Patho Chapter 5

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Pathology Quizzes & Trivia

Patho. Chapter. Five.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?

    • A.

      Adenoma

    • B.

      Lipoma

    • C.

      Fibrosarcoma

    • D.

      Adenocarcinoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Lipoma
    Explanation
    A benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue is called a lipoma. Lipomas are noncancerous tumors that develop from fat cells. They usually feel soft and are movable under the skin. Adenoma is a benign tumor that arises from glandular tissue, fibrosarcoma is a malignant tumor of fibrous tissue, and adenocarcinoma is a malignant tumor that originates in glandular tissue.

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  • 2. 

    What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?

    • A.

      Carcinomas

    • B.

      Sarcomas

    • C.

      Melanomas

    • D.

      Fibromas

    Correct Answer
    B. Sarcomas
    Explanation
    Malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells are called sarcomas. Unlike carcinomas, which originate from epithelial cells, sarcomas specifically develop from cells of the connective tissue. Melanomas are malignant neoplasms arising from melanocytes, while fibromas are benign tumors composed of fibrous connective tissue. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is sarcomas.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?

    • A.

      Unencapsulated, invasive

    • B.

      It consists of undifferentiated cells

    • C.

      It exerts systemic effects

    • D.

      Cells appear relatively normal

    Correct Answer
    D. Cells appear relatively normal
    Explanation
    A benign tumor is characterized by cells that appear relatively normal. Unlike malignant tumors, benign tumors do not exhibit significant abnormalities in cell structure or function. This means that the cells in a benign tumor closely resemble healthy cells and maintain their normal appearance. This is one of the key features that differentiate benign tumors from malignant tumors, which often display abnormal and undifferentiated cells.

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  • 4. 

    What is the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors based on?

    • A.

      Size of the tumor

    • B.

      Number of metastases

    • C.

      Degree of differentiation of the cells

    • D.

      Number of lymph nodes involved

    Correct Answer
    C. Degree of differentiation of the cells
    Explanation
    The grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors is based on the degree of differentiation of the cells. This refers to how similar the cancer cells are to normal cells in terms of their appearance and function. A higher grade indicates that the cancer cells are less differentiated and more aggressive, while a lower grade suggests that the cancer cells are more similar to normal cells and less aggressive. Grading helps in determining the prognosis and guiding treatment decisions for patients with malignant tumors.

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  • 5. 

    A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following except:

    • A.

      Persistent, unusual bleeding

    • B.

      A change in bowel habits

    • C.

      Sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea

    • D.

      A change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion

    Correct Answer
    C. Sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
    Explanation
    A sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea is not typically associated with cancer. These symptoms are more commonly related to infections or gastrointestinal issues. Persistent, unusual bleeding, a change in bowel habits, and a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion can be warning signs of possible cancer and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.

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  • 6. 

    The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include 1. obstruction of a tube or duct 2. anemia and weight loss 3. cell necrosis and ulceration 4. tumor markers in the circulation

    • A.

      1, 2

    • B.

      1, 3

    • C.

      2, 4

    • D.

      3, 4

    Correct Answer
    B. 1, 3
    Explanation
    An expanding tumor mass can cause obstruction of a tube or duct in the body, leading to the common local effect of 1. This can occur when the tumor grows in a way that blocks the normal flow of fluids or substances through a tube or duct, causing symptoms related to the specific area affected. Additionally, as the tumor mass grows, it can outgrow its blood supply, leading to inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the tumor cells. This can result in cell necrosis and ulceration, which are the common local effects of 3.

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  • 7. 

    What does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?

    • A.

      The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells

    • B.

      Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer

    • C.

      The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors

    • D.

      The effects of multiple metastatic tumors

    Correct Answer
    A. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
    Explanation
    Paraneoplastic syndrome refers to the effects caused by substances, such as hormones, that are secreted by tumor cells. These substances can have a variety of effects on the body, including neurological, hormonal, and hematological abnormalities. This syndrome is not directly caused by the tumor itself or its metastasis, but rather by the substances produced by the tumor cells.

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  • 8. 

    What is the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites called?

    • A.

      Invasiveness

    • B.

      Seeding

    • C.

      Metastasis

    • D.

      Systemic effect

    Correct Answer
    C. Metastasis
    Explanation
    Metastasis refers to the spread of malignant cells from the original site of the tumor to other distant sites in the body through the blood or lymphatic system. It is a complex process involving the invasion of nearby tissues, entry into the bloodstream or lymphatic vessels, and establishment of new tumors in distant organs or tissues. This process is a hallmark of cancer and is responsible for the majority of cancer-related deaths.

