Physiology Quiz: Body Disorders
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following would NOT contribute to limited hip extension?
- A.
Tight anterior joint capsule
- B.
Weak psoas
- C.
Weak gluteus maximus
- D.
Short rectus femoris
Correct Answer
B. Weak psoasExplanation
A weak psoas muscle would not contribute to limited hip extension. The psoas muscle is responsible for flexing the hip joint, so if it is weak, it would not be able to effectively flex the hip and therefore would not limit hip extension. Tight anterior joint capsule, weak gluteus maximus, and short rectus femoris, on the other hand, can all contribute to limited hip extension as they can restrict the movement of the hip joint.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Snapping hip syndrome can be the _______ tendon passing over the ________.
- A.
Psoas, lesser trochanter
- B.
Psoas, greater trochanter
- C.
Iliofemoral ligament, lesser trochanter
- D.
Psoas, anterior acetabulum
- E.
A & D
Correct Answer
E. A & DExplanation
Snapping hip syndrome can be caused by the psoas tendon passing over the anterior acetabulum or the lesser trochanter. This condition occurs when the tendon snaps or pops as it moves over these structures, causing pain and discomfort. The psoas tendon is located in the hip joint and is responsible for flexing the hip. The anterior acetabulum is the front part of the hip socket, while the lesser trochanter is a bony prominence on the femur. Both of these structures can cause snapping hip syndrome when the psoas tendon passes over them.Rate this question:
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- 3.
With a posterior pelvic tilt, which hip ligament would be stressed?
- A.
Iliofemoral
- B.
Y ligament of Bigalow
- C.
Ischiofemoral ligament
- D.
Pubofemoral ligament
- E.
A & B
Correct Answer
E. A & BExplanation
The correct answer is A & B. With a posterior pelvic tilt, both the iliofemoral and the Y ligament of Bigalow would be stressed. The iliofemoral ligament is located in the front of the hip joint and helps to prevent excessive extension of the hip. The Y ligament of Bigalow, also known as the ligamentum teres, is located inside the hip joint and helps to stabilize the femoral head within the acetabulum. Both ligaments would be stretched and stressed in a posterior pelvic tilt, as the pelvis rotates backwards and the hip joint moves into extension.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Tight hip flexors cause increased lumbar _______ when the hip extends.
- A.
Extension
- B.
Flexion
Correct Answer
A. ExtensionExplanation
Tight hip flexors restrict the range of motion in the hip joint, leading to limited hip extension. This limited hip extension puts additional stress on the lumbar spine, causing increased lumbar extension. Therefore, the correct answer is extension.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Pain originating from the hip joint is commonly felt in the groin area.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Pain originating from the hip joint is commonly felt in the groin area because the hip joint is located deep within the pelvis, close to the groin. When there is inflammation or injury in the hip joint, the pain can radiate to the surrounding areas, including the groin. This is a common symptom experienced by individuals with hip joint problems such as arthritis, bursitis, or hip labral tears. Therefore, the statement that pain from the hip joint is commonly felt in the groin area is true.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Two structres that are likely implicated with an anterior pelvic tilt include:
- A.
Short Quadratus femoris, short quatratus lumborum
- B.
Short TFL, weak psoas
- C.
Weak gluteus maximus, short IT band
- D.
Short hamstrings, weak TFL
Correct Answer
C. Weak gluteus maximus, short IT bandExplanation
An anterior pelvic tilt is a postural imbalance where the front of the pelvis tilts forward and the back of the pelvis tilts backward. This can be caused by various factors, including muscle imbalances. In this case, the correct answer suggests that weak gluteus maximus and a short IT band are likely implicated with an anterior pelvic tilt. The gluteus maximus is responsible for hip extension and plays a crucial role in maintaining proper pelvic alignment. If it is weak, it can contribute to an anterior pelvic tilt. Additionally, a short IT band can also contribute to this imbalance by pulling the pelvis forward.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If your client has 30 degress of hip adduction, you would want to increase this range of motion.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
If your client has 30 degrees of hip adduction, you would not want to increase this range of motion. Hip adduction refers to the movement of bringing the leg towards the midline of the body. Having excessive hip adduction can lead to poor alignment and stability during movements. Therefore, it would be more desirable to decrease the range of motion in this case, rather than increase it.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following could be a cause of hypermobility with hip OA?
