Paramedic Quiz Chapters 12&13

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Quizzes Created: 13 | Total Attempts: 14,539
Questions: 50 | Attempts: 355

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Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

Based off chapters 12 and 13 of Nancy Carolines Emergency Care in the Streets.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Your entire assessment of a patient should.

    • A.

      Appear to be a seamless process

    • B.

      Yield a definitive field diagnosis

    • C.

      Only focus on his or her complaint

    • D.

      Not deviate at all from a strict format

    Correct Answer
    A. Appear to be a seamless process
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "appear to be a seamless process". This means that when assessing a patient, the healthcare professional should make the process look smooth and continuous, without any disruptions or inconsistencies. This is important for building trust and confidence in the patient, as well as maintaining a professional image. It also helps in ensuring that all necessary information is gathered and that the assessment is thorough and comprehensive.

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  • 2. 

    A key part of making your practice of prehospital care successful is for you to

    • A.

      Let the patient guide the questions that you can ask in order to build a cohesive rapport on which you can build

    • B.

      Develop and cultivate your own style of assessment and an overall strategy for evaluating an providing care

    • C.

      Approach every patient care in the same fashion with the realization that patient assessment in the field is a static process

    • D.

      Strictly adhere to you departments standard operating procedures so that they become a rote series of actions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Develop and cultivate your own style of assessment and an overall strategy for evaluating an providing care
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that in order to make your practice of prehospital care successful, it is important to develop and cultivate your own style of assessment and an overall strategy for evaluating and providing care. This means that instead of relying on a rigid set of procedures, you should let the patient guide the questions you ask and build a cohesive rapport with them. This approach allows for a more personalized and effective approach to patient care.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is NOT a part of your overall job as a paramedic

    • A.

      Efficiently executing a patient care plan

    • B.

      Quickly identifying your patients problem

    • C.

      Definitely diagnosing the patients problem

    • D.

      Establishing your priorities of patient care

    Correct Answer
    C. Definitely diagnosing the patients problem
    Explanation
    As a paramedic, your overall job involves efficiently executing a patient care plan, quickly identifying your patient's problem, and establishing your priorities of patient care. However, definitely diagnosing the patient's problem is not a part of your job as a paramedic. Paramedics are trained to assess and treat patients based on their symptoms and provide immediate care, but they do not have the authority or expertise to definitively diagnose medical conditions. This responsibility falls under the domain of doctors and other healthcare professionals.

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  • 4. 

    You are in the BEST position to decide what, if any, care needs to be provided at the scene versus en route to the hospital once you

    • A.

      Can qualify that a patient is indeed sick

    • B.

      Determine how far away the hospital is

    • C.

      Perform a detailed physical examination

    • D.

      Are able to qualify how sick a patient is

    Correct Answer
    D. Are able to qualify how sick a patient is
    Explanation
    Once you are able to qualify how sick a patient is, you are in the best position to decide what, if any, care needs to be provided at the scene versus en route to the hospital. This is because understanding the severity of the patient's condition allows you to assess the urgency of the situation and determine the level of care required. If the patient is critically ill, immediate care may need to be provided at the scene before transportation to the hospital. On the other hand, if the patient's condition is stable, it may be more appropriate to provide care during transportation.

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  • 5. 

    The paramedic must make a field diagnosis in order to

    • A.

      Justify his or her treatment to the patient

    • B.

      Report his or her findings to the physician

    • C.

      Determine which treatment protocol to use

    • D.

      Decide on the appropriate receiving hospital

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine which treatment protocol to use
    Explanation
    The paramedic must make a field diagnosis in order to determine which treatment protocol to use. This is because different medical conditions require different treatments, and a proper diagnosis helps the paramedic decide on the most appropriate course of action. By assessing the patient's symptoms and conducting necessary tests, the paramedic can identify the underlying condition and select the treatment protocol that is most likely to be effective in addressing it. This ensures that the patient receives the appropriate care and increases the chances of a successful outcome.

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  • 6. 

    On most runs, the two MOST important pieces of patient history information that you need to obtain initially are the

    • A.

      Patients name and chief complaint

    • B.

      Chief complaint and patients address

    • C.

      Patients name and family physician

    • D.

      Chief complaint and the patients sex

    Correct Answer
    A. Patients name and chief complaint
    Explanation
    When treating a patient, it is crucial to gather their name and chief complaint as the two most important pieces of patient history information initially. The patient's name is necessary for identification and ensuring accurate medical records. The chief complaint provides crucial information about the reason for the patient seeking medical attention and helps guide the initial assessment and diagnosis. Other pieces of information such as address, family physician, and sex may also be important but are not as crucial as the patient's name and chief complaint in the initial stages of treatment.

