Srg Feb2017 Compre Week 2 (Back, Le, Hfn Anakines)
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Upon postural assessment of your patient, you noted that his scapula on one side is elevated relative to the other side. How would you know which side is at the right position?
- A.
Palpate for the spine of the scapula at T2
- B.
Palpate for the spine of the scapula at T3
- C.
Palpate for the inferior angle of the scapula at T3
- D.
Palpate for the inferior angle of the scapula at T6
Correct Answer
B. Palpate for the spine of the scapula at T3Explanation
To determine which side of the scapula is at the right position, you would palpate for the spine of the scapula at T3. The spine of the scapula is a bony ridge that can be felt along the upper back. By palpating for the spine of the scapula at T3, you can compare the position of the scapula on each side and identify any elevation or asymmetry. This will help you determine which side is at the correct position and which side may be elevated relative to the other.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A 28 year old male patient comes to physical therapy due to anterior pain. Pain is elicited while performing hip motions with resistance. Pain is specifically palpated on the area of the ASIS. Which of the ff. structures may be the cause of the pain?
- A.
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
- B.
Sartorius strain
- C.
Hamstring strain
- D.
Pubic symphysis dysfunction
Correct Answer
A. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thighExplanation
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh may be the cause of the pain in this case. The pain is elicited while performing hip motions with resistance and is specifically palpated on the area of the ASIS (anterior superior iliac spine). The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve supplies sensation to the skin over the lateral part of the thigh, and compression or irritation of this nerve can result in pain in this area.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the ff. occurs during birth delivery?
- A.
Ischial tuberosity appoximates
- B.
Coccyx moves posteriorly
- C.
Iliac crest separates
- D.
Sacral promontory moves posteriorly
Correct Answer
B. Coccyx moves posteriorlyExplanation
During birth delivery, the coccyx, which is the small bone at the base of the spine, moves posteriorly or backwards. This movement is important to create more space in the pelvic outlet, allowing the baby to pass through the birth canal more easily. The coccyx is flexible and can be pushed back to accommodate the baby's head during delivery. This movement is a natural part of the birthing process and helps facilitate a smoother and safer delivery.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following occurs during counternutation?
- A.
Iliac crest approximate
- B.
Coccyx moves posteriorly
- C.
Sacrum moves upward & posteriorly
- D.
Posterior pelvic tilt
Correct Answer
C. Sacrum moves upward & posteriorlyExplanation
Counternutation refers to the movement of the sacrum in the pelvis. During counternutation, the sacrum moves upward and posteriorly. This movement is opposite to nutation, where the sacrum moves downward and anteriorly. Counternutation is a normal motion that occurs during certain activities such as sitting or bending forward. It helps to maintain stability and balance in the pelvis and spine.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which test is being done to the patient?
- A.
SI Rocking
- B.
SI Gapping
- C.
SI Approximation
- D.
SI Separation
Correct Answer
B. SI GappingExplanation
The test being done to the patient is SI Gapping.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A patient comes to you and complains of low back pain. Having the knowledge that Low Back Pain may stem from different sources, you performed different assessment procedures to rule out certain joints. Upon assessment, this given special test tested positive. Which of the following joints assessed is involved in the case?
- A.
Hip joint
- B.
Sacroiliac Joint
- C.
Lumbar spine joints
- D.
Thoracic spine joints
Correct Answer
B. Sacroiliac JointExplanation
The special test that tested positive suggests that the Sacroiliac Joint is involved in the case of low back pain. The Sacroiliac Joint is located at the junction of the sacrum and the ilium bones in the pelvis. When this joint is affected, it can cause pain in the lower back. By ruling out other joints through assessment procedures, the positive result of the special test points to the involvement of the Sacroiliac Joint as the source of the patient's pain.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A 10 year old patient with Down Syndrome presents with a lordotic posture upon assessment. Which of the ff observations would most likely accompany this finding?
- A.
Patient will have lumbar flexion
- B.
Patient will present with anterior tilting of the pelvis
- C.