- A.
Stabilizing muscle spasm
- B.
Joint capsule restrictions
- C.
Joint capsule laxity due to degeneration
- D.
Osteophyte formation
Correct Answer
C. Joint capsule laxity due to degenerationExplanation
Joint capsule laxity due to degeneration could be a cause of hypermobility with hip OA. In osteoarthritis (OA), the joint capsule surrounding the hip joint can become weakened and stretched, leading to laxity. This laxity can result in increased mobility or hypermobility of the joint, which can contribute to pain, instability, and further degeneration. Stabilizing muscle spasm and joint capsule restrictions would typically lead to decreased mobility rather than hypermobility. Osteophyte formation, which refers to the growth of bony outgrowths, may limit the range of motion but is not directly related to hypermobility.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A weak gluteus medius on the right side may result in:
- A.
Pelvis tilting downward on the left side when standing on the right leg
- B.
Compensatory movement of shifting the upper body to the left
- C.
Lumbar side bending to the left
- D.
Nerve root irritation on the left
Correct Answer
A. Pelvis tilting downward on the left side when standing on the right legExplanation
A weak gluteus medius on the right side may result in pelvis tilting downward on the left side when standing on the right leg because the gluteus medius is responsible for stabilizing the pelvis during single-leg activities. When the right gluteus medius is weak, it is unable to adequately support the pelvis on the right side, causing it to drop on the left side. This can lead to an imbalance in the hips and affect the alignment of the spine, resulting in compensatory movements such as shifting the upper body to the left and lumbar side bending to the left. Nerve root irritation on the left is not directly related to a weak gluteus medius.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Shin spints have variable descriptions of the quality of pain. If someone describes parasthesia type symptoms, what is the condition most likely to be?
- A.
Compartment syndrome
- B.
Periostitis
- C.
Tendonitis
- D.
Stress fracture
Correct Answer
A. Compartment syndromeExplanation
If someone describes parasthesia type symptoms, the condition most likely to be is compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment leads to reduced blood flow and nerve function. Parasthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, is commonly associated with compartment syndrome due to the compression of nerves. This condition can be caused by various factors such as trauma, overuse, or exercise-induced muscle swelling.Rate this question:
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- 11.
If the tibialis anterior is overworking to dorsiflex the ankle, which two muscles are likely short?
- A.
Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus
- B.
Extensor halusis longus, peroneus longus
- C.
Soleus, gastrocnemius
Correct Answer
C. Soleus, gastrocnemiusExplanation
If the tibialis anterior is overworking to dorsiflex the ankle, it suggests that the muscles responsible for plantarflexion (pointing the foot downwards) are likely short. The soleus and gastrocnemius are both muscles that contribute to plantarflexion, so if they are short, it can cause the tibialis anterior to overwork in order to compensate for the lack of flexibility in these muscles. Therefore, the correct answer is Soleus, gastrocnemius.Rate this question:
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- 12.
If someone describes pain directly over their lateral hip/greater trochanter, which trigger point(s) could be the cause?
- A.
Quadratus lumborum
- B.
Gluteus medius
- C.
Vastus lateralis
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." If someone describes pain directly over their lateral hip/greater trochanter, it could be caused by trigger points in the quadratus lumborum, gluteus medius, or vastus lateralis muscles. These trigger points can refer pain to the lateral hip area, causing discomfort in that specific location. Therefore, all three muscles mentioned could be the potential cause of the pain described.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A step deformity would be observed with:
- A.
Acromioclavicular joint separation
- B.
Glenohumeral joint anterior dislocation
- C.
Sternoclavicular joint hypermobility
- D.
Sternoclavicular joint hypomobility
Correct Answer
A. Acromioclavicular joint separationExplanation
Acromioclavicular joint separation refers to the dislocation or separation of the acromioclavicular joint, which is the joint between the acromion process of the scapula and the clavicle. This can occur due to trauma or injury to the shoulder. A step deformity would be observed in this condition because the separation of the joint causes a visible step or gap between the acromion process and the clavicle. This deformity can be easily palpated and seen on physical examination.Rate this question:
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- 14.