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  • 7. 

    Asking the patient about the date, time, location, and events surrounding the current situation will enable you to

    • A.

      Rapidly formulate a working diagnosis and prepare a care plan

    • B.

      Determine if the patient is alert to person,place,time, and event

    • C.

      Quickly rule out a life-threatening cause of the patient's problem

    • D.

      Determine if the patients problem is medical or trauma in nature

    Correct Answer
    B. Determine if the patient is alert to person,place,time, and event
    Explanation
    By asking the patient about the date, time, location, and events surrounding the current situation, it helps determine if the patient is alert to person, place, time, and event. This is important in assessing the patient's cognitive function and mental status. It provides valuable information about their orientation and awareness of their surroundings, which can help in diagnosing their condition and planning appropriate care.

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  • 8. 

    The history of present illness is MOST accurately defined as.

    • A.

      The reason why the patient called EMS is the first place

    • B.

      A chronological account of the patients signs and symptoms

    • C.

      Your perception of the severity of the patients condition

    • D.

      A past medical problem that is causing the chief complain.

    Correct Answer
    B. A chronological account of the patients signs and symptoms
    Explanation
    The history of present illness refers to a chronological account of the patient's signs and symptoms. It includes details such as the onset of symptoms, their progression, any associated factors, and any treatments or interventions that have been tried. This information helps healthcare providers understand the patient's condition and make an accurate diagnosis. It is an essential part of the patient assessment process and provides crucial information for determining appropriate treatment options.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following questions will allow you to gain insight quickly when performing a check of a patients body systems.

    • A.

      Do you ever experience dizziness and chest pain when exerting yourself

    • B.

      How long has it been since you were thoroughly examined by a physician

    • C.

      Do you feel any pain or discomfort when touch your abdomen or chest

    • D.

      Has your doctor ever told you that you have a heart, lung or brain problem

    Correct Answer
    D. Has your doctor ever told you that you have a heart, lung or brain problem
    Explanation
    The question "has your doctor ever told you that you have a heart, lung or brain problem" will allow you to gain insight quickly when performing a check of a patient's body systems because it directly asks about any pre-existing conditions or problems related to the heart, lungs, or brain. This information can help identify potential issues or concerns in these specific body systems and guide further examination or treatment.

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  • 10. 

    Working to ensure a patients privacy, confidentiality, and comfort level

    • A.

      Make the patient feel comfortable in disclosing personal information to you

    • B.

      Leave no doubt in the patients mind that you are truly a professional caregiver

    • C.

      Establish positive patient rapport and encourage honest, open communication

    • D.

      Help you gain the trust of the patients family more than the trust of the patient

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish positive patient rapport and encourage honest, open communication
    Explanation
    Establishing positive patient rapport and encouraging honest, open communication is important in order to make the patient feel comfortable in disclosing personal information to you. This helps in building trust and ensuring that the patient feels safe and respected. It also helps to establish a professional caregiver-patient relationship, leaving no doubt in the patient's mind about your professionalism. Additionally, open communication can help to address any concerns or issues the patient may have, leading to better overall care and outcomes.

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  • 11. 

    Using casual nicknames can be especially problematic when

    • A.

      The patient is a male who was involved in an assault

    • B.

      Assessing geriatric patients who fear losing their independence

    • C.

      The patient is critically ill or injured and is semiconscious

    • D.

      Cultural differences exist between the patient and paramedic

    Correct Answer
    D. Cultural differences exist between the patient and paramedic
    Explanation
    When there are cultural differences between the patient and paramedic, using casual nicknames can be problematic. This is because different cultures have different norms and values regarding personal names and forms of address. Using a casual nickname may be seen as disrespectful or offensive in some cultures, which can hinder effective communication and rapport building between the paramedic and the patient. It is important for the paramedic to be aware of and respectful of the patient's cultural background in order to provide culturally sensitive care.

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  • 12. 

    When transferring a deriatric patient from a hospital to an extended care facility, it is MOST important to 

    • A.

      Review the patients transfer paperwork

    • B.

      Document at least two sets of vital signs

    • C.

      Call a radio report to the extended care facility

    • D.

