Paramedic Quiz Chapter 21 And 22

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Paramedic Quizzes & Trivia

Based off Nancy Caroline's Emergency Care in the streets chapter 21 and 22


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The ______ consists of eight bones that encase and protect the brain

    • A.

      Skull

    • B.

      Cerebrum

    • C.

      Cranial vault

    • D.

      Cribiform plate

    Correct Answer
    C. Cranial vault
    Explanation
    The cranial vault is the correct answer because it refers to the structure made up of eight bones that surround and safeguard the brain. These bones include the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital bones, among others. The cranial vault acts as a protective shell for the brain, shielding it from external forces and potential injuries.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following statements regarding thte nasal septum is most correct

    • A.

      It may be slightly deviated to one side or the other

    • B.

      The nasal septum is comprised mainly of cartilage

    • C.

      Inflammation of the nasal septum is common during infection

    • D.

      The nasal septum separates the oropharynx and nasopharynx

    Correct Answer
    A. It may be slightly deviated to one side or the other
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the nasal septum may be slightly deviated to one side or the other. This is because the nasal septum is the partition that separates the two nasal cavities, and it is made up of both bone and cartilage. It is common for the nasal septum to be slightly deviated, which can lead to difficulty breathing or nasal congestion.

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  • 3. 

    Cerebrospinal fuild is manufactured in the _______ of the brain and serves to_______

    • A.

      Subdural space, prevent infection

    • B.

      Cortex, protect the brain injury

    • C.

      Ventricles, cushion and protect the bain

    • D.

      Subarachnoid space, oxygenate the brain

    Correct Answer
    C. Ventricles, cushion and protect the bain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ventricles, cushion and protect the brain". Cerebrospinal fluid is manufactured in the ventricles of the brain and serves to cushion and protect the brain. It acts as a shock absorber, providing a protective layer between the brain and the skull, and helps to distribute nutrients and remove waste products from the brain.

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  • 4. 

    When assessing a patient with maxillofacial trauma, it is most important to

    • A.

      Gently palpate the maxilla, mandible, and zygoma to elicit creipitus

    • B.

      Protect the cervical spine and monitor the patient's neurologic status

    • C.

      Apply a cervical collar and determine if the patient has visual disturbances

    • D.

      Have the patient open his of her mouth and assess for dental malocclusion

    Correct Answer
    B. Protect the cervical spine and monitor the patient's neurologic status
    Explanation
    When assessing a patient with maxillofacial trauma, it is most important to protect the cervical spine and monitor the patient's neurologic status. This is because maxillofacial trauma can often be accompanied by injuries to the cervical spine, which can lead to serious complications if not properly managed. By protecting the cervical spine, healthcare professionals can prevent further damage and ensure the patient's safety. Additionally, monitoring the patient's neurologic status is crucial to identify any signs of neurological deficits or injuries that may require immediate intervention.

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  • 5. 

    If you are unable to orotracheally intubate a patient due to massive maxillofacial trauma and sever oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal bleeding, you would most likely have to perform

    • A.

      Nasotracheal intubation

    • B.

      A needle or surgical cricothyrotomy

    • C.

      Pharmacologically assisted intubation

    • D.

      Digital intubation

    Correct Answer
    B. A needle or surgical cricothyrotomy
    Explanation
    In cases where orotracheal intubation is not possible due to severe bleeding and maxillofacial trauma, nasotracheal intubation may also be challenging. Therefore, the next best option would be to perform a needle or surgical cricothyrotomy. This procedure involves creating an emergency airway through a small incision in the cricothyroid membrane to allow for ventilation. It is a quick and effective method to secure the airway in critical situations where other methods are not feasible. Pharmacologically assisted intubation and digital intubation are not suitable options in this scenario.

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  • 6. 

    General care for an eye injury involves

    • A.

      Applying direct pressure to the globe

    • B.

      Irrigating the eye with sterile saline solution

    • C.

      Covering both eyes to minimize further injury

    • D.