Patient will have a nutated SIJ
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. Patient will present with anterior tilting of the pelvisExplanation
The lordotic posture is characterized by an exaggerated inward curve of the lower back. Anterior tilting of the pelvis is commonly associated with a lordotic posture. This occurs when the front of the pelvis tilts forward, causing the lower back to arch excessively. This is often seen in individuals with Down Syndrome due to muscle imbalances and hypotonia, which can affect the alignment of the pelvis and spine. Lumbar flexion refers to a forward bending of the lower back, which is not typically associated with a lordotic posture. Nutated SIJ refers to a specific position of the sacroiliac joint and is not directly related to the lordotic posture.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A 33 year old patient presents with tightness of the knee extensors. Upon further assessment, the following findings will also be evident:
- A.
The patient has TIGHT Iliopsoas
- B.
The patient needs further strengthening of the knee extensors
- C.
The patient has STRONG Quadriceps Femoris
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
C. The patient has STRONG Quadriceps FemorisExplanation
The patient having strong quadriceps femoris muscles suggests that the tightness in the knee extensors is not due to weakness in these muscles. Strong quadriceps femoris muscles would typically provide adequate strength for knee extension, so the tightness experienced by the patient is likely due to other factors such as tight iliopsoas muscles.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient with WEAK hip flexors?
- A.
The patient has TIGHT Iliopsoas
- B.
The patient has STRETCHED Rectus femoris
- C.
The patient has STRONG Iliopsoas
- D.
The patient has CONTRACTED Rectus Femoris
Correct Answer
B. The patient has STRETCHED Rectus femorisExplanation
Weak hip flexors can lead to a lengthening or stretching of the rectus femoris muscle. The rectus femoris is one of the muscles that helps to flex the hip, so if it is weak, it may become stretched or lengthened. This is because the opposing muscles, such as the hamstrings, may be stronger and pull the hip into extension, causing the rectus femoris to be stretched.Rate this question:
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- 10.
At which milestone does lumbar lordosis develop?
- A.
Turning from supine to prone
- B.
Turning from prone to supine
- C.
Supported sitting
- D.
Standing
Correct Answer
D. StandingExplanation
Lumbar lordosis is the inward curvature of the lower spine. It develops when a person starts standing. When standing, the weight of the body is supported by the legs and spine, causing the lumbar spine to curve inward. In supine and prone positions, the spine is typically in a more neutral position, and the curvature is not as pronounced. Supported sitting may also contribute to some degree of lumbar lordosis, but it is not as significant as when standing. Therefore, standing is the milestone at which lumbar lordosis develops.Rate this question:
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- 11.
All of the following are part of the deep muscles of the back except for:
- A.
Interspinales
- B.
Iliocostalis
- C.
Iintertransversarii
- D.
Serratus posterior inferior
Correct Answer
D. Serratus posterior inferiorExplanation
The deep muscles of the back include the interspinales, iliocostalis, and intertransversarii. These muscles play a role in various movements and stabilizing the spine. However, the serratus posterior inferior is not considered part of the deep muscles of the back. Instead, it is a muscle located in the lower back and is involved in the movement of the ribcage during breathing.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Patient is in prone with shoulders abducted to 120 degrees and elbow flexed to 90 degrees. You asked him to retract the scapula and he was able to do this against maximal resistance. Which is an appropriate assessment?
- A.
Grade 5 upper trapezius
- B.
Grade 5 middle trapezius
- C.
Grade 5 Lower trapezius
- D.
Grade 5 Rhomboid Major
Correct Answer
C. Grade 5 Lower trapeziusExplanation
The correct answer is Grade 5 Lower trapezius. The patient's ability to retract the scapula against maximal resistance indicates that the lower trapezius muscle is functioning at full strength. The other options, upper trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboid major, are not appropriate assessments because the patient's ability to perform the movement indicates that these muscles are not the primary source of strength in this action.Rate this question:
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- 13.
While your patient is performing oblique curl ups, you observed that he has less movement towards the (R) compared to the (L). Which muscle must be strengthened?
- A.
(R) internal oblique and (L) external oblique
- B.
(R) internal oblique and (R) external oblique
- C.
(L) internal oblique and (R) external oblique
- D.
(L) internal oblique and (L) external oblique
Correct Answer
A. (R) internal oblique and (L) external obliqueExplanation
The patient has less movement towards the right side compared to the left side during oblique curl ups. This indicates that the right internal oblique and left external oblique muscles need to be strengthened. The internal oblique muscles are responsible for trunk rotation and lateral flexion, while the external oblique muscles assist in trunk flexion and rotation. Strengthening these specific muscles will help improve the patient's movement towards the right side during oblique curl ups.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The facets of the lumbar region are oriented towards the sagittal plane giving a/an ________ glide that facilitates __________ in the lumbosacral joint?