      Presume that the patient will not with to speak

    Correct Answer
    A. Review the patients transfer paperwork
    Explanation
    When transferring a geriatric patient from a hospital to an extended care facility, it is most important to review the patient's transfer paperwork. This is crucial because the paperwork contains essential information about the patient's medical history, current condition, medications, and any specific instructions or precautions that need to be followed during the transfer. Reviewing the transfer paperwork ensures that the extended care facility has all the necessary information to provide appropriate care and support to the patient. It helps in maintaining continuity of care and minimizing any potential risks or complications during the transfer process.

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  • 13. 

    The MOST appropriate initial question to ask a patient who complains of chest pain is

    • A.

      Is the pain sharp or dull

    • B.

      Can you describe the pain

    • C.

      Do you have a cardiac history

    • D.

      Does the pain radiate to your arm

    Correct Answer
    B. Can you describe the pain
    Explanation
    The question "can you describe the pain" is the most appropriate initial question to ask a patient who complains of chest pain because it allows the patient to provide more information about the nature of the pain. This can help the healthcare provider in determining the potential cause of the chest pain and guide further diagnostic and treatment decisions.

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  • 14. 

    When the patient tells you that he or she takes a water pill, is is most important for you to 

    • A.

      Tell the patient to be more specific

    • B.

      Document water pill using quotation marks

    • C.

      Ask the patient the dose of the medication

    • D.

      Attempt to clarify the name of the medication

    Correct Answer
    D. Attempt to clarify the name of the medication
    Explanation
    When a patient mentions taking a "water pill," it is important for the healthcare provider to attempt to clarify the name of the medication. This is necessary because "water pill" is a general term that can refer to different types of diuretic medications, each with their own specific properties and potential side effects. By clarifying the name of the medication, the healthcare provider can gain a better understanding of the patient's treatment regimen and ensure accurate documentation of the medication.

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  • 15. 

    When asking a patient if he or she uses illegal drugs, you will most likely get accurate information if you

    • A.

      Remain professional and nonjudgmental when asking the patient

    • B.

      Reassure the patient that you can be trusted and will not tell anyone

    • C.

      Question the patient in the presence of a trusted family member

    • D.

      Tell the patient that withholding such information from you is illegal

    Correct Answer
    A. Remain professional and nonjudgmental when asking the patient
    Explanation
    When asking a patient about illegal drug use, remaining professional and nonjudgmental creates a safe and non-threatening environment for the patient to disclose accurate information. By being professional, the patient feels respected and is more likely to trust the healthcare provider. Being nonjudgmental ensures that the patient does not fear negative consequences or moral judgment, encouraging them to be honest about their drug use. This approach fosters open communication and allows the healthcare provider to provide appropriate care and support.

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  • 16. 

    Before asking a patient how he or she is feeling you must first

    • A.

      Determine his or her name

    • B.

      Properly introduce yourself

    • C.

      Establish a rapport with him or her

    • D.

      Perform a physical assessment

    Correct Answer
    B. Properly introduce yourself
    Explanation
    Before asking a patient how he or she is feeling, it is important to properly introduce yourself. This helps in establishing a professional and respectful relationship with the patient. Introducing yourself helps to build trust and confidence, making the patient feel more comfortable in sharing their feelings and concerns. It also sets the foundation for effective communication and shows that you value the patient as an individual. Additionally, proper introduction allows the patient to know who they are speaking to and ensures clear identification in the healthcare setting.

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  • 17. 

    It is appropriate to ask " would you say the pain is similar to or worse than previous episodes?" when determining the ___________ of a patients pain.

    • A.

      Severity

    • B.

      Quality

    • C.

      Region

    • D.

      Progression

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity
    Explanation
    Asking whether the pain is similar to or worse than previous episodes helps in determining the severity of a patient's pain. By comparing the current pain to previous experiences, healthcare professionals can assess the level of intensity and understand how it has progressed over time. This information is crucial in diagnosing and treating the patient effectively.

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  • 18. 

    When documenting the severity of a patients pain, it is also important to

    • A.

      Tell the patient that the pain will subside in time

    • B.

      Note how distressed the patient appears to be

    • C.

      Document your perception of the patients pain

    • D.

      Ask the patient if he or she would like an analgesic

    Correct Answer
    B. Note how distressed the patient appears to be
    Explanation
    When documenting the severity of a patient's pain, it is important to note how distressed the patient appears to be. This is because pain perception is subjective and can vary from person to person. By observing the patient's distress level, healthcare providers can better understand the impact of the pain on the patient's overall well-being and determine appropriate interventions or treatments. This information is valuable for accurately documenting the patient's pain and ensuring that appropriate care is provided.