      Applying a cold compress to the eyeball

    Correct Answer
    C. Covering both eyes to minimize further injury
    Explanation
    Covering both eyes to minimize further injury is the correct answer because it helps to protect the injured eye from any additional trauma or damage. By covering both eyes, the injured eye is shielded from bright light, foreign objects, or accidental contact, which can exacerbate the injury. Additionally, covering both eyes helps to prevent eye movement, reducing the risk of further injury or strain.

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  • 7. 

    A patient with a dysconjugate gaze following an occular injury

    • A.

      Most likely has a concomitant basilar skull fracture

    • B.

      Should have ice applied to the eyes to prevent blindness

    • C.

      Has discoordination between the movements of both eyes

    • D.

      Should be treated by irrigating both eyes for 20 minutes

    Correct Answer
    C. Has discoordination between the movements of both eyes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "has discoordination between the movements of both eyes." Dysconjugate gaze refers to a lack of coordination between the movements of both eyes. This can occur following an ocular injury, indicating damage to the nerves or muscles that control eye movement. It is not necessarily indicative of a basilar skull fracture or the need for ice application or eye irrigation.

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  • 8. 

    Alkali or strong acid burns to the eye should be irrigated for an absolute minimum of ______minutes

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    C. 20
    Explanation
    Alkali or strong acid burns to the eye can cause severe damage and should be treated immediately. Irrigation is the process of flushing the affected area with water or a saline solution to dilute and remove the chemical. It is crucial to irrigate the eye for a sufficient amount of time to ensure that all traces of the chemical are washed away. Therefore, the absolute minimum time for irrigation should be 20 minutes to effectively minimize the potential damage caused by the burn.

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  • 9. 

    A ruptured tympanic membrane

    • A.

      Commonly results in permanent hearing loss

    • B.

      Is characterized by CSF leakage from the ears

    • C.

      Commonly leads to an infection of the middle ear

    • D.

      Is extremely painful but typically heals spontaneously

    Correct Answer
    D. Is extremely painful but typically heals spontaneously
    Explanation
    A ruptured tympanic membrane is extremely painful because it is a tear in the thin tissue that separates the outer and middle ear. However, it typically heals spontaneously without medical intervention. Therefore, while it may cause temporary discomfort, it does not commonly result in permanent hearing loss, CSF leakage from the ears, or an infection of the middle ear.

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  • 10. 

    The primary risk associated with oral and dental injuries is

    • A.

      Malocclusion

    • B.

      Intraoral infection

    • C.

      Permanent tooth loss

    • D.

      Airway compromise

    Correct Answer
    D. Airway compromise
    Explanation
    The primary risk associated with oral and dental injuries is airway compromise. This means that an injury to the mouth or teeth can potentially obstruct the airway, making it difficult for the person to breathe. This can be a life-threatening situation and requires immediate medical attention. Malocclusion refers to misalignment of the teeth, intraoral infection refers to infection within the mouth, and permanent tooth loss refers to the loss of a tooth, but none of these pose as immediate risks to the airway.

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  • 11. 

    If a knife is impaled in the neck

    • A.

      A cricothyrotomy may be required to establish a patent airway

    • B.

      It should be removed in case the airway becomes compromised

    • C.

      You should stabilize the object in place, regardless of its location

    • D.

      It should be shortened to facilitate proper airway management

    Correct Answer
    A. A cricothyrotomy may be required to establish a patent airway
    Explanation
    If a knife is impaled in the neck, it can cause obstruction of the airway, making it difficult for the person to breathe. In such cases, a cricothyrotomy may be required to establish a patent airway. A cricothyrotomy is a procedure in which an incision is made in the cricothyroid membrane to create an emergency airway. This allows air to bypass the obstruction and enter the lungs, ensuring that the person can breathe properly.

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  • 12. 

    When managing the airway of an unresponsive patient with serious anterior neck trauma and inadequate breathing, you should

    • A.

      Apply a cervical collar and perform intubation immediately

    • B.

      Ventilate the patient with an oxygen powered ventilation device

    • C.

      Give oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and apply a pulse oximeter

    • D.