- A.
AP, flexion and extension
- B.
AP, lateral flexion
- C.
Lateral, lateral flexion
- D.
Lateral, flexion and extension
Correct Answer
A. AP, flexion and extensionExplanation
The facets of the lumbar region are oriented towards the sagittal plane, which means they allow for anterior-posterior (AP) movement. This AP glide facilitates flexion and extension in the lumbosacral joint.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the capsular pattern of the lumbar spine?
- A.
Extension > Flexion > Lateral flexion = rotation
- B.
Flexion > Extension > Lateral flexion = rotation
- C.
Lateral flexion = rotation > Flexion > extension
- D.
Lateral flexion = rotation > Extension > Flexion
Correct Answer
D. Lateral flexion = rotation > Extension > FlexionExplanation
The capsular pattern of the lumbar spine refers to the characteristic pattern of joint restriction or limitation of movement that is commonly seen in certain conditions or pathologies affecting the lumbar spine. In this case, the correct answer suggests that the capsular pattern of the lumbar spine involves a limitation in lateral flexion and rotation, followed by a limitation in extension, and then a limitation in flexion. This means that in conditions affecting the lumbar spine, lateral flexion and rotation will be more restricted compared to extension and flexion.Rate this question:
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- 16.
True about the thoracic vertebra, except:
- A.
Costal facets are present on all segments for attachments of the ribs
- B.
Vertebral body is heart shaped
- C.
Most inferior articular facets are directed anteriorly and medially
- D.
Vertebral foramen is small and circular
Correct Answer
A. Costal facets are present on all segments for attachments of the ribsExplanation
The thoracic vertebrae have costal facets on the transverse processes for attachment of the ribs, so the statement that costal facets are present on all segments for attachments of the ribs is true.Rate this question:
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- 17.
This ligament connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae
- A.
Interlaminar ligament
- B.
Interspinous ligament
- C.
Ligamentum flavum
- D.
Ligamentum nuchae
Correct Answer
C. Ligamentum flavumExplanation
The ligamentum flavum is the correct answer because it is the ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. This ligament is located in the spinal column and helps to support and stabilize the vertebral column. It is composed of elastic fibers and is known for its yellow color, hence the name "ligamentum flavum" which means "yellow ligament" in Latin.Rate this question:
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- 18.
This muscle is part of the oblique running intermediate muscle in the deep muscles of the back
- A.
Longissimus
- B.
Interspinales
- C.
Intertransversarii
- D.
Rotatores
Correct Answer
D. RotatoresExplanation
The rotatores muscle is part of the oblique running intermediate muscle in the deep muscles of the back. It is responsible for rotating and stabilizing the spine. The other options listed, such as Longissimus, Interspinales, and Intertransversarii, are also muscles in the back, but they do not specifically belong to the oblique running intermediate muscle group. Therefore, the correct answer is Rotatores.Rate this question:
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- 19.
During trunk lateral flexion to the (R)
- A.
Lumbar segments will rotate to the (L)
- B.
Lumbar segments will rotate to the (R)
- C.
Cervical segments will rotate to the (L)
- D.
Cervical segments will rotate to the (R)
Correct Answer
A. Lumbar segments will rotate to the (L)Explanation
During trunk lateral flexion to the right, the lumbar segments will rotate to the left. This is because during lateral flexion, the spine undergoes a combination of lateral bending and rotation. When the trunk bends to the right, the lumbar segments will bend to the right side, but due to the natural curvature of the spine, they will also rotate towards the left. This rotation helps to maintain the alignment and stability of the spine during lateral flexion.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A patient presents with muscle imbalance of the hip muscles. Upon assessment, you noted a STRONG Gluetus Maximus. Which of the following is applicable in this case?
- A.
The intervention in this case is strengthening of the Gluteus Maximus since it is the same as a shortened muscle
- B.
The intervention in this case is stretching of the Gluteus Maximus since it is the same as a lengthened muscle
- C.
Gluteus Maximus is contracted due to excessive activation versus the flexors
- D.