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  • 9. 

    One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:

    • A.

      Identify the original cell from which the tumor developed

    • B.

      Locate and identify the primary tumor

    • C.

      Decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor

    • D.

      Determine the best treatment and the prognosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Determine the best treatment and the prognosis
    Explanation
    Staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is important to determine the best treatment and prognosis for the patient. By staging the tumor, healthcare professionals can assess the extent of the cancer, including its size, location, and whether it has spread to nearby lymph nodes or other parts of the body. This information helps in developing an appropriate treatment plan, such as surgery, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or a combination of these. Additionally, staging provides valuable insights into the prognosis, allowing healthcare providers to estimate the likely course of the disease and potential outcomes for the patient.

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  • 10. 

    The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:

    • A.

      Exposure to promoters causing dysplasia

    • B.

      Development of defective genes

    • C.

      An irreversible change in the cell DNA

    • D.

      A single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage

    Correct Answer
    C. An irreversible change in the cell DNA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an irreversible change in the cell DNA. Carcinogenesis, the process of cancer development, typically starts with an irreversible alteration in the DNA of a cell. This change can be caused by various factors such as exposure to carcinogens, radiation, or genetic mutations. Once the DNA is damaged, it can lead to the uncontrolled growth and division of cells, ultimately resulting in the formation of a tumor and the progression of cancer.

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  • 11. 

    What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?

    • A.

      A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor

    • B.

      Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine

    • C.

      A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested

    • D.

      A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity

    Correct Answer
    B. Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
    Explanation
    Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine would be an external source of ionizing radiation. A cobalt machine is a medical device that emits gamma rays, which are a type of electromagnetic radiation. These gamma rays have high energy and can penetrate through the body, causing ionization of atoms and potentially damaging cells and tissues. This external source of radiation is commonly used in radiation therapy to treat cancer by targeting and destroying cancer cells.

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  • 12. 

    Radiation therapy destroys:

    • A.

      All cells in the tumor at one time

    • B.

      The cells in the center of the tumor

    • C.

      Primarily rapidly dividing cells

    • D.

      Radioresistant cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Primarily rapidly dividing cells
    Explanation
    Radiation therapy primarily targets rapidly dividing cells. This is because rapidly dividing cells are more susceptible to the damaging effects of radiation compared to non-dividing cells. Radiation damages the DNA of these cells, preventing them from dividing and ultimately leading to their death. While radiation therapy may also affect other cells in the tumor, it is most effective against rapidly dividing cells due to their higher sensitivity to radiation.

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  • 13. 

    The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy include:

    • A.

      Thrombocytopenia and leukopenia

    • B.

      Headache and lethargy

    • C.

      Nausea and constipation

    • D.

      Alopecia and weight loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrombocytopenia and leukopenia
    Explanation
    Chemotherapy and radiation therapy are commonly used treatments for cancer, but they can have adverse effects on the body. Thrombocytopenia refers to a decrease in platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Leukopenia is a decrease in white blood cell count, which weakens the immune system and makes the body more susceptible to infections. These two adverse effects are critical because they can have significant impacts on a patient's overall health and well-being.

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  • 14. 

    Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to: 1. reduce the adverse effects 2. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed 3. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle 4. totally block the mitotic stage

    • A.

      1, 3

    • B.

      1, 4

    • C.

      2, 3

    • D.

      3, 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 3
    Explanation
    Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to reduce the adverse effects and be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. Using a combination of drugs helps to minimize the side effects of chemotherapy by allowing lower doses of each drug to be used. Additionally, different drugs target different phases of the cell cycle, so using a combination increases the likelihood of killing cancer cells in various stages of growth.

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  • 15. 

    Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?

    • A.

      The ovaries are inaccessible

    • B.

      Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors develop

    • C.

      The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer

    • D.

      No effective treatment is available

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors develop
    Explanation
    Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors develop. This means that the cancer is often not detected until it has already spread to other parts of the body, making it more difficult to treat effectively. Early detection is crucial for successful treatment, but the lack of specific signs makes it challenging to diagnose ovarian cancer in its early stages.

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  • 16. 

    Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker:

    • A.

      Colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

    • B.

      Hepatic cancer: CA125

    • C.

      Prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

    • D.

      Testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome

    Correct Answer
    A. Colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
    Explanation
    Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a marker commonly associated with colon cancer. CEA is a protein that is normally produced during fetal development, but its levels decrease after birth. However, in some cases of colon cancer, CEA levels become elevated. Therefore, the presence of CEA can be used as a marker for the presence of colon cancer.

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  • 17. 