      Secure manual in-line stabilization of the cspine, assist ventilations with a BVM, and prepare to intubate

    Correct Answer
    D. Secure manual in-line stabilization of the cspine, assist ventilations with a BVM, and prepare to intubate
    Explanation
    In cases of serious anterior neck trauma and inadequate breathing in an unresponsive patient, the priority is to secure manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine to prevent any further damage. This is followed by assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) to ensure adequate oxygenation. Finally, the healthcare provider should prepare to intubate the patient if necessary to establish a secure airway. This approach ensures the safety of the patient's spine while addressing their breathing difficulties.

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  • 13. 

    Death following a head injury is almost always the result of 

    • A.

      An epidural hematoma

    • B.

      Trauma to the brain

    • C.

      Airway compromise

    • D.

      Spinal cord transection

    Correct Answer
    B. Trauma to the brain
    Explanation
    Death following a head injury is almost always the result of trauma to the brain. Head injuries can cause severe damage to the brain, leading to various complications such as bleeding, swelling, and increased pressure within the skull. These can disrupt the normal functioning of the brain and its vital structures, leading to loss of consciousness, coma, and ultimately death. Trauma to the brain is a common cause of death in head injury cases, making it the most likely explanation for death in this scenario.

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  • 14. 

    What type of skull fracture is most common following high energy direct trauma to a small surface area of the head with a blunt object

    • A.

      Depressed fracture

    • B.

      Open fracture

    • C.

      Basilar fracture

    • D.

      Nondisplaced fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Depressed fracture
    Explanation
    A depressed fracture is the most common type of skull fracture that occurs following high energy direct trauma to a small surface area of the head with a blunt object. This type of fracture happens when the bone is pushed inward, causing a depression or indentation in the skull. It is often seen in cases where the force of the impact is concentrated on a small area, such as from a blow to the head with a blunt object. The depressed fracture can lead to neurological symptoms and may require surgical intervention to correct the deformity and relieve any pressure on the brain.

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  • 15. 

    When an unrestrained passenger's head strikes the windshield of a motor vehicle following rapid deceleration

    • A.

      The anterior portion of the brain sustains stretching or tearing injuries and the posterior portion of the brain sustains compression injuries

    • B.

      The head falls back against the headrest or seat and the brain collides with the rear of the skull, resulting in direct injury to the occipital lobe

    • C.

      The brain initially strikes the rear of the skull, resulting in direct bruising, and then rebounds and strikes the front part of the skull

    • D.

      Compression injuries occur to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing injuries occur to the posterior portion of the brain

    Correct Answer
    D. Compression injuries occur to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing injuries occur to the posterior portion of the brain
    Explanation
    When an unrestrained passenger's head strikes the windshield of a motor vehicle following rapid deceleration, compression injuries occur to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing injuries occur to the posterior portion of the brain. This is because the force of the impact causes the brain to move forward, resulting in compression of the front part of the brain against the skull. At the same time, the brain also experiences a stretching or tearing motion as it moves backwards and collides with the rear of the skull.

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  • 16. 

    Autoregulation is most accurately defined as 

    • A.

      Reflex bradycardia that occurs secondary to systemic hypertension

    • B.

      An increase in mean arterial pressure to maintain cerebral blood flow

    • C.

      The forcing of CSF into the spinal cord as intracranial pressure increases

    • D.

      A decrease in cerebral perfusion pressure that reduces intracranial pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. An increase in mean arterial pressure to maintain cerebral blood flow
    Explanation
    Autoregulation refers to the ability of the body to maintain a consistent blood flow to an organ or tissue despite changes in systemic blood pressure. In the case of cerebral autoregulation, it ensures that the brain receives a constant blood flow despite fluctuations in mean arterial pressure. This is important to maintain adequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the brain cells. Therefore, the correct answer is "an increase in mean arterial pressure to maintain cerebral blood flow."

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  • 17. 

    Decerebrate posturing is characterized by

    • A.

      Flexion of the arms and extension of the legs

    • B.

      Inward flexion of the wrists and flexed knees

    • C.

      Extension of the arms and extension of the legs

    • D.