When observing your client's scapula from behind, you notice that the spine of the scapula is horizontal. This indicates a(n):
- A.
Upwardly rotated scapula
- B.
Normal scapular posture
- C.
Downwardly rotated scapula
- D.
Anteriorly tipped scapula
Correct Answer
C. Downwardly rotated scapulaExplanation
When observing the client's scapula from behind, a horizontal spine of the scapula indicates a downwardly rotated scapula. This means that the inferior angle of the scapula is positioned more laterally and inferiorly compared to its normal position. This can affect the movement and stability of the shoulder joint, potentially leading to shoulder impingement or other shoulder-related issues.Rate this question:
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- 15.
During active arm abduction in the plane of scaption, the humerus is required to ______ to achieve full range of motion.
- A.
Internally rotate
- B.
Externally rotate
- C.
No rotation is required
Correct Answer
C. No rotation is requiredExplanation
During active arm abduction in the plane of scaption, the humerus is required to move in a specific way to achieve full range of motion. In this case, the correct answer suggests that no rotation is required. This means that the humerus does not need to internally or externally rotate to perform the abduction movement in the scaption plane. The motion is primarily in the frontal plane, with the arm moving away from the body without any rotational component.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The first range you are likley to lose at the glenohumeral joint when a capsular pattern is present is:
- A.
Internal rotation
- B.
External rotation
- C.
Abduction
- D.
Adduction
- E.
Flexion
Correct Answer
B. External rotationExplanation
When a capsular pattern is present at the glenohumeral joint, it typically results in a loss of range of motion in a specific pattern. The capsular pattern refers to the characteristic loss of movement that is observed when the joint capsule is affected. In this case, the correct answer is external rotation, which means that when a capsular pattern is present, the first range of motion likely to be lost is external rotation. This means that the individual will have difficulty rotating their arm outward away from the body.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which part of the glenohumeral joint capsule is most affected by adhesive capsulitis?
- A.
Superior
- B.
Anterior
- C.
Posterior
- D.
Inferior
Correct Answer
D. InferiorExplanation
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a condition characterized by inflammation and tightening of the shoulder joint capsule. It typically affects the inferior part of the glenohumeral joint capsule the most. This is because the inferior part of the capsule is thicker and more lax compared to the other parts, making it more prone to inflammation and subsequent adhesion formation. As a result, individuals with adhesive capsulitis often experience pain and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint, particularly in movements involving external rotation and abduction.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following options represents the most effective course of treatment during the freezing stage of frozen shoulder?
- A.
Low grade joint mobilizations
- B.
Passive range of motion
- C.
High grade mobilizations
- D.
A & B
- E.
B & C
Correct Answer
D. A & BExplanation
During the freezing stage of frozen shoulder, the most effective course of treatment would involve low grade joint mobilizations and passive range of motion exercises. Low grade joint mobilizations help to gently move the joint and improve its mobility, while passive range of motion exercises involve moving the joint with the help of an external force. These interventions can help to reduce pain, increase range of motion, and prevent further stiffness and immobility in the shoulder joint. Therefore, option A & B would be the most effective course of treatment during the freezing stage of frozen shoulder.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Following an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint, which of the following treatment options would you include during the acute/early sub acute stages of healing?
- A.
Stretching in to external rotation at 90 degrees of abduction
- B.
Stretches into extension
- C.
Low grade posterior glides
- D.
Low grade anterior glides
Correct Answer
C. Low grade posterior glidesExplanation
During the acute/early subacute stages of healing following an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint, low grade posterior glides would be included as a treatment option. This is because low grade posterior glides help to restore normal joint alignment and promote healing by gently mobilizing the joint in a posterior direction. This can help to reduce pain, increase range of motion, and improve overall joint function.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Pain through 45-120 degrees of abduction is most likely to indicate:
- A.
Frozen shoulder in the frozen stage
- B.
Sternoclavicular joint hypomobility
- C.
Acromioclavicular joint injury
- D.
Biceps short head tendonitis
- E.
