Therefore, they can be substituted for each other in most cases, depending on the specific needs and preferences of the patient.

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  • 29. 

    Ampicillin is given every

    • A.

      8 Hours

    • B.

      6 Hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 Hours
    Explanation
    Ampicillin is given every 8 hours because it has a relatively short half-life of around 1-2 hours. This means that the drug is rapidly cleared from the body and needs to be administered at regular intervals to maintain therapeutic levels in the bloodstream. Giving the medication every 8 hours ensures that there is a consistent level of the drug in the body to effectively treat the infection.

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  • 30. 

    Amoxicillin is given every

    • A.

      8 Hours

    • B.

      6 Hours

    Correct Answer
    B. 6 Hours
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin is a type of antibiotic that is typically prescribed to be taken every 6 hours. This dosing schedule ensures that there is a consistent level of the medication in the body to effectively fight off the infection. Taking the medication at regular intervals helps to maintain therapeutic levels in the bloodstream, allowing for maximum effectiveness in treating the infection. A shorter dosing interval of 6 hours is often necessary to ensure that the medication remains active in the body and continues to combat the infection throughout the day.

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  • 31. 

    Ampicillin

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    A. First Generation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "First Generation" because Ampicillin belongs to the first generation of penicillins. First-generation penicillins are effective against gram-positive bacteria, including Staphylococcus species, and some gram-negative bacteria. Ampicillin is commonly used to treat various infections caused by susceptible bacteria.

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  • 32. 

    Amoxicillin

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrium penicillin

    Correct Answer
    A. First Generation
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin belongs to the first generation of penicillins. These are the earliest penicillins developed and have a narrow spectrum of activity against bacteria. First-generation penicillins are effective against gram-positive bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus (which is why they are also referred to as antistaphylococcal penicillins). They have limited activity against gram-negative bacteria. Amoxicillin is commonly used to treat various infections caused by susceptible bacteria, such as respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and skin infections.

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  • 33. 

    Oxacillin

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    B. Antistaphycoccal penicillin
    Explanation
    Oxacillin is classified as an antistaphylococcal penicillin because it is specifically designed to target and treat infections caused by Staphylococcus bacteria. It is effective against both methicillin-sensitive and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) strains. Antistaphylococcal penicillins have a narrow spectrum of activity and are primarily used for treating staphylococcal infections. Oxacillin is not classified as a first-generation or extended spectrum penicillin, as it is specifically tailored to target Staphylococcus bacteria rather than a broader range of bacterial species.

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  • 34. 

    Nafcillin

    • A.

      First generation

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    B. Antistaphycoccal penicillin
    Explanation
    Nafcillin is classified as an antistaphylococcal penicillin because it specifically targets and is effective against Staphylococcus bacteria. This type of penicillin is designed to combat infections caused by Staphylococcus, which is known to be resistant to many other antibiotics. Nafcillin belongs to the first generation of antistaphylococcal penicillins, which were among the earliest antibiotics developed to treat staphylococcal infections. It is not considered an extended spectrum penicillin, which refers to a broader range of activity against different types of bacteria.

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  • 35. 

    Ampicillin/subactam

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal Penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    B. Antistaphycoccal Penicillin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Antistaphycoccal Penicillin" because ampicillin/subactam belongs to the class of penicillin antibiotics that are specifically effective against staphylococcal infections. These antibiotics are designed to target and kill bacteria of the Staphylococcus genus, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Ampicillin/subactam is commonly used to treat skin and soft tissue infections, respiratory tract infections, and urinary tract infections caused by susceptible bacteria. It is important to note that ampicillin/subactam is not effective against all types of bacteria, and its use should be guided by susceptibility testing and medical advice.

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  • 36. 

    Ampicillin/subactam

    Correct Answer
    unasyn
    Explanation
    Unasyn is the brand name for the combination of ampicillin and sulbactam. Ampicillin is a penicillin-type antibiotic that works by stopping the growth of bacteria, while sulbactam is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that helps ampicillin to be more effective against certain bacteria. Therefore, ampicillin/subactam and unasyn are essentially the same medication, with unasyn being the specific brand name for this combination.

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  • 37. 

    Amoxicillin/clavanulate

    • A.

      First Generation

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal Penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    B. Antistaphycoccal Penicillin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Antistaphycoccal Penicillin" because amoxicillin/clavulanate is a combination antibiotic that includes amoxicillin, a penicillin-class antibiotic, and clavulanate, a beta-lactamase inhibitor. This combination is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those that produce beta-lactamase enzymes that can inactivate other penicillins. Antistaphylococcal penicillins, such as methicillin and oxacillin, are specifically designed to target and treat infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Therefore, amoxicillin/clavulanate can be considered an antistaphylococcal penicillin due to its activity against Staphylococcus aureus.

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  • 38. 

    Amoxicillin/clavanulate is not effective against penicillinase producing staph

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin/clavulanate is effective against penicillinase-producing staphylococcus (staph) bacteria. This combination antibiotic contains amoxicillin, which is a penicillin-type antibiotic, and clavulanate, which helps to prevent the breakdown of amoxicillin by penicillinase enzymes produced by some bacteria. This allows amoxicillin/clavulanate to effectively treat infections caused by penicillinase-producing staph bacteria. Therefore, the statement that amoxicillin/clavulanate is not effective against penicillinase-producing staph is false.

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  • 39. 