      Pulling in of the arms toward the core of the body

    Correct Answer
    C. Extension of the arms and extension of the legs
    Explanation
    Decerebrate posturing is a neurological condition that occurs due to damage to the brainstem. It is characterized by the extension of the arms and extension of the legs. This abnormal posture indicates dysfunction in the upper brainstem and suggests a more severe neurological injury. The extension of both the arms and legs indicates a loss of control and coordination of voluntary muscle movements. This type of posturing is often associated with a poor prognosis and indicates significant brain damage.

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  • 18. 

    Common clinical findings associated with a subdural hematoma including all of the following, except

    • A.

      Rapidly increasing ICP

    • B.

      An underlying skull fracture

    • C.

      A fluctuating level of consciousness

    • D.

      Unilateral hemiparesis or slurred speech

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapidly increasing ICP
    Explanation
    A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the brain and the dura mater, the outermost layer of the meninges. Common clinical findings associated with a subdural hematoma include an underlying skull fracture, a fluctuating level of consciousness, and unilateral hemiparesis or slurred speech. However, rapidly increasing ICP (intracranial pressure) is not typically associated with a subdural hematoma. Rapidly increasing ICP is more commonly seen in conditions such as traumatic brain injury or intracerebral hemorrhage.

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  • 19. 

    Chronic subdural hematomas are most commonly seen in the patients who

    • A.

      Are less than 2 years of age

    • B.

      Have alcoholism

    • C.

      Are prone to hypoglycemia

    • D.

      Have high cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    B. Have alcoholism
    Explanation
    Chronic subdural hematomas are most commonly seen in patients who have alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to a variety of health issues, including liver dysfunction and increased risk of falls and accidents. Chronic alcohol abuse can also impair the body's ability to form blood clots, making individuals more susceptible to bleeding in the brain. This increased risk of bleeding can result in the development of chronic subdural hematomas.

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  • 20. 

    When assessing the severity of a traumatic brain injury, the single msot important assessment parameter is the patient's

    • A.

      Initial GSC score

    • B.

      Blood pressure

    • C.

      Level of consciousness

    • D.

      Response to verbal stimuli

    Correct Answer
    C. Level of consciousness
    Explanation
    The level of consciousness is the most important assessment parameter when evaluating the severity of a traumatic brain injury. This is because the level of consciousness can provide valuable information about the extent of brain damage and the overall functioning of the brain. A decrease in consciousness may indicate a more severe injury, while a normal or improving level of consciousness may suggest a less severe injury. Therefore, monitoring the level of consciousness is crucial in determining the severity of a traumatic brain injury and guiding appropriate treatment decisions.

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  • 21. 

    The most effective method for decreasing morbidity and mortality associate dwith spinal cord injury is

    • A.

      Rapid transportation to a trauma center

    • B.

      Public education and prevention strategies

    • C.

      Minimizing scene time to 10 minutes or less

    • D.

      Routine use of spinal motion restriction precautions

    Correct Answer
    B. Public education and prevention strategies
    Explanation
    Public education and prevention strategies are the most effective method for decreasing morbidity and mortality associated with spinal cord injury. By educating the public about the causes, risks, and prevention of spinal cord injuries, individuals can take necessary precautions to avoid such injuries. Prevention strategies such as promoting safe behaviors, using protective equipment, and creating awareness about risky activities can significantly reduce the incidence of spinal cord injuries. This approach focuses on preventing the injury from occurring in the first place, which is more effective than simply treating the injury after it has already happened.

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  • 22. 

    The spine

    • A.

      Is the major structural component of the axial skeleton

    • B.

      Is comprised of irregular bones that are all fused together

    • C.

      Consists of 23 bones articulating to form the spinal column

    • D.

      Provides support and strength for the appendicular skeleton

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the major structural component of the axial skeleton
    Explanation
    The spine is the major structural component of the axial skeleton because it serves as the central support structure for the entire body. It consists of 23 bones, called vertebrae, that articulate together to form the spinal column. These vertebrae are not irregular bones that are fused together, but rather individual bones that are stacked on top of each other and connected by joints. The spine provides support and strength for the rest of the body, including the appendicular skeleton which includes the limbs.

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  • 23. 

