Pathology 2 Bones , Joints, Muscle And Peripheral Nerves
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Mutation in genes encoding fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (autosomal dominant trait) Dwarfs
- A.
Achondroplasia
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Correct Answer
A. AchondroplasiaExplanation
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder caused by mutations in the genes encoding fibroblast growth factor receptor 3. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for the condition to be expressed. Achondroplasia is characterized by dwarfism, with affected individuals having short stature and disproportionate limb lengths. This explanation provides a clear and concise description of how the mutation in the genes encoding fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 leads to the specific condition of achondroplasia.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Abnormally dense bone disorder - Autosomal dominant: multiple fractures - Autosomal recessive: slow growth, mental retardation
- A.
Achondroplasia
- B.
Osteopetrosis
- C.
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Correct Answer
B. OsteopetrosisExplanation
Osteopetrosis is the correct answer because it is a disorder characterized by abnormally dense bones. In autosomal dominant cases, individuals experience multiple fractures, while in autosomal recessive cases, there is slow growth and mental retardation. Achondroplasia is a different condition characterized by dwarfism, and osteogenesis imperfecta is a disorder that causes brittle bones.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Imperfect bone forming resulting in bone weakness and fractures P. OI congenital (fetus), OI tarda (autosomal dominant, after perinatal period) Appears inmidiatelly at born or early in life. The baby born with multiple fractures. C. Multiple bone fractures, blue sclera, thin skin, defective heart valves
- A.
Osteopetrosis
- B.
Osteomyelitis
- C.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Correct Answer
C. Osteogenesis ImperfectaExplanation
Osteogenesis Imperfecta is the correct answer because it is a genetic disorder characterized by imperfect bone formation, resulting in bone weakness and fractures. This condition can be present at birth or develop early in life, and individuals with Osteogenesis Imperfecta often have multiple fractures, thin skin, blue sclera, and defective heart valves. Osteopetrosis is a different condition characterized by abnormally dense bones, and osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone.Rate this question:
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- 4.
An infection of bone usually caused by bacteria resulting in inflammation of medullary and cortical portions of bone and periosteum. In children long bones and in adults vertebrae. Any bone can be involve. Severe bone disease Types: pyogenic, chronic if not properly treat, tuberculous P. Suppurative inflammation C. Marked leukocytosis in blood
- A.
Osteomyelitis
- B.
Osteopetrosis
- C.
Achondroplasia
Correct Answer
A. OsteomyelitisExplanation
Osteomyelitis is the correct answer because it is an infection of the bone caused by bacteria, leading to inflammation of the medullary and cortical portions of the bone and periosteum. It can occur in any bone, but in children, it commonly affects long bones, while in adults, it often affects vertebrae. The types of osteomyelitis include pyogenic and chronic if not properly treated, as well as tuberculous. One of the key characteristics of osteomyelitis is suppurative inflammation, which is the presence of pus, and it can also cause marked leukocytosis (increased white blood cell count) in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 5.
No infection bone necrosis due to schemia C. Head of femur is the most important site. Cchilds and elderly
- A.
Osteopenia
- B.
Aseptic Bone Necrosis
- C.
Osteoporosis
Correct Answer
B. Aseptic Bone NecrosisExplanation
Aseptic bone necrosis refers to the death of bone tissue due to insufficient blood supply, also known as ischemia. It commonly affects the head of the femur, making it the most important site for this condition. Aseptic bone necrosis can occur in both children and the elderly, and it is often associated with osteopenia, a condition characterized by decreased bone density. Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a separate condition involving generalized bone loss, and is not specifically related to aseptic bone necrosis.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Decrease in the amount of osseous tissue (lost of bone mass). Reduced amount of mineralized bone, usually as a result of osteomalacia or osteoporosis
- A.