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  • 19. 

    When assessing a  patient who is under the influence of alcohol, it is most important to remember that

    • A.

      The amount of alcohol consumed if often overstated

    • B.

      The patient often gives a reliable and accurate history

    • C.

      Alcohol can mask any number of signs and symptoms

    • D.

      Suspicions of alcohol intoxication must be documented

    Correct Answer
    C. Alcohol can mask any number of signs and symptoms
    Explanation
    When assessing a patient who is under the influence of alcohol, it is most important to remember that alcohol can mask any number of signs and symptoms. This means that the patient may not exhibit or report certain symptoms accurately due to the effects of alcohol. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of this and consider the possibility of alcohol masking other underlying conditions or symptoms. This understanding can help ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment for the patient.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following findings would make you the least suspicious for abuse or domestic violence

    • A.

      Multiple injuries that are various stages of healing

    • B.

      A patient who refuses to allow a family member to speak for him or herself

    • C.

      Injuries that are inconsistent with the history that you are given

    • D.

      A husband who towers over his wife and answers your questions for her

    Correct Answer
    B. A patient who refuses to allow a family member to speak for him or herself
    Explanation
    A patient who refuses to allow a family member to speak for him or herself may indicate that the patient is capable of making their own decisions and communicating their needs. This finding does not necessarily suggest abuse or domestic violence, as it could simply be a personal preference or a desire for autonomy.

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  • 21. 

    If a patient does not respond to a question within a couple of seconds, he or she

    • A.

      Must be assumed to have an altered mental status until proven otherwise

    • B.

      Should immediately be asked another question to facilitate gathering data

    • C.

      Should have the question repeated back to him or her using different terms

    • D.

      May be deciding if he or she can trust you enough to answer the question

    Correct Answer
    D. May be deciding if he or she can trust you enough to answer the question
    Explanation
    When a patient does not respond to a question within a couple of seconds, it may indicate that they are taking their time to decide if they can trust the person asking the question enough to answer it. Trust is an important factor in patient-provider relationships, especially when discussing personal or sensitive information. Patients may need some time to assess the situation and determine if they feel comfortable sharing their thoughts or concerns. Therefore, it is important to give patients the necessary time and space to make this decision before assuming any other reasons for their lack of response.

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  • 22. 

    When dealing with a patient who has multiple complaints, the most effective way to develop an appropriate care plan is to 

    • A.

      Prioritize the patients complaints

    • B.

      Perform a complete head to toe exam

    • C.

      Address all complaints simultaneously

    • D.

      Assume that all complaints are linked

    Correct Answer
    A. Prioritize the patients complaints
    Explanation
    When dealing with a patient who has multiple complaints, prioritizing the patient's complaints is the most effective way to develop an appropriate care plan. This allows the healthcare provider to address the most urgent or severe complaints first, ensuring that immediate attention is given to the patient's most critical needs. By prioritizing the complaints, the healthcare provider can also identify any potential underlying causes or connections between the complaints, which can help in developing a comprehensive and targeted care plan.

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  • 23. 

    The most negative immediate consequence of providing inappropriate reassurance to your patient in the prehospital setting is

    • A.

      A lawsuit lodged against you by the patient or his or her family

    • B.

      The patients choice not to share as much information with you

    • C.

      Causing the patients family members severe emotional distress

    • D.

      Emotional distress when the physician tells the patient otherwise

    Correct Answer
    B. The patients choice not to share as much information with you
    Explanation
    Providing inappropriate reassurance to a patient in the prehospital setting may lead to the patient choosing not to share as much information with you. This can be detrimental to their care as it hinders the ability to gather important details about their condition, symptoms, and medical history. Without this information, it becomes difficult to make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment. It is crucial for patients to feel comfortable and trust their healthcare providers in order to effectively communicate their concerns and symptoms.

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  • 24. 

    If a hostile family member suddenly leaves the room, especially in the middle of a conversation with him/her

    • A.

      Immediately depart the scene and notify law enforcement personnel

    • B.

      Ignore the family members departure and continue to assess your patient

    • C.

      Have your partner follow the person, while working to defuse the situation

    • D.