    Because of its weight bearing capacity, the _______ spine is especially susceptible to injury

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Thoracic

    • C.

      Lumbar

    • D.

      Coccygeal

    Correct Answer
    C. Lumbar
    Explanation
    The lumbar spine is especially susceptible to injury because it bears a significant amount of weight. The lumbar spine is located in the lower back and consists of five vertebrae that support the majority of the body's weight. This weight-bearing capacity makes the lumbar spine more prone to injury, such as herniated discs, muscle strains, and spinal stenosis. Additionally, the lumbar spine is involved in many daily activities, such as lifting and bending, which can further increase the risk of injury.

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  • 24. 

    As the body ages, the intervertebral discs

    • A.

      Calcify and become more rigid

    • B.

      Enlarge and result in increased height

    • C.

      Are not able to protect the spinal cord

    • D.

      Lose water content and become thinner

    Correct Answer
    D. Lose water content and become thinner
    Explanation
    As the body ages, the intervertebral discs lose water content and become thinner. This is a natural process known as disc degeneration. The discs act as cushions between the vertebrae in the spine, providing flexibility and shock absorption. However, as they lose water content, they become less effective in their role, leading to a decrease in height and an increased risk of spinal problems such as herniated discs.

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  • 25. 

    The ________ is a continuation of the central nervous system and exits the skull through the ________

    • A.

      Vagus nerve, spinal cord

    • B.

      Spinal cord, foramen magnum

    • C.

      Brain stem, verebral foramen

    • D.

      Medullar, cauda equina

    Correct Answer
    B. Spinal cord, foramen magnum
    Explanation
    The spinal cord is a continuation of the central nervous system and exits the skull through the foramen magnum. The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes.

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  • 26. 

    Beta receptor stimulation results in all of the following effects , except

    • A.

      Positive cardiac inotropy

    • B.

      Positive cardiac chronotropy

    • C.

      Vascular smooth muscle contraction

    • D.

      Relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle

    Correct Answer
    C. Vascular smooth muscle contraction
    Explanation
    Beta receptor stimulation typically leads to positive cardiac inotropy (increased force of contraction), positive cardiac chronotropy (increased heart rate), and relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle. However, it does not result in vascular smooth muscle contraction.

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  • 27. 

    A compression or burst fracture of the cervical spine would most likely occur following

    • A.

      A direct blow to the occipital region of the skull

    • B.

      Rapid acceleration following a motor vehicle crash

    • C.

      Axial loading after a patient falls and lands feet first

    • D.

      A significant fall in which the patient lands head first

    Correct Answer
    D. A significant fall in which the patient lands head first
    Explanation
    A compression or burst fracture of the cervical spine would most likely occur following a significant fall in which the patient lands head first. This is because the force of the fall and the impact on the head can cause a compression or burst fracture in the cervical spine. The weight of the body and the force of the fall would be concentrated on the neck, leading to potential damage to the vertebrae in the cervical spine.

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  • 28. 

    In contrast to secondary spinal cord injury, primary spinal cord injury occurs

    • A.

      From progressive swelling

    • B.

      At the moment of impact

    • C.

      From penetrating mechanisms

    • D.

      Within 24 hours of the injury

    Correct Answer
    B. At the moment of impact
    Explanation
    Primary spinal cord injury occurs at the moment of impact. This means that the initial damage to the spinal cord happens immediately when the injury occurs. Unlike secondary spinal cord injury, which can occur after the initial trauma due to progressive swelling or other factors, primary spinal cord injury is the direct result of the impact itself.

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  • 29. 

    A complete spinal cord injury to the upper cervical spine

    • A.

      Results in quadriplegia but the patient usually retains his or her ability to breathe spontaneously

    • B.

      Is not compatible with life and results in immediate death due to cardiopulmonary failure

    • C.

      Will result in permanent loss of all cord mediated functions below the level of the injury

    • D.