Osteomalacia
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Osteopenia
Correct Answer
C. OsteopeniaExplanation
Osteopenia refers to a decrease in the amount of osseous tissue, specifically a reduced amount of mineralized bone. This condition is usually a precursor to osteoporosis or osteomalacia. Osteoporosis is a condition where there is a significant loss of bone mass, making the bones weak and brittle. Osteomalacia, on the other hand, is a condition where the bones become soft and weak due to a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. Therefore, osteopenia can be seen as an early stage of bone loss, which can progress to more severe conditions like osteoporosis or osteomalacia.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Clinical presentation of osteopenia. Acondition characterized by excessive thinning and fragility of bones as result of atrphy and loss of bone substance P. Low density, thinning of the spongy trabeculae of the affected bone. Imbalance between resorption and formation C. Bone fractures (pain), reduction of height
- A.
Osteoporosis
- B.
Osteopenia
- C.
Osteomalacia
Correct Answer
A. OsteoporosisExplanation
Osteoporosis is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by excessive thinning and fragility of bones, resulting from atrophy and loss of bone substance. The clinical presentation of osteoporosis includes low bone density, thinning of the spongy trabeculae of the affected bone, bone fractures (which can cause pain), and reduction of height. Osteopenia and osteomalacia are not the correct answers because they do not fully encompass the clinical presentation described. Osteopenia refers to a milder form of bone loss, while osteomalacia refers to softening of the bones due to vitamin D deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A condition marked by softening of the bones caused by hormones or vitamin Ddeficiency. (Have enough bone tissue, but not enough mineralization). Inadecuate mineralization of the organic bone matrix (Rickets in childs) E. Inadequate intake of Vit D, inadequate sunlight, abnormal intestinal absorption
- A.
Osteopenia
- B.
Osteomalacia
- C.
Osteoporosis
Correct Answer
B. OsteomalaciaExplanation
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of the bones due to inadequate mineralization of the organic bone matrix. This can be caused by factors such as inadequate intake of Vitamin D, inadequate sunlight exposure, or abnormal intestinal absorption. In osteomalacia, there is enough bone tissue present, but it is not properly mineralized, leading to weakened and soft bones. This condition is commonly seen in children as rickets. Osteopenia and osteoporosis, on the other hand, refer to conditions where there is a decrease in bone density, but they are not specifically characterized by softening of the bones like osteomalacia.Rate this question:
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- 9.
E. Chronic renal failure. P. Compensatory hyperparathyroidism (dry calcium out of bones) osteomalacia
- A.
Renal Osteodystrophy
- B.
Paget's Disease
- C.
Osteomalacia
Correct Answer
A. Renal OsteodystrophyExplanation
Renal osteodystrophy is a condition that occurs as a result of chronic renal failure. It is characterized by abnormalities in bone mineralization, leading to bone pain, fractures, and deformities. Compensatory hyperparathyroidism, which is the excessive production of parathyroid hormone, is a common feature of renal osteodystrophy. This hormone causes the release of calcium from the bones, resulting in osteomalacia, a softening of the bones. Therefore, the correct answer is renal osteodystrophy, as it encompasses both compensatory hyperparathyroidism and osteomalacia as manifestations of chronic renal failure.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Osteitis deformant. A chronic disease of bones characterized by their great enlargement and rarefaction with bowing of the long bones and deformation of the flat bones ( a bone disease marked by bone densities and deformities) Develops in adults P. Osteoclast defects, irregular restructuring, normal compact bone replaced by sclerotic dense bone, thickening and deformities of the bones C. headaches (mayors one that get worst without a reason), honeycomb or cotton wool appearence bone, bowlegs
- A.
Osteomalacia
- B.
Paget's Disease
- C.
Renal Osteodystrophy
Correct Answer
B. Paget's DiseaseExplanation
Paget's Disease is a chronic bone disorder characterized by the enlargement and deformity of bones. It is caused by irregular restructuring of bone tissue, leading to the replacement of normal compact bone with dense, sclerotic bone. This results in thickening and deformities of the affected bones. Symptoms of Paget's Disease can include headaches, which may worsen without a reason. Additionally, the bone affected by Paget's Disease may have a honeycomb or cotton wool appearance, and bowlegs can also be a characteristic feature. Therefore, the given symptoms and bone abnormalities align with the features of Paget's Disease.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Most common highly malignant tumor of bones. Likes end of long bones (femur, tibia, fibula..) C.Loss of that extremety (amputation)
- A.
Osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma)
- B.
Chondrosarcoma
- C.
Osteoclastoma
Correct Answer
A. Osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma)Explanation
Osteosarcoma, also known as osteogenic sarcoma, is the most common highly malignant tumor of bones. It tends to occur at the end of long bones such as the femur, tibia, and fibula. The answer choice "Loss of that extremity (amputation)" is not a correct explanation for osteosarcoma. This answer choice suggests a potential treatment option for osteosarcoma, which may involve amputation in some cases. However, it does not explain the nature or characteristics of the tumor itself.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Malignant cartilage tumor. Likes spine and pelvic bones. 3 times more in men ages 30-40
- A.
Ewings Sarcoma
- B.
Chondrosarcoma
- C.
Osteoclastoma
Correct Answer
B. ChondrosarcomaExplanation
Chondrosarcoma is the correct answer because it is a malignant cartilage tumor that commonly affects the spine and pelvic bones. Additionally, it is more prevalent in men between the ages of 30 and 40. Ewing's Sarcoma is a different type of bone cancer that typically affects children and young adults, while Osteoclastoma is a benign bone tumor. Therefore, Chondrosarcoma aligns with the given information and is the most suitable answer.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Giant cell tumor. Located in knees. Loss of function of the join, large bulky mass, cystic mass. Young women 19 pick in their 30's.
- A.
Osteosarcoma (osteogenic sarcoma)
- B.
Chondrosarcoma
- C.
Osteoclastoma
Correct Answer
C. OsteoclastomaExplanation
Osteoclastoma, also known as giant cell tumor, is a benign bone tumor that commonly occurs in the knees. It is characterized by a large bulky mass with cystic areas. The tumor can cause loss of function of the joint due to its size and location. Osteoclastomas are more commonly seen in young women in their 30s. Therefore, based on the given information, osteoclastoma is the most suitable answer.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Medullary cavity neoplasm. Young men between 10 and 20's
- A.
Ewings Sarcoma
- B.
Chondrosarcoma
- C.
Osteoclastoma
Correct Answer
A. Ewings SarcomaExplanation
Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that commonly affects young men between the ages of 10 and 20. It typically arises in the medullary cavity, which is the central cavity of a bone. Ewing's sarcoma is characterized by the presence of small, round, blue cells and can cause pain, swelling, and fractures in the affected bone. Other types of bone tumors such as chondrosarcoma and osteoclastoma may also occur in the medullary cavity, but Ewing's sarcoma is the most common in young males.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Degenerative and metabolic disease (non inflammatory). Affects movable joint. Risk factor, wear and tear of joints, obesity, excessive use of the joint P. Gradual loss of articular cartilage, erosion of articular surface C. Knees and fingers, vertebral joints. Decrease movility, pain, deformity.
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- C.
Infectious Arthritis
Correct Answer
A. OsteoarthritisExplanation
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative and metabolic disease that affects movable joints. The risk factors for osteoarthritis include wear and tear of joints, obesity, and excessive use of the joint. The condition is characterized by a gradual loss of articular cartilage and erosion of the articular surface. It commonly affects the knees, fingers, and vertebral joints, leading to a decrease in mobility, pain, and deformity. Rheumatoid arthritis and infectious arthritis are not the correct answers because they are inflammatory diseases, whereas osteoarthritis is non-inflammatory.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Inflammatory disease. Diffuse thickening and hyperplasia of the synovium, fibrois of joints. 3 x more in females. Infection and autoimmune affects. C. Interphalangeal joints of fingers and metacarpophalangeal joints af hand and feet. Any joint can be affected. Stiff,ankylosis deformities, systemic involving.
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- C.
Infectious Arthritis
Correct Answer
B. Rheumatoid arthritisExplanation
Rheumatoid arthritis is the correct answer because it is an inflammatory disease that involves diffuse thickening and hyperplasia of the synovium, as well as fibrosis of joints. It is more common in females and can be caused by both infection and autoimmune factors. Rheumatoid arthritis can affect any joint, but it particularly affects the interphalangeal joints of the fingers and metacarpophalangeal joints of the hands and feet. It can lead to stiffness, ankylosis deformities, and systemic involvement.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Acute inflammatory process, knees, hip, ankles and wrist P. Acute inflammation, congestion of the synovial membrane
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- C.