      Ask the patient to follow the person in an attempt to reason with him or her

    Correct Answer
    C. Have your partner follow the person, while working to defuse the situation
    Explanation
    If a hostile family member suddenly leaves the room, especially in the middle of a conversation with him/her, it is important to have your partner follow the person while working to defuse the situation. This is the correct answer because it prioritizes the safety of everyone involved. By having a partner follow the person, they can ensure that they do not pose a threat to themselves or others. Additionally, by working to defuse the situation, it may be possible to prevent any further escalation or harm. This approach allows for a proactive and preventative response to a potentially volatile situation.

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  • 25. 

    The most effective way to obtain a medical history from a patient who is crying is to 

    • A.

      Place your hand of his or her shoulder ( if appropriate) and reassure him or her that you are in control of the situation

    • B.

      Tactfully advise the patient that you cannot effectively help him or her if he or she continues to cry

    • C.

      Have one family member calm the patient as you gather the medical history from another family member

    • D.

      Administer a sedative medication, which will calm the patient and facilitate your gathering of th medical history

    Correct Answer
    A. Place your hand of his or her shoulder ( if appropriate) and reassure him or her that you are in control of the situation
    Explanation
    Placing your hand on the patient's shoulder and reassuring them that you are in control of the situation is the most effective way to obtain a medical history from a patient who is crying. This approach shows empathy and support, which can help the patient feel more comfortable and willing to share their medical history. It also helps to establish trust between the patient and the healthcare provider, creating a conducive environment for effective communication and information gathering.

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  • 26. 

    If your patient becomes seductive of makes sexual advances towards you, you should advise the patient that your relationship with him or her is strictly professional and then

    • A.

      Continue providing care as usual

    • B.

      Ensure that a witness is present at all times

    • C.

      Ask your partner to assume care of the patient

    • D.

      Threaten the patient with a sexual harassment lawsuit

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure that a witness is present at all times
    Explanation
    In situations where a patient becomes seductive or makes sexual advances towards a healthcare professional, it is important to maintain professional boundaries and ensure the safety of both parties. Advising the patient that the relationship is strictly professional is a necessary step, but it may not be sufficient in preventing further inappropriate behavior. Having a witness present at all times can help deter any misconduct and provide an objective account of any interactions. This ensures the protection of both the healthcare professional and the patient, while allowing the continuation of necessary care.

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  • 27. 

    When caring for a patient who is mentally challenged

    • A.

      It is highly unlikely that you will obtain a reliable medical history

    • B.

      You may have to obtain the medical history from a family member

    • C.

      Your priority should be to transport the patient to a psychiatric facility

    • D.

      You should speak to the patient as though he or she is younger in age

    Correct Answer
    B. You may have to obtain the medical history from a family member
    Explanation
    When caring for a patient who is mentally challenged, it is highly unlikely that you will obtain a reliable medical history. This is because patients with mental challenges may have difficulty communicating their medical history accurately or may not have the cognitive ability to provide a comprehensive medical history. Therefore, it becomes necessary to obtain the medical history from a family member who may have a better understanding of the patient's medical background and can provide more reliable information.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not an effective way of obtaining a medical history from a patient who is totally deaf

    • A.

      Speaking slowly and slightly more loudly to the patient

    • B.

      Using paper and pencil to write down your questions

    • C.

      Addressing the patient face to face if he or she can read lips

    • D.

      Using an interpreter who knows american signs language

    Correct Answer
    A. Speaking slowly and slightly more loudly to the patient
    Explanation
    Speaking slowly and slightly more loudly to a patient who is totally deaf is not an effective way of obtaining a medical history. Since the patient is deaf, they cannot hear the spoken words, regardless of the volume or speed. Therefore, this method would not allow effective communication and understanding between the healthcare provider and the patient.

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  • 29. 

    Objective patient information is

    • A.

      Observed by the patient

    • B.

      Perceived by the patient

    • C.

      Unable to quantified

    • D.

      Based on fact or observation

    Correct Answer
    D. Based on fact or observation
    Explanation
    Objective patient information refers to information that is based on facts or observations. It is not influenced by personal opinions or biases. This type of information can be measured and quantified, making it reliable and trustworthy. It is different from subjective information, which is influenced by personal perceptions and feelings. Objective patient information is important in healthcare as it helps healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and treatment decisions.

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  • 30. 

    Other than the overall patient appearanance, the patients________ is/are the most objective date for determining his or her status.

    • A.

      Vital signs

    • B.

      Medications

    • C.

      Chief complaint

    • D.