    Amoxicillin/clavanulate is what drug

    Correct Answer
    augmentin
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin/clavulanate is the generic name for the drug commonly known as Augmentin. Augmentin is an antibiotic medication that contains a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium. It is used to treat various bacterial infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, and urinary tract infections. The combination of amoxicillin and clavulanate potassium helps to enhance the effectiveness of the antibiotic by inhibiting the growth of bacteria and preventing them from developing resistance.

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  • 40. 

    Amoxicillin/clavanulate is effective against beta-lactamase positive organisms

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Amoxicillin/clavulanate is effective against beta-lactamase positive organisms because clavulanate is a beta-lactamase inhibitor. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by some bacteria that can inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin. Clavulanate, when combined with amoxicillin, can inhibit the action of beta-lactamase, allowing amoxicillin to effectively kill the bacteria. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 41. 

    Ampicillin/subactam is effective against beta-lactamase positive organisms

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ampicillin/subactam is effective against beta-lactamase positive organisms because it contains a beta-lactamase inhibitor called subactam. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by some bacteria that can inactivate antibiotics like ampicillin. By combining ampicillin with subactam, the beta-lactamase produced by the organisms is inhibited, allowing ampicillin to effectively treat infections caused by these beta-lactamase positive organisms. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 42. 

    Antistaphycoccal penicillins are effective against anaerobes

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Antistaphylococcal penicillins are a group of antibiotics that are effective against staphylococcal bacteria, including certain strains that are resistant to other types of penicillins. However, they are not typically effective against anaerobic bacteria, which are bacteria that can survive and thrive in environments without oxygen. Therefore, the statement that antistaphylococcal penicillins are effective against anaerobes is false.

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  • 43. 

    Antistaphycoccal penicillins are not effective against beta-lactamase producing organisms

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Antistaphylococcal penicillins are effective against beta-lactamase producing organisms. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by some bacteria that can inactivate certain antibiotics, including penicillins. However, antistaphylococcal penicillins such as methicillin and oxacillin have been specifically designed to resist the effects of beta-lactamase. Therefore, they are able to effectively treat infections caused by beta-lactamase producing organisms.

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  • 44. 

    Piperacillin is

    • A.

      First generation penicillin

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrium penicillin

    Correct Answer
    C. Extended spectrium penicillin
    Explanation
    Piperacillin is classified as an extended spectrum penicillin. This means that it has a broader range of activity against various types of bacteria, including both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Extended spectrum penicillins are often used to treat serious infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other types of antibiotics. Piperacillin is effective against a wide range of bacteria, making it a suitable choice for treating severe infections.

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  • 45. 

    Ticarcillin

    • A.

      First generation penicillin

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    C. Extended spectrum penicillin
    Explanation
    Ticarcillin is classified as an extended spectrum penicillin. Extended spectrum penicillins have a broader spectrum of activity compared to other generations of penicillins, meaning they are effective against a wider range of bacteria. They are particularly effective against gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Ticarcillin is commonly used to treat severe infections caused by susceptible organisms, such as respiratory tract infections, skin and soft tissue infections, and urinary tract infections.

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  • 46. 

    Piperacillin/Tazobactam

    • A.

      First generation penicillin

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    C. Extended spectrum penicillin
    Explanation
    Piperacillin/Tazobactam is classified as an extended spectrum penicillin. Extended spectrum penicillins have a broader spectrum of activity against various bacteria, including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms. They are effective against a wide range of infections, including respiratory, urinary tract, skin, and intra-abdominal infections. Piperacillin/Tazobactam contains piperacillin, a penicillin antibiotic, and tazobactam, a beta-lactamase inhibitor that enhances the activity of piperacillin against beta-lactamase producing bacteria. This combination provides an extended spectrum of coverage, making it a suitable choice for treating a wide variety of infections.

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  • 47. 

    Piperacillin/Tazobactam is what trade name ATB

    Correct Answer
    zosyn
    Explanation
    Piperacillin/Tazobactam is a combination antibiotic used to treat various bacterial infections. It is commonly sold under the trade name Zosyn.

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  • 48. 

    Ticarcillin/Clavanulate

    • A.

      First generation penicillin

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    C. Extended spectrum penicillin
    Explanation
    Ticarcillin/Clavulanate is classified as an extended spectrum penicillin. This means that it has a broader spectrum of activity against various bacteria compared to other penicillins. Extended spectrum penicillins are effective against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including some resistant strains. Ticarcillin/Clavulanate is commonly used to treat infections caused by susceptible organisms in various body systems.

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  • 49. 

    Which is broadest spectrum

    • A.

      First generation penicillin

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal penicillin

    • C.

      Extended spectrum penicillin

    Correct Answer
    C. Extended spectrum penicillin
    Explanation
    Extended spectrum penicillin is the broadest spectrum among the given options. This type of penicillin has a wider range of activity against various bacteria, including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. It is effective against a broader range of infections compared to first generation penicillin and antistaphylococcal penicillin, which have a more limited spectrum of activity. Extended spectrum penicillin is often used to treat infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other types of penicillin.

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  • 50. 

    Effective against Pseudomonas

    • A.

      First generation PCN

    • B.

      Antistaphycoccal PCN

    • C.

      Extended spectrum PCN

    Correct Answer
    C. Extended spectrum PCN
    Explanation
    Extended spectrum PCNs are effective against Pseudomonas. Pseudomonas is a type of bacteria that is known to be resistant to many antibiotics. Extended spectrum PCNs have a broader spectrum of activity compared to first generation and antistaphylococcal PCNs, meaning they can target a wider range of bacteria including Pseudomonas. Therefore, extended spectrum PCNs would be the most suitable choice for treating infections caused by Pseudomonas.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 18, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Herroncs
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