      Results in neurologic dysfunction that is considered to be permanent if it lasts longer than 24 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. Will result in permanent loss of all cord mediated functions below the level of the injury
    Explanation
    A complete spinal cord injury to the upper cervical spine will result in permanent loss of all cord mediated functions below the level of the injury. This means that the patient will lose all sensory and motor function below the injury site. This includes the ability to move limbs, feel sensations, and control bodily functions. The injury is considered permanent because the damaged spinal cord cannot regenerate or repair itself.

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  • 30. 

    Signs of neurogenic shock include all of the following except

    • A.

      Bradycardia

    • B.

      Flushed skin

    • C.

      Diaphoresis

    • D.

      Hypothermia

    Correct Answer
    C. Diaphoresis
    Explanation
    Neurogenic shock is a condition that occurs due to damage to the spinal cord, resulting in the disruption of the autonomic nervous system. It is characterized by a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia), low blood pressure, and loss of sympathetic tone. Flushed skin and hypothermia are also common signs of neurogenic shock as the body's ability to regulate temperature is impaired. However, diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is not typically associated with neurogenic shock.

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  • 31. 

    Patients with evidence of trauma above the _______ should be considered at risk for an associated spine injury

    • A.

      Diaphragm

    • B.

      Pelvis

    • C.

      Umbilicus

    • D.

      Clavicles

    Correct Answer
    D. Clavicles
    Explanation
    Patients with evidence of trauma above the clavicles should be considered at risk for an associated spine injury. The clavicles, also known as the collarbones, are located above the spine and any trauma occurring above this area may indicate a forceful impact that could potentially affect the spine. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of a spine injury in patients with trauma above the clavicles.

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  • 32. 

    Following a spinal injury, a patient presents with abdominal breathing and use of the accessory muscles in the neck. This suggests injury at or above

    • A.

      C1-c2

    • B.

      C3-c4

    • C.

      T1-t4

    • D.

      T2-t5

    Correct Answer
    B. C3-c4
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of abdominal breathing and use of accessory muscles in the neck suggests injury at or above the C3-C4 level. This is because the C3-C4 spinal segments innervate the diaphragm, which is the primary muscle responsible for breathing. When there is an injury at or above this level, the diaphragm may become paralyzed or weakened, leading to the use of accessory muscles in the neck and a shift towards abdominal breathing as a compensatory mechanism.

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  • 33. 

    Any motor or sensory deficits noted during the neurologic examination of a patient with a possible spinal cord injury

    • A.

      Indicate a complete spinal cord injury

    • B.

      Require you to repeat the initial assessment

    • C.

      Should be documented and monitored

    • D.

      Must be reported to the hospital at once

    Correct Answer
    C. Should be documented and monitored
    Explanation
    Motor or sensory deficits noted during the neurologic examination of a patient with a possible spinal cord injury should be documented and monitored. This is because these deficits can provide important information about the severity and location of the injury, as well as help guide treatment decisions. Monitoring these deficits over time can also help track the patient's progress and response to treatment.

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  • 34. 

    The most significant complication associated with prolonged immobilization of a patient on a long backboard is 

    • A.

      Pressure lesion development

    • B.

      Compression of the vena cava

    • C.

      Increased intracranial pressure

    • D.

      Patient discomfort and frustration

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure lesion development
    Explanation
    Prolonged immobilization of a patient on a long backboard can lead to pressure lesion development. This occurs due to the constant pressure exerted on the patient's skin by the backboard, which can cause tissue damage. Pressure lesions can range from mild redness and irritation to more severe ulcers or sores. It is important to regularly assess and reposition the patient to prevent these complications. Compression of the vena cava, increased intracranial pressure, and patient discomfort and frustration are also potential complications of prolonged immobilization, but pressure lesion development is the most significant one.

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  • 35. 

    If the mechanism of injury indicated that your patient may have sustained a spinal cord injury

    • A.

      Contact medical control to determine if spinal immobilization is needed

    • B.

      Assume that a spine injury exists, regardless of the neurologic findings

    • C.

      Apply a cervical collar and transport the patient in a position of comfort

    • D.