    Anti-angiogenesis drugs act on malignant tumor by:

    • A.

      Promoting the immune response and removal of tumor cells

    • B.

      Blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells

    • C.

      Reduce blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells

    • D.

      Transport radioisotopes into tumor to destroy cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduce blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells
    Explanation
    Anti-angiogenesis drugs work by reducing the blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells. Angiogenesis is the process of forming new blood vessels, which is crucial for tumor growth and metastasis. These drugs inhibit the formation of new blood vessels, thereby starving the tumor cells of essential nutrients and oxygen. This leads to the inhibition of tumor growth and can potentially shrink the tumor. By targeting the blood vessels that supply the tumor, anti-angiogenesis drugs aim to limit the tumor's access to nutrients and hinder its ability to proliferate.

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  • 18. 

    The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means:

    • A.

      The cancer cells are being destroyed quickly

    • B.

      The patient is likely to hemorrhage

    • C.

      Higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient

    • D.

      The patient is at high risk for infection

    Correct Answer
    D. The patient is at high risk for infection
    Explanation
    The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means that the patient is at high risk for infection. Neutropenia is a condition characterized by a low level of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell responsible for fighting off infections. When the neutrophil count is low, the body's ability to defend against bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens is compromised, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor and manage neutropenia in cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy to prevent potentially serious infections.

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  • 19. 

    Malignant brain tumors:

    • A.

      Metastasize quickly to all parts of the body

    • B.

      Spread first to lungs and bone

    • C.

      Spread to other parts of CNS

    • D.

      Do not metastasize anywhere at any time

    Correct Answer
    C. Spread to other parts of CNS
    Explanation
    Malignant brain tumors have the ability to spread to other parts of the central nervous system (CNS). This means that the tumor cells can invade and infiltrate surrounding brain tissue, potentially causing damage and affecting the functioning of different areas of the CNS. Unlike some other types of cancer, malignant brain tumors do not typically metastasize to other parts of the body, such as the lungs and bones. Instead, their primary mode of spread is within the CNS itself.

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  • 20. 

    Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:

    • A.

      Alopecia

    • B.

      Bone marrow depression

    • C.

      Nausea and vomiting

    • D.

      Weight loss

    Correct Answer
    B. Bone marrow depression
    Explanation
    Bone marrow depression is a common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs can cause damage to the bone marrow, which is responsible for producing blood cells. This can lead to a decrease in the production of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, resulting in anemia, increased risk of infection, and bleeding problems. Limiting the dose of chemotherapy is necessary to prevent severe bone marrow suppression and its associated complications.

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  • 21. 

    Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:

    • A.

      Glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy

    • B.

      The immune system is stimulated

    • C.

      Bone marrow is more active

    • D.

      Inflammation around the tumor may be reduced

    Correct Answer
    D. Inflammation around the tumor may be reduced
    Explanation
    Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because they can help reduce inflammation around the tumor. Inflammation can contribute to the growth and spread of cancer cells, so by reducing inflammation, glucocorticoids can potentially help in controlling the tumor and its effects. This can also help in managing symptoms such as pain and swelling caused by the tumor. However, it is important to note that glucocorticoids do not directly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy or stimulate the immune system.

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  • 22. 

    Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because: 1. the gastrointestinal tract is inflamed 2. the chemicals stimulate the emetic centre 3. the drugs have an unpleasant odor 4. treatment is very painful

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      1, 2

    • C.

      2, 3

    • D.

      2, 3, 4

    Correct Answer
    B. 1, 2
    Explanation
    Chemotherapy drugs can cause inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to nausea and vomiting. Additionally, these drugs can stimulate the emetic center in the brain, which triggers the vomiting reflex. Therefore, both options 1 and 2 provide a plausible explanation for why vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment. The other options, 3 and 4, are not relevant to the physiological reasons behind chemotherapy-induced vomiting.

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  • 23. 

    What type of cells tend to be damaged the most during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?

    • A.

      Epithelial cells

    • B.

      Skeletal muscle cells

    • C.

      Nerve tissue

    • D.

      Collagen and fibrous tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Epithelial cells
    Explanation
    During chemotherapy and radiation treatments, the drugs and radiation specifically target rapidly dividing cells, as these are more susceptible to damage. Epithelial cells, which line the surfaces of organs and tissues, are known for their high rate of division and regeneration. Therefore, they are particularly vulnerable to the effects of these treatments. This can lead to side effects such as hair loss, mouth sores, and gastrointestinal issues, as these are areas with a high concentration of epithelial cells.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 22, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Caitlinnorthcutt
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