      Medical history

    Correct Answer
    A. Vital signs
    Explanation
    Vital signs are the most objective data for determining a patient's status because they provide measurable indicators of their physiological functions. Vital signs include measurements such as temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, which can help healthcare professionals assess the patient's overall health and monitor any changes or abnormalities. Unlike subjective information like the patient's appearance or complaints, vital signs provide concrete data that can be used to make informed decisions about the patient's condition and treatment.

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  • 31. 

    Blood pressure is the product of 

    • A.

      Stroke volume and heart rate

    • B.

      Left ventricular ejection fraction and afterload

    • C.

      Cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance

    • D.

      Right atrial preload and ventricular stroke volume

    Correct Answer
    C. Cardiac output and peripHeral vascular resistance
    Explanation
    Blood pressure is determined by the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in a minute, while peripheral vascular resistance refers to the resistance encountered by the blood flow in the blood vessels. The correct answer states that blood pressure is the product of cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance, which means that an increase in either cardiac output or peripheral vascular resistance will result in an increase in blood pressure.

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  • 32. 

    A conscious patients respiratory rate should be measured

    • A.

      By auscultating the lungs

    • B.

      By looking at the abdomen

    • C.

      With his or her prior knowledge

    • D.

      For a minimum of 30 seconds

    Correct Answer
    D. For a minimum of 30 seconds
    Explanation
    The respiratory rate of a conscious patient should be measured for a minimum of 30 seconds. This is because respiratory rate can vary within a short period of time, and a longer observation period allows for a more accurate measurement. By counting the number of breaths taken by the patient over 30 seconds, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's breathing pattern and detect any abnormalities or signs of respiratory distress.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following factors would likely not skew a pulse oximetry reading

    • A.

      Hypersension

    • B.

      Cold temperature

    • C.

      Carbon monoxide

    • D.

      Sick cell disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypersension
    Explanation
    Hypertension, or high blood pressure, would likely not skew a pulse oximetry reading. Pulse oximetry measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, which is not directly affected by blood pressure. Hypertension may have other health implications, but it does not directly interfere with the accuracy of pulse oximetry readings.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following statements regarding your general survey of the patient is most correct

    • A.

      Little information can be gained from the patient without a hands on assessment

    • B.

      It is not uncommon for patients in severe pain to present with a quiet and still affect

    • C.

      The environment in which the patient is found is more significant that his or her appearance

    • D.

      The general patient survey begins as you perform the initial assessment of the patient

    Correct Answer
    B. It is not uncommon for patients in severe pain to present with a quiet and still affect
    Explanation
    Patients in severe pain often present with a quiet and still affect. This means that despite experiencing intense pain, they may not exhibit the typical signs of distress such as crying or restlessness. Instead, they may appear calm and still, which can be misleading to healthcare providers. It is important to recognize this possibility and not solely rely on a patient's appearance or behavior to assess their level of pain. A hands-on assessment is necessary to gather more information about the patient's condition.

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  • 35. 

    A patient who does not respond to verbal or tactile stimuli is

    • A.

      Lethargic

    • B.

      Semiconscious

    • C.

      Disoriented

    • D.

      Unresponsive

    Correct Answer
    D. Unresponsive
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unresponsive" because a patient who does not respond to verbal or tactile stimuli is showing a lack of any reaction or response, indicating a state of unresponsiveness. This could be due to various reasons such as unconsciousness, severe illness, or injury. It is important to assess and address the underlying cause of the unresponsiveness promptly in order to provide appropriate medical care.

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  • 36. 

    Poor skin turgon in an infant or child is most indicative of 

    • A.

      Shock

    • B.

      Hypoxemia

    • C.

      Dehydration

    • D.

      Elastin deficiency

    Correct Answer
    C. Dehydration
    Explanation
    Poor skin turgor in an infant or child is most indicative of dehydration. Skin turgor refers to the elasticity or resilience of the skin, which is a good indicator of hydration status. When a person is dehydrated, their skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid or firm. This is because dehydration leads to a decrease in the body's fluid volume, resulting in less water content in the skin. Therefore, poor skin turgor is a reliable sign of dehydration in infants or children.

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  • 37. 

    The pulse of the superficial temporal artery can be felt

    • A.

      Just anterior to the ear, in the temporal region

    • B.

      Inferior to the ear, slightly below the earlobe

    • C.

      Slightly superior to the ear, in the temporal region

    • D.

      Posterior to the ear, directly over the mastoid bone

    Correct Answer
    A. Just anterior to the ear, in the temporal region
    Explanation
    The pulse of the superficial temporal artery can be felt just anterior to the ear, in the temporal region. This is because the superficial temporal artery runs in front of the ear, in the temporal region, and can be palpated in that area.