      Fully immobilize the spine only if gross neurological deficits are present

    Correct Answer
    B. Assume that a spine injury exists, regardless of the neurologic findings
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to assume that a spine injury exists, regardless of the neurologic findings. This means that even if there are no obvious neurological deficits, it is important to treat the patient as if they have a spinal cord injury. This is because spinal cord injuries can sometimes have delayed or subtle symptoms, and failure to immobilize the spine could potentially worsen the injury. By assuming that a spine injury exists, medical professionals can take appropriate precautions to prevent further damage and provide the necessary care to the patient.

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  • 36. 

    When moving an injured patient from the ground onto a long backboard, it is generally preferred that you

    • A.

      Slide the patient onto the backboard

    • B.

      Use the four person log roll technique

    • C.

      Log roll the patient away from you

    • D.

      Apply the KED first

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the four person log roll technique
    Explanation
    When moving an injured patient from the ground onto a long backboard, it is generally preferred to use the four person log roll technique. This technique involves four individuals working together to gently roll the patient onto the backboard while maintaining proper spinal alignment. This method ensures minimal movement and reduces the risk of further injury to the patient's spine. Sliding the patient onto the backboard or log rolling the patient away from you may cause unnecessary twisting or bending of the spine, while applying the KED first is not necessary in this situation.

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  • 37. 

    An injured patient's head should be secured to the long backboard only after

    • A.

      You have placed padding under the shoulders

    • B.

      His or her torso has been secured adequately

    • C.

      Both of the legs are secured to the board properly

    • D.

      A vest style immobilization device has been applied

    Correct Answer
    B. His or her torso has been secured adequately
  • 38. 

    When immobilizing a sitting patient with a vest type extrication device, you should manually stabilize his or her head and then

    • A.

      Apply an appropriately size cervical collar

    • B.

      Perform a rapid assessment to detect life threats

    • C.

      Assess distal pulse and sensory and motor function

    • D.

      Carefully place the vest device behind the patient

    Correct Answer
    C. Assess distal pulse and sensory and motor function
    Explanation
    When immobilizing a sitting patient with a vest type extrication device, it is important to first manually stabilize their head to prevent any further injury to the cervical spine. Once the head is stabilized, the next step is to assess distal pulse and sensory and motor function. This is crucial to determine if there is any compromise to blood flow or nerve function in the extremities, which could indicate a life-threatening condition. Only after assessing distal pulse and sensory and motor function should the appropriate size cervical collar be applied. Placing the vest device behind the patient should be done carefully, but it is not the immediate priority in this situation.

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  • 39. 

    When performing the standing takedown technique to immobilize a patient's spine, the patient is secured to the long backboard with straps

    • A.

      While still standing position

    • B.

      After the board is placed on the stretcher

    • C.

      After a cervical collar has been applied

    • D.

      After he or she is lowered to the ground

    Correct Answer
    D. After he or she is lowered to the ground
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "after he or she is lowered to the ground". This means that the patient is first immobilized using the standing takedown technique while they are still in a standing position. Once the patient is secured and ready, they are then lowered to the ground and placed on the long backboard. After the patient is on the ground, straps are used to secure them to the board, ensuring that their spine remains immobilized during transportation.

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  • 40. 

    A motorcycle of football helmet should be removed if 

    • A.

      The patient complains of severe neck pain and the helmet fits snugly

    • B.

      You are going to transport the patient to a medical treatment facility

    • C.

      The patient is breathing shallowly and access to the airway is difficult

    • D.

      You are properly trained in the technique, even if you are by yourself

    Correct Answer
    C. The patient is breathing shallowly and access to the airway is difficult
    Explanation
    If the patient is breathing shallowly and access to the airway is difficult, the motorcycle or football helmet should be removed. This is because in such a situation, it is crucial to ensure that the patient's airway is clear and unobstructed to facilitate proper breathing. The helmet may impede access to the airway and hinder the ability to provide necessary medical assistance. Therefore, removing the helmet becomes a priority to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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  • 41. 

    A 52 year old man sustained superficial and partial thickness burns to his left arm approximately 15 minutes ago when he opened the radiator cap on his car. He is conscious, alert, and in severe pain. His BP is 138/76 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular, and his oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. He denies any other injuries. Initial management for this patient involves

    • A.