Gluteus Maximus is elongated due to excessive activation versus the flexors
Correct Answer
C. Gluteus Maximus is contracted due to excessive activation versus the flexorsExplanation
In this case, the correct answer is that the Gluteus Maximus is contracted due to excessive activation versus the flexors. This means that the Gluteus Maximus is overactive and tight, causing the muscle imbalance in the hip. The intervention required would be to strengthen the Gluteus Maximus to restore balance and reduce the excessive activation of the muscle. Stretching the Gluteus Maximus would not be appropriate in this case as it is already in a contracted state.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A patient comes to your for complaints of low back pain. Upon postural assessment, you took a picture and noted the patient’s habitual posture. Knowing these, which of the following impairments would you most likely find?
- A.
Lengthened trunk flexors, contracted hip flexors
- B.
Tight trunk flexors, tight trunk extensors
- C.
Stretched hip flexors, strong hip extensors
- D.
Weak back extensors, weak hip extensors
Correct Answer
C. Stretched hip flexors, strong hip extensorsExplanation
Based on the information provided, the patient's habitual posture is noted to have stretched hip flexors and strong hip extensors. This suggests that the hip flexors are being constantly stretched and lengthened, while the hip extensors are being strengthened and contracted. This imbalance in muscle length and strength indicates that the patient may have a tendency to tilt their pelvis forward, leading to increased stress and tension on the hip flexors and extensors. This can result in low back pain, as the muscles in the hip region are not functioning optimally to support the spine and maintain proper posture.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A physical therapist examines a patient lying supine with both lower extremities extended. The therapist notes that both of the patient’s medial malleoli are aligned with each other. The therapist asks the patient to assume the long-sitting position and notes the position of the malleoli (the right malleolus shifted inferiorly). What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s test results?
- A.
Excessive femoral anteversion
- B.
Anterior rotation of the innominate on the right
- C.
Functional leg-length discrepancy due to left, lateral pelvic tilt
- D.
Posterior rotation of the innominate on the right
Correct Answer
B. Anterior rotation of the innominate on the rightExplanation
The patient's medial malleoli being aligned in the supine position suggests that the innominates are in a neutral position. However, when the patient assumes the long-sitting position and the right malleolus shifts inferiorly, it indicates anterior rotation of the right innominate. This means that the right side of the pelvis is rotating forward, causing a positional change in the malleoli. Therefore, the most likely cause of this patient's test results is anterior rotation of the innominate on the right.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The therapist is evaluating a 38-year-old man who complains of right sacroiliac joint pain. The therapist decides to assess leg length discrepancy to supine versus sitting position. When the patient is in supine position, leg lengths are equal; however, when the patient rises to the sitting position, the right lower extremity appears 2 cm. shorter. Which of the following should be a part of the treatment plan?
- A.
Right posterior S1 mobilization
- B.
Right anterior S1 mobilization
- C.
Left posterior S1 mobilization
- D.
Left anterior S1 mobilization
Correct Answer
A. Right posterior S1 mobilizationExplanation
The correct answer is right posterior S1 mobilization. The patient's leg length discrepancy suggests a possible sacroiliac joint dysfunction. Right posterior S1 mobilization would be a suitable treatment plan as it can help address any dysfunction or misalignment in the sacroiliac joint, specifically on the right side. This mobilization technique can help restore proper joint mechanics and alleviate the patient's right sacroiliac joint pain.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A patient presents with leg-length discrepancy. As a therapist, you know that this may be due to several causes. If the patient’s diagnosis states that he/she has Coxa Vara, what compensations would you expect during assessment?
- A.
Hip flexion
- B.
Knee flexion
- C.
Subtalar inversion
- D.
Pronation
Correct Answer
C. Subtalar inversionExplanation
If a patient has Coxa Vara, it means that their hip joint has a decreased angle, causing the leg to be shorter. In order to compensate for this leg-length discrepancy, the patient may exhibit subtalar inversion during assessment. Subtalar inversion refers to the inward rolling of the foot, which helps to raise the arch and effectively lengthen the leg. This compensation helps to equalize the leg lengths and maintain balance during walking or standing.Rate this question:
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- 25.
An adolescent female is referred to therapy with the diagnosis if anterior knee pain. Positive findings include pes planus, lateral tibial torsion and genu valgum. The position that the femur will be in excessive:
- A.
Abduction
- B.
Medial rotation
- C.
Lateral rotation
- D.