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  • 38. 

    Bulging of a childs anterior fontanelle is

    • A.

      Suggestive of significant dehydration

    • B.

      Benign if the child is not failing around

    • C.

      Suggestive of an intracerebral hemorrhage

    • D.

      Pathologic when observed in a quiet child

    Correct Answer
    D. Pathologic when observed in a quiet child
    Explanation
    When the anterior fontanelle, the soft spot on a child's head, is bulging in a quiet child, it suggests a pathological condition. Normally, the fontanelle should be flat or slightly sunken. A bulging fontanelle can indicate increased pressure within the skull, which may be caused by conditions such as meningitis, encephalitis, or hydrocephalus. It is important to seek medical attention promptly in such cases to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • 39. 

    When assessing visual acuity in the prehospital setting, you should

    • A.

      Use a snellen chart

    • B.

      Examine each eye in isolation

    • C.

      Check both eyes simultaneously

    • D.

      Remove any corrective lenses the patient is wearing

    Correct Answer
    B. Examine each eye in isolation
    Explanation
    When assessing visual acuity in the prehospital setting, it is important to examine each eye in isolation. This is because each eye may have different levels of visual acuity, and assessing them separately allows for a more accurate evaluation of the patient's vision. By examining each eye individually, any potential vision problems or abnormalities can be identified and addressed appropriately.

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  • 40. 

    Asymmetry of the pupils

    • A.

      Is a normal finding in up to 40% of the population

    • B.

      Indicates a significant ocular or neurologic pathology

    • C.

      Is normal when light is shined into one of the pupils

    • D.

      Must be assessed in the context of the patients overall presentation

    Correct Answer
    D. Must be assessed in the context of the patients overall presentation
    Explanation
    The asymmetry of the pupils must be assessed in the context of the patient's overall presentation because it can be a normal finding in up to 40% of the population. It is important to consider other factors such as the patient's medical history, symptoms, and any neurological or ocular pathology that may be present. The evaluation of the pupils should not be solely relied upon to determine if there is a significant issue, but rather should be considered along with other clinical information to make an accurate assessment.

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  • 41. 

    An opaque black area against the red reflex of the eye is indicative of

    • A.

      Retinitis

    • B.

      Conjuctivitis

    • C.

      Cataracts

    • D.

      Macular degeneration

    Correct Answer
    C. Cataracts
    Explanation
    An opaque black area against the red reflex of the eye is indicative of cataracts. Cataracts are a common condition that causes clouding of the lens in the eye, leading to blurry vision and decreased visual acuity. The opaque black area is likely caused by the clouded lens blocking the transmission of light. Retinitis, conjunctivitis, and macular degeneration do not typically cause an opaque black area against the red reflex of the eye.

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  • 42. 

    Swollen lymph nodes in the anterior neck usually indicate

    • A.

      Cancer

    • B.

      An infection

    • C.

      Viral replication

    • D.

      An allergic state

    Correct Answer
    B. An infection
    Explanation
    Swollen lymph nodes in the anterior neck usually indicate an infection. Lymph nodes are part of the immune system and they help fight off infections. When there is an infection in the body, the lymph nodes near the affected area may become swollen as they work to filter out and destroy the infectious agents. This is a common response to infections such as colds, flu, or throat infections. However, it is important to note that swollen lymph nodes can also be caused by other factors, such as autoimmune diseases or cancer, so further evaluation may be necessary to determine the exact cause.

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  • 43. 

    Percussion of the chest produces_________ if the pleural space is full of blood

    • A.

      A hollow sound

    • B.

      A dull sound

    • C.

      A high pitched note

    • D.

      Hyperresonance

    Correct Answer
    B. A dull sound
    Explanation
    If the pleural space is full of blood, percussion of the chest will produce a dull sound. This is because blood in the pleural space will dampen the vibrations produced during percussion, resulting in a dull and muted sound. A hollow sound is typically associated with air-filled structures, while a high pitched note is usually heard in areas with increased air content. Hyperresonance, on the other hand, is a term used to describe an abnormally loud and booming sound, which is not applicable in this scenario.

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  • 44. 

    S1, the first heart sound, represents

    • A.

      Closure of the mtiral and tricuspid valves

    • B.

      The sound heard at the end of diastole

    • C.

      Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves

    • D.