      Applying ice to the burn to provide immediate pain relief

    • B.

      Applying cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevate his arm

    • C.

      Starting an IV of normal saline and administering 2 mg of morphine

    • D.

      Administering oxygen and applying an anesthetic cream to the burn

    Correct Answer
    B. Applying cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevate his arm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to apply cool, wet dressings to the burn and elevate his arm. This is the initial management for burns to provide pain relief and prevent further damage. Applying ice directly to the burn can cause further injury and is not recommended. Starting an IV and administering morphine may be necessary for pain management, but it is not the initial step. Administering oxygen and applying an anesthetic cream are not the appropriate initial management for burns.

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  • 42. 

    A 4 year old boy pulled a pot of boiling water off of the stove and experience partial thickness splash burns to his neck, anterior trunk, and both anterior arms. During your assessment, you not that the child is conscious, but is not crying. He is tachypneic, and tachycardic and his skin is cool and moist. Other than the burns, there are no other gross injuries. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is most correct

    • A.

      You should assist the child's ventilations and prepare to intubate his trachea

    • B.

      An IV should be established and you should administer a 20 mL/kg bolus of D5W

    • C.

      The child may be hypoglycemic and require assessment of his blood glucose level

    • D.

      It is likely that this child's burn was intentionally inflicted and you should report it

    Correct Answer
    C. The child may be hypoglycemic and require assessment of his blood glucose level
    Explanation
    The child's lack of crying, along with tachypnea, tachycardia, cool and moist skin, and the absence of other injuries, suggest that he may be in a state of shock. In cases of severe burns, the body's stress response can lead to decreased blood sugar levels, potentially causing hypoglycemia. Therefore, it is important to assess the child's blood glucose level to determine if hypoglycemia is present and provide appropriate treatment if necessary.

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  • 43. 

    You respond to an industrial plant for a 42 year old man with a chemical burn. Upon arrival at the scene, you find the patient to be ambulatory. He tells you that he was moving some bags of dry lime when one of the bags broke and spilled lime all over him. After donning the appropriate personal protective equipment, you should

    • A.

      Remove his clothing, brush as much of the lime off him as possible, and flush the affected areas with copious amounts of water

    • B.

      Avoid brushing any of the lime from his skin as this may cause additional injury and flush his entire body with water for 30 minutes

    • C.

      Remove his clothing, carefully brush the lime away from his skin, but avoid flushing with water as this will likely increase burn severity

    • D.

      Remove all of his clothing, apply baking powder to neutralize the lime, and begin flushing his body with copious amounts of sterile saline

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove his clothing, brush as much of the lime off him as possible, and flush the affected areas with copious amounts of water
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to remove his clothing, brush as much of the lime off him as possible, and flush the affected areas with copious amounts of water. This is the appropriate initial treatment for a chemical burn caused by lime. Removing the clothing helps to prevent further contact with the chemical, while brushing off the lime helps to remove any remaining particles. Flushing with water helps to dilute and remove the chemical from the skin, reducing the severity of the burn.

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  • 44. 

    A 30 year old man presents with jaw and neck stiffness and fever. During your assessment, he tells you that he cut his hand on a piece of metal about a week ago. You should be most suspicious that this patient has

    • A.

      Tetanus

    • B.

      Meningitis

    • C.

      A viral infection

    • D.

      A staph infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetanus
    Explanation
    Given the symptoms of jaw and neck stiffness, along with the patient's history of a recent hand injury, the most likely explanation for his condition is tetanus. Tetanus is a bacterial infection caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, which enters the body through open wounds. It produces a toxin that affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. The fever also supports the diagnosis of tetanus. Meningitis could be a possibility, but the combination of symptoms and history points more towards tetanus. A viral infection or staph infection are less likely explanations in this case.

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  • 45. 

    You are dispatched to a residence for a man who cut his hand with a chainsaw. Upon arriving at the scene your first action should be to

    • A.

      Immediately gain access to the patient

    • B.

      Apply gloves, a gown, and facial protection

    • C.

      Determine if air medical transport is available

    • D.

      Carefully assess the scene for safety hazards

    Correct