Retroversion
Correct Answer
B. Medial rotationExplanation
The correct answer is medial rotation. In this case, the adolescent female has pes planus (flat feet), lateral tibial torsion (the tibia bone is twisted outward), and genu valgum (knock knees). These conditions can cause the femur bone to rotate medially, meaning it moves inward toward the midline of the body. This excessive medial rotation of the femur can contribute to anterior knee pain.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The therapist is evaluating a 32-year-old woman for complaints of right hip pain. The patient has injured the strongest ligament of the hip. The therapist places the patient in the prone position on the plinth and passively extends the involved hip. The therapist notes an abnormal amount of increase in passive hip extension. Which of the following ligaments is damaged?
- A.
Ischiofemoral ligament
- B.
Iliofemoral ligament (Y ligament of Bigelow)
- C.
Pubofemoral ligament
- D.
Ligamentum teres
Correct Answer
B. Iliofemoral ligament (Y ligament of Bigelow)Explanation
The therapist observes an abnormal increase in passive hip extension when evaluating the patient. This indicates that the iliofemoral ligament, also known as the Y ligament of Bigelow, is damaged. The iliofemoral ligament is one of the strongest ligaments in the hip joint and helps to stabilize and limit excessive extension of the hip. Damage to this ligament can result in increased passive hip extension, leading to the patient's complaints of right hip pain.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In the presence of paralysis of active hip extension, as in the case of a paraplegic patient, functional standing balance is achieved by the following technique:
- A.
Placing the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk anterior to the hip joint and leaning against the Iliofemoral ligament
- B.
Placing the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk posterior to the hip joint and leaning against the Iliofemoral ligament
- C.
Placing the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk anterior to the hip joint and leaning against the Iliopsoas muscle
- D.
Placing the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk posterior to the hip joint and leaning against the Iliopsoas muscle
Correct Answer
B. Placing the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk posterior to the hip joint and leaning against the Iliofemoral ligamentExplanation
In the presence of paralysis of active hip extension, the technique that allows for functional standing balance is to place the center of gravity of the Head, Arms and Trunk posterior to the hip joint and lean against the Iliofemoral ligament. This positioning helps to create a counterbalance and stability by shifting the weight behind the hip joint. Leaning against the Iliofemoral ligament provides additional support and helps to maintain balance.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following motions would you guard your hip against to prevent dislocation?
- A.
Flexion and adduction
- B.
Extension and abduction
- C.
Flexion and abduction
- D.
Extension and adduction
Correct Answer
A. Flexion and adductionExplanation
To prevent hip dislocation, one should guard against the motion of flexion and adduction. Flexion refers to bending the hip joint, while adduction refers to bringing the leg towards the midline of the body. These motions can put excessive stress on the hip joint, leading to dislocation. By avoiding flexion and adduction, one can help maintain the stability of the hip joint and reduce the risk of dislocation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The intervention for a patient who has right sciatic pain caused by piriformis compression would NOT include:
- A.
Instruction in mild self-stretching in sitting with the right hip and knee flexed and pressure applied in the medial direction to the distal thigh with the left arm.
- B.
Contract-relax exercise to the hip external rotators performed with the patient sidelying and the right hip and knee positioned in 90 degrees of flexion.
- C.
Active resistive strengthening exercise to the piriformis with the patient prone and the knee flexed
- D.
Application of cold to the area of sciatic nerve irritability
Correct Answer
C. Active resistive strengthening exercise to the piriformis with the patient prone and the knee flexedExplanation
The correct answer is active resistive strengthening exercise to the piriformis with the patient prone and the knee flexed. This exercise would involve contracting the piriformis muscle against resistance, which could potentially exacerbate the compression and increase pain in the sciatic nerve. Therefore, it would not be included in the intervention for a patient with right sciatic pain caused by piriformis compression.Rate this question:
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- 30.
You are assessing a patient’s flexibility by asking the patient to reach her toes in a long sitting position similar to the picture above. The result of the assessment is exactly depicted in the above illustration. What can you infer from the result?
- A.
Quadriceps muscle is responsible for the result due to its active insufficiency
- B.
Hamstrings muscle is responsible for the result due to its active insufficiency
- C.
Quadriceps muscle is responsible for the result due to its passive insufficiency
- D.