      The sound heard at the end of systole

    Correct Answer
    A. Closure of the mtiral and tricuspid valves
    Explanation
    The first heart sound, S1, represents the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. This occurs at the beginning of systole, when the ventricles contract and push blood out of the heart. The closure of these valves prevents blood from flowing back into the atria and ensures that it is pumped forward into the aorta and pulmonary artery. The sound of S1 is typically heard as a "lub" and marks the start of the cardiac cycle.

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  • 45. 

    When auscultating heart sounds, you should place your stethescope at the

    • A.

      Fifth intercostal space, over the apex of the heart

    • B.

      Second intercostal space, over the base of the heart

    • C.

      Third or fourth intercostal space

    Correct Answer
    A. Fifth intercostal space, over the apex of the heart
    Explanation
    When auscultating heart sounds, it is important to place the stethoscope at the fifth intercostal space, over the apex of the heart. This is because the apex of the heart is the point of maximal impulse and is closest to the surface of the chest. By placing the stethoscope at this location, healthcare professionals can better hear and assess the sounds produced by the heart, such as the first and second heart sounds, murmurs, and abnormal sounds. Placing the stethoscope at other intercostal spaces may not provide clear and accurate heart sounds.

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  • 46. 

    If a patient is able to sense smell, his or her________ nerve is intact.

    • A.

      Abducens

    • B.

      Olfactory

    • C.

      Trigeminal

    • D.

      Trochlear

    Correct Answer
    B. Olfactory
    Explanation
    If a patient is able to sense smell, it indicates that their olfactory nerve is intact. The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell and is located in the nasal cavity. If this nerve is functioning properly, the patient will be able to detect different smells and odors. The other nerves listed (abducens, trigeminal, and trochlear) are not directly related to the sense of smell, so their intactness would not affect the patient's ability to smell.

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  • 47. 

    The vestibulocochlear nerve is responsible for the functions of 

    • A.

      Facial and eye movements

    • B.

      Hearing and balance perception

    • C.

      Swallowing and gland secretion

    • D.

      Tongue and neck movements

    Correct Answer
    B. Hearing and balance perception
    Explanation
    The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as the eighth cranial nerve, is responsible for hearing and balance perception. This nerve carries sensory information from the inner ear to the brain, allowing us to hear sounds and maintain our balance. It consists of two main branches - the vestibular branch, which is involved in balance and spatial orientation, and the cochlear branch, which is responsible for hearing. Together, these branches enable us to perceive and interpret auditory stimuli and maintain equilibrium.

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  • 48. 

    If a patients trigeminal nerve is intact, he or she should be able to

    • A.

      Frown

    • B.

      Maintain balance

    • C.

      Clench his or her jaw

    • D.

      Swallow without difficulty

    Correct Answer
    C. Clench his or her jaw
    Explanation
    The trigeminal nerve is responsible for sensory information and motor control of the face, including the muscles involved in chewing. If a patient's trigeminal nerve is intact, it means that the nerve is functioning properly, allowing them to have normal control over their jaw muscles. Therefore, they should be able to clench their jaw without difficulty.

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  • 49. 

    When scoring a patients deep tendon reflexes, normally active reflexes would be assigned a score of 

    • A.

      1+

    • B.

      2+

    • C.

      3+

    • D.

      4+

    Correct Answer
    B. 2+
    Explanation
    In deep tendon reflex scoring, a score of 2+ indicates a normal response. This means that the reflex is present and the muscle contraction is of average intensity. A score of 1+ would indicate a diminished response, while a score of 3+ would indicate an exaggerated response, and a score of 4+ would indicate a very brisk and hyperactive response. Therefore, a score of 2+ suggests that the patient's deep tendon reflexes are within the normal range.

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  • 50. 

    In contrast to dementia, delirium is 

    • A.

      An acute change in mental status

    • B.

      Characteristic of alzheimers disease

    • C.

      More common in elderly population

    • D.

      A gradual deterioration in cognitive function

    Correct Answer
    A. An acute change in mental status
    Explanation
    Delirium is an acute change in mental status, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and difficulty focusing or paying attention. It is often caused by underlying medical conditions or medications and can occur suddenly. Dementia, on the other hand, is a gradual deterioration in cognitive function, including memory loss, difficulty with language and problem-solving, and changes in behavior. While delirium can occur in individuals with Alzheimer's disease, it is not characteristic of the disease itself. Delirium is more common in the elderly population due to factors such as age-related changes in the brain and higher prevalence of medical conditions.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 27, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jbouren
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