Infectious Arthritis
Correct Answer
C. Infectious ArthritisExplanation
Infectious arthritis is the correct answer because it is characterized by an acute inflammatory process that affects multiple joints, including the knees, hips, ankles, and wrists. This type of arthritis is caused by an infection in the joint, which leads to inflammation and congestion of the synovial membrane. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are other types of arthritis, but they do not typically present with acute inflammation or affect multiple joints in this manner.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Rare disease, mostly in men. Autosomal recessive. E. Inborn error in purine metabolism C. Acute arthritis (metatarsophalangeal joint) of great toe, severe pain. Attacks come at night, last for several days
- A.
Gout
- B.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- C.
Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer
A. GoutExplanation
Gout is a rare disease that primarily affects men and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is characterized by acute arthritis, specifically in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe, causing severe pain. The attacks typically occur at night and can last for several days. This aligns with the given information of the question, making gout the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Autoimmune disease, neuromuscular junction (synapse) ACH. Most common in females C. Fatigue, muscle weakness (eyes and facial muscles are affected) wheel chair is the end result.
- A.
Myastenia Gravis
- B.
Neurogenic Atrophy
- C.
Muscular Dystrophies
Correct Answer
B. Neurogenic AtrophyExplanation
Neurogenic atrophy is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by muscle wasting and weakness due to damage or dysfunction of the nerves that control the muscles. In the given scenario, the symptoms described (fatigue, muscle weakness, and involvement of eyes and facial muscles) are consistent with neurogenic atrophy. The mention of the end result being a wheelchair suggests that the condition progresses to a severe disability, which is often seen in neurogenic atrophy. Myasthenia gravis and muscular dystrophies are not the correct answers as they are not specifically related to neuromuscular junction dysfunction or neurogenic atrophy.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Generic deffect, muscle disease, lead to muscle weakness
- A.
Myastenia Gravis
- B.
Neurogenic Atrophy
- C.
Muscular Dystrophies
Correct Answer
C. Muscular DystrophiesExplanation
Muscular dystrophies are a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and degeneration. These conditions result from mutations in genes responsible for the structure and function of muscle fibers. The muscle weakness in muscular dystrophies is caused by the inability of the muscles to properly contract and generate force. This leads to difficulty in movement, muscle wasting, and eventually loss of muscle function. Unlike myasthenia gravis, which is an autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction, and neurogenic atrophy, which is the result of nerve damage, muscular dystrophies are directly caused by genetic defects.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Most common muscular dystrophy caused by mutation of the gene encoding dystrophin P. Skeletal muscle cells degenerate and muscle weakness continue C. Boy at school starts to complain about weakness. Tired of been walking ar stand up or any activity. Will end in wheel chair. CK (creatinine kinase)
- A.
Duchenne's (XR)
- B.
Myotonic Dystrophy (AD)
- C.
Becker's
Correct Answer
A. Duchenne's (XR)Explanation
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is the most common type of muscular dystrophy caused by a mutation in the gene that encodes dystrophin. This mutation leads to the degeneration of skeletal muscle cells and the continuation of muscle weakness. In this case, the boy at school complaining about weakness, fatigue, and difficulty with activities suggests the progression of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. The elevated levels of CK (creatine kinase) also support this diagnosis. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner, which means it primarily affects males.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Protein kinase is mutated. Muscle takes time to relax after being used.
- A.
Becker's
- B.
Myotonic Dystrophy (AD)
- C.