Hamstrings muscle is responsible for the result due to its passive insufficiency
Correct Answer
D. Hamstrings muscle is responsible for the result due to its passive insufficiencyExplanation
The illustration shows the patient's inability to reach her toes in a long sitting position, indicating limited flexibility in the hamstrings muscle. Passive insufficiency refers to the inability of a muscle to lengthen fully due to its antagonist muscle being shortened. In this case, the hamstrings muscle is being passively insufficient, meaning it is unable to lengthen fully due to the shortened quadriceps muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is that the hamstrings muscle is responsible for the result due to its passive insufficiency.Rate this question:
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- 31.
This is strengthening for which of the following hip muscles?
- A.
Hamstrings
- B.
Ilipsoas
- C.
Gluteus maximus
- D.
Quadratus lumborum
Correct Answer
C. Gluteus maximusExplanation
The gluteus maximus is the correct answer because it is a major hip muscle responsible for hip extension and external rotation. Strengthening the gluteus maximus can help improve hip stability, power, and overall lower body strength.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A patient is lying supine with his hips and knees extended and hands behind his head. The patient is able to raise his head, shoulder and thorax from the treatment table, but is unable to come to a complete long-sitting position. The PT should target which muscle for strengthening program?
- A.
Iliopsoas
- B.
External abdominal oblique
- C.
Quadratus lumborum
- D.
Upper rectus abdominis
Correct Answer
A. IliopsoasExplanation
The patient's inability to come to a complete long-sitting position suggests a weakness in the hip flexors. The iliopsoas muscle is the primary hip flexor, responsible for lifting the thigh towards the abdomen. Strengthening the iliopsoas through targeted exercises would help the patient improve their ability to sit up fully. The other muscles listed do not have as direct of a role in hip flexion and would not be the primary target for this specific issue.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What disease is being shown in the x-ray film?
- A.
LCPD
- B.
SCFE
- C.
Hip Dislocation
- D.
Malalignment Syndrome
Correct Answer
A. LCPDExplanation
LCPD stands for Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, which is a condition that affects the hip joint in children. It occurs when the blood supply to the femoral head (top of the thigh bone) is disrupted, leading to bone death and subsequent deformity. The x-ray film is likely showing characteristic changes in the hip joint associated with LCPD, such as flattening and fragmentation of the femoral head. SCFE (Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis) is another condition that affects the hip joint in children, but it is characterized by the slippage of the femoral head from the femoral neck. Hip dislocation and malalignment syndrome are unrelated conditions and would not present with the same x-ray findings as LCPD.Rate this question:
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- 34.
All of the following statements describe the neck region except:
- A.
It is found between the foramen magnum and the clavicle
- B.
It serves as the base of the skull
- C.
It has both the cervical vertebrae and the hyoid bone as the only bones in the region
- D.
It has several muscular layers that serves to protect structures that pass through the neck
Correct Answer
C. It has both the cervical vertebrae and the hyoid bone as the only bones in the regionExplanation
The neck region is not only composed of the cervical vertebrae and the hyoid bone, but also includes other bones such as the clavicle. It serves as the base of the skull and contains several muscular layers that protect structures passing through it.Rate this question:
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- 35.
All of the following describe the atlanto-occipital joint except:
- A.
It allows slight lateral flexion
- B.
It is a hinge type joint
- C.
It is attached by the anterior atlanto occipital ligament to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum
- D.
It allows extension beyond midline
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the aboveExplanation
The given answer "None of the above" is correct because all of the statements provided in the question accurately describe the atlanto-occipital joint. It allows slight lateral flexion, it is a hinge type joint, and it is attached by the anterior atlanto occipital ligament to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum. Additionally, it allows extension beyond midline. Therefore, there is no statement that is incorrect or does not describe the atlanto-occipital joint.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following ligaments first receives tension upon movement of the neck region:
- A.
Interspinous ligament
- B.
Ligamentum flavum
- C.
Supraspinous ligament
- D.
Anterior longitudinal ligament
Correct Answer
C. Supraspinous ligamentExplanation
The supraspinous ligament is the correct answer because it is located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral column and connects the tips of the spinous processes. When the neck region moves, the supraspinous ligament is the first ligament to receive tension due to its position and function in stabilizing the vertebrae.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following statements are true:I. Digastric is a suprahyoid muscleII. Omohyoid is an infrahyoid muscleIII. Ansa cervicalis supplies all of the hyoid musclesIV. Hyoid bone is found at the level of C6V. Sternohyoid is found above the hyoid bone
- A.
I and III only
- B.
I, II, and III
- C.
I, III, and V
- D.
I and II
Correct Answer
D. I and IIExplanation
The correct answer is I and II.