Subacromial joint impingement
Correct Answer
E. Subacromial joint impingementExplanation
Pain through 45-120 degrees of abduction is most likely to indicate subacromial joint impingement. This condition occurs when the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles and/or the bursa become compressed and irritated as they pass through the subacromial space. This can cause pain and limited range of motion during abduction of the arm. Other conditions listed, such as frozen shoulder, sternoclavicular joint hypomobility, acromioclavicular joint injury, and biceps short head tendonitis, are less likely to cause pain specifically in this range of motion.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When providing treatment for someone that suffers from shoulder impingement that you've assessed as being the result of an anterior tipping scapula, which of the following treatment aims would be considered?
- A.
Lengthening the upper trapezius
- B.
Strengthening the rhomboids
- C.
Strengthening the serratus anterior
- D.
Lengthening the pectoralis major
Correct Answer
C. Strengthening the serratus anteriorExplanation
When someone has shoulder impingement caused by an anterior tipping scapula, strengthening the serratus anterior would be considered as a treatment aim. The serratus anterior is responsible for stabilizing the scapula and preventing it from tipping forward. Strengthening this muscle can help improve scapular stability and alignment, reducing impingement and improving shoulder function. Lengthening the upper trapezius, strengthening the rhomboids, and lengthening the pectoralis major may also be beneficial in addressing muscle imbalances and improving scapular position, but in this specific case, strengthening the serratus anterior is the most appropriate treatment aim.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Impingement resulting from subacromial bursitis would be referred to as:
- A.
Primary impingement
- B.
Secondary impingement
Correct Answer
A. Primary impingementExplanation
Impingement resulting from subacromial bursitis is referred to as primary impingement because it occurs due to inflammation and swelling of the subacromial bursa, which leads to compression and irritation of the structures in the subacromial space, including the rotator cuff tendons. Secondary impingement, on the other hand, is caused by anatomical abnormalities or dysfunction of the shoulder joint, such as instability or muscle imbalances, leading to impingement of the structures in the subacromial space.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When performing an assessment, which finding would NOT contribute to plantar fascitis?
- A.
Hypomobility of the foot
- B.
Hypermobility of the foot
- C.
Myofascial restrictions in the posterior leg
- D.
Restriction in first toe extension
- E.
All of the above would contribute
Correct Answer
E. All of the above would contributeExplanation
All of the findings mentioned in the options (hypomobility of the foot, hypermobility of the foot, myofascial restrictions in the posterior leg, and restriction in first toe extension) would contribute to plantar fasciitis. Plantar fasciitis is commonly caused by biomechanical abnormalities, such as excessive pronation (hypermobile foot) or limited dorsiflexion (hypomobile foot). Myofascial restrictions in the posterior leg can also affect the mechanics of the foot and contribute to plantar fasciitis. Additionally, restriction in first toe extension can lead to compensatory movements and increased stress on the plantar fascia, thus contributing to the development or exacerbation of plantar fasciitis.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What nerve could become entrapped between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris at the cubital tunnel?
- A.
Radial
- B.
Median
- C.
Ulnar
- D.
Musculocutaneous
- E.
Axillary
Correct Answer
C. UlnarExplanation
The ulnar nerve could become entrapped between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris at the cubital tunnel. The cubital tunnel is a narrow passageway on the inside of the elbow where the ulnar nerve passes through. Entrapment of the ulnar nerve at this location can lead to symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and fingers.Rate this question:
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- 25.
With a tendonopathy, pain will occur when the muscle is contracted and when it is stretched.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Tendonopathy refers to a condition where there is damage or inflammation in a tendon. When a muscle is contracted or stretched, it puts strain on the tendon, leading to pain. Therefore, it is true that with tendonopathy, pain will occur both when the muscle is contracted and when it is stretched.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Pain on the dorasl surface of the great toe would likely be from a trigger point in which muscle?
- A.
Tibialis posterior
- B.
Tibialis anterior
- C.
Extensor hallusis longus
- D.
Flexor hallusis longus
Correct Answer
B. Tibialis anteriorExplanation
Pain on the dorsal surface of the great toe is likely from a trigger point in the Tibialis anterior muscle. The Tibialis anterior muscle is located in the front of the lower leg and is responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot. Trigger points in this muscle can cause referred pain to the dorsal surface of the great toe.Rate this question:
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