Duchenne's (XR)
Correct Answer
B. Myotonic Dystrophy (AD)Explanation
Myotonic Dystrophy (AD) is the correct answer because it is a genetic disorder that affects the muscles and causes them to contract and relax slowly. This slow relaxation of the muscles is known as myotonia. Protein kinase is mutated in Myotonic Dystrophy, which leads to the muscle abnormalities and the characteristic symptoms of the condition. In contrast, Becker's and Duchenne's are both forms of muscular dystrophy that primarily affect the muscles' strength and function, rather than causing slow muscle relaxation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Tumor originate from striaded muscle cells, is the most important soft tissue tumor of children
- A.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
- B.
Synovial Sarcoma
- C.
Polymorphous Cell Sarcoma
Correct Answer
A. RhabdomyosarcomaExplanation
Rhabdomyosarcoma is the correct answer because it is a soft tissue tumor that originates from striated muscle cells. It is particularly important in children, making it the most significant soft tissue tumor in this age group. Synovial Sarcoma and Polymorphous Cell Sarcoma are not associated with striated muscle cells and are not as commonly seen in children.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Highly malignant tumor originating in the soft tissues of extremities, usually occurs in young adults
- A.
Synovial Sarcoma
- B.
Liposarcoma
- C.
Leiomyosarcoma
Correct Answer
A. Synovial SarcomaExplanation
Synovial sarcoma is the correct answer because it is a highly malignant tumor that commonly arises in the soft tissues of the extremities, particularly in young adults. This type of sarcoma is named after its resemblance to synovial tissue, which lines the joints. It is characterized by a unique genetic translocation and typically presents as a painless mass. Other options, such as liposarcoma and leiomyosarcoma, may also occur in soft tissues but do not typically exhibit the same clinical features as synovial sarcoma.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Is a tumor of undifferenciated connective tissue cells and fibroblasts
- A.
Angiosarcoma
- B.
Polymorphous Cell Sarcoma
- C.
Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheat Tumor
Correct Answer
B. Polymorphous Cell SarcomaExplanation
Polymorphous Cell Sarcoma is a tumor that arises from undifferentiated connective tissue cells and fibroblasts. It is characterized by a variety of cell types and can occur in various locations in the body. This tumor is typically aggressive and has the potential to invade surrounding tissues and metastasize to other parts of the body.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The second most common sarcoma of adulthood, is composed of malignat fat cells.
- A.
Angiosarcoma
- B.
Polymorphous Cell Sarcoma
- C.
Liposarcoma
Correct Answer
C. LiposarcomaExplanation
Liposarcoma is the correct answer because it is a type of sarcoma that predominantly occurs in adults and is characterized by the presence of malignant fat cells. It is the second most common sarcoma in adults, indicating its prevalence and significance in the field of oncology.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Originates from the smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels
- A.
Synovial Sarcoma
- B.
Leiomyosarcoma
- C.
Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheat Tumor
Correct Answer
B. LeiomyosarcomaExplanation
Leiomyosarcoma is the correct answer because it originates from the smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels. Synovial Sarcoma and Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor do not originate from smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Is a tumor of endothelial cells. Most often located on the head and neck
- A.
Synovial Sarcoma
- B.
Leiomyosarcoma
- C.
Angiosarcoma
Correct Answer
C. AngiosarcomaExplanation
Angiosarcoma is the correct answer because it is a tumor that originates from endothelial cells, which line the blood vessels. It is most commonly found in the head and neck region. Synovial sarcoma is a type of soft tissue sarcoma that typically occurs near the joints, while leiomyosarcoma arises from smooth muscle cells. Therefore, neither of these options fit the given description.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Is the most common form of muscle weakness in children. (Floppy children)
- A.
Cerebral Palsy
- B.
Duchenne's
- C.
Becker's
Correct Answer
A. Cerebral PalsyExplanation
Cerebral Palsy is the most common form of muscle weakness in children, often characterized by floppy muscles. It is a neurological disorder caused by damage to the brain before or during birth, or in early childhood. This damage affects muscle control and coordination, leading to muscle weakness and difficulty with movement. Cerebral Palsy can vary in severity and can also be accompanied by other symptoms such as speech and learning difficulties. Duchenne's and Becker's are forms of muscular dystrophy, which are genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and degeneration, but they are not the most common forms in children.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 21, 2011Quiz Created by
Adrianapatino003
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