I. Digastric is a suprahyoid muscle: This statement is true. The digastric muscle is located above the hyoid bone, making it a suprahyoid muscle.
II. Omohyoid is an infrahyoid muscle: This statement is true. The omohyoid muscle is located below the hyoid bone, making it an infrahyoid muscle.
III. Ansa cervicalis supplies all of the hyoid muscles: This statement is false. The ansa cervicalis is a nerve loop that supplies some of the infrahyoid muscles, but not all of the hyoid muscles.
IV. Hyoid bone is found at the level of C6: This statement is false. The hyoid bone is located at the level of C3-C4, not C6.
V. Sternohyoid is found above the hyoid bone: This statement is false. The sternohyoid muscle is located below the hyoid bone, making it an infrahyoid muscle.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A type of torticollis caused by traumatic injury specifically burn injury:
- A.
Traumatic
- B.
Psychogenic
- C.
Congenital
- D.
Cicatricial
Correct Answer
D. CicatricialExplanation
Cicatricial torticollis is a type of torticollis that is caused by traumatic injury, specifically burn injury. It occurs when scar tissue forms in the neck muscles, causing them to contract and resulting in a twisted or tilted neck position. This differs from other types of torticollis, such as psychogenic torticollis which is caused by psychological factors, congenital torticollis which is present at birth, and traumatic torticollis which is caused by physical trauma other than burns.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Upon observation of a patient who entered your clinic, you found that the patient’s neck is rotated towards right and is laterally flexed towards left. Which muscle is probably tight?
- A.
(L) SCM
- B.
(R) scalenes
- C.
(L) scalenes
- D.
(R) SCM
Correct Answer
A. (L) SCMExplanation
The correct answer is (L) SCM. The sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle is responsible for rotating the head towards the opposite side and laterally flexing it towards the same side. In this case, the patient's neck is rotated towards the right and laterally flexed towards the left, indicating that the left SCM muscle is tight.Rate this question:
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- 40.
You were asked by your clinical supervisor to stretch your patient’s tight neck muscle. Upon assessment, you found out that your patient has tight (L) scalenes. Which of the following maneuvers should you perform?
- A.
Stretch the neck towards (R) rotation and (L) lateral flexion
- B.
Stretch the neck towards (L) rotation and lateral flexion
- C.
Stretch the neck towards (L) rotation and (R) lateral flexion
- D.
Stretch the neck towards (R) rotation and lateral flexion
Correct Answer
D. Stretch the neck towards (R) rotation and lateral flexionExplanation
The correct answer suggests that the neck should be stretched towards right rotation and lateral flexion. This is because the patient has tight (L) scalenes, which are muscles located on the left side of the neck. Stretching the neck towards right rotation and lateral flexion will help to stretch and lengthen the tight scalene muscles, providing relief and improving flexibility.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which structure passess beneath this part of the skull?
- A.
Temporal arteries
- B.
Middle meningeal arteries
- C.
Venous sinuses
- D.
Subarachnoid plexus
Correct Answer
B. Middle meningeal arteriesExplanation
The middle meningeal arteries pass beneath this part of the skull. These arteries are branches of the maxillary artery and are responsible for supplying blood to the meninges, which are the protective layers surrounding the brain and spinal cord. They are located between the dura mater and the skull, and any damage to these arteries can lead to a condition called epidural hematoma.Rate this question:
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- 42.
This structure often impinges which cranial nerve causing nerve contusion?
- A.
Optic nerve
- B.
Olfactory nerve
- C.
Trochlear nerve
- D.
Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer
B. Olfactory nerveExplanation
The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell and is located in the nasal cavity. In certain situations, such as head trauma or a strong impact to the face, this nerve can become compressed or injured, resulting in a nerve contusion.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following statements are true:I. Cranial Nerve II exits at the optic canalII. Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits at foramen rotundumIII. Opthalmic branch of Cranial nerve 5 exits at superior orbital fissureIV. Cranial nerves 9,10,11 and 12 exits at jugular foramenV. Abducens nerve exits at superior orbital fissure
- A.
I and II only
- B.
I and III
- C.
I, II, and IV
- D.
I, III and V
- E.
I, II and IV
Correct Answer
D. I, III and VExplanation
Cranial Nerve II, also known as the optic nerve, exits at the optic canal. The ophthalmic branch of Cranial nerve 5, also known as the trigeminal nerve, exits at the superior orbital fissure. The abducens nerve, which is Cranial Nerve VI, also exits at the superior orbital fissure. Therefore, the correct statements are I, III, and V.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Only unpaired triangle of the neck:
- A.
Muscular triangle
- B.
Submandibular triangle
- C.
Submental triangle
- D.
Carotid triangle
Correct Answer
A. Muscular triangleExplanation
The muscular triangle is the only unpaired triangle of the neck. The other three triangles mentioned (submandibular, submental, and carotid) are all paired, meaning there is one on each side of the neck. The muscular triangle is located in the front of the neck, between the anterior belly of the digastric muscle, the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, and the midline of the neck. It contains several muscles, including the infrahyoid muscles and the thyroid gland.Rate this question:
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- 45.
All of the following statements describe levator palpebrae superioris except:
- A.
Its primary action is to open the eyes
- B.
It is innervated by the oculomotor nerve
- C.
It is the only muscle that open the eyes
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. It is the only muscle that open the eyesExplanation
The statement "It is the only muscle that opens the eyes" is incorrect because there are other muscles involved in opening the eyes, such as the superior tarsal muscle and the orbicularis oculi muscle. The levator palpebrae superioris muscle primarily lifts the upper eyelid, but it is not the only muscle responsible for opening the eyes.Rate this question:
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- 46.
This muscle also elevates the eyelid. The reason why the ptosis in Horner's syndrome is just partial.
- A.
Mueller's muscle
- B.
Mulligan's muscle
- C.
Corrugator palpebrae
- D.
Levator palpebrae
Correct Answer
A. Mueller's muscleExplanation
Mueller's muscle is responsible for elevating the eyelid. In Horner's syndrome, there is partial ptosis, which means only a partial drooping of the eyelid. This is because Mueller's muscle is still functioning partially, allowing some elevation of the eyelid.Rate this question:
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- 47.
During assessment, you asked your patient to look down and right. Which cranial nerves are you trying to test?
- A.
R CN 2 and L CN 4
- B.
R CN 3 and L CN 4
- C.
R CN 4 and L CN 3
- D.
R CN 6 and L CN 1
Correct Answer
B. R CN 3 and L CN 4Explanation
When asking the patient to look down and right, the cranial nerves being tested are the right cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor nerve) and the left cranial nerve 4 (trochlear nerve). The oculomotor nerve controls the movements of the eye, including downward gaze, while the trochlear nerve controls the movement of the superior oblique muscle, which helps to move the eye downward and inward. Therefore, testing these cranial nerves helps to assess the patient's eye movements and coordination.Rate this question:
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- 48.
You asked your patient to close his mouth tightly however patient cannot maintain mouth closure. All of the following muscles may be responsible for weak/poor mouth closure except:
- A.
Masseter
- B.
Medial pterygoid
- C.
Lateral pterygoid
- D.
Temporalis
Correct Answer
C. Lateral pterygoidExplanation
The lateral pterygoid muscle is not responsible for weak/poor mouth closure. The masseter, medial pterygoid, and temporalis muscles are all involved in closing the mouth tightly. The lateral pterygoid muscle is responsible for opening the mouth and moving the jaw from side to side. Therefore, it would not be responsible for the patient's inability to maintain mouth closure.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Oral muscle involved in this motion:
- A.
Risorius
- B.
Depressor anguli oris
- C.
Mentalis
- D.
Depressor labii anguli oris
Correct Answer
C. MentalisExplanation
The mentalis muscle is involved in this motion. The mentalis muscle is located in the chin area and is responsible for controlling the movement of the lower lip. It helps in raising and wrinkling the skin of the chin and pushing the lower lip upwards. This muscle is important for facial expressions such as pouting or expressing doubt.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which extraocular muscle is damaged in this individual?
- A.
L superior oblique
- B.
R lateral rectus
- C.
L medial rectus
- D.
R superior rectus
- E.
L lareral rectus
- F.
R medial rectus
- G.
R superior oblique
Correct Answer
C. L medial rectusExplanation
The individual in question has damage to their left medial rectus muscle. This muscle is responsible for inward movement of the eye towards the nose (adduction). Damage to the medial rectus muscle can result in a condition known as medial rectus palsy, which causes the affected eye to be unable to move inward properly. This can lead to double vision and difficulty with tasks that require both eyes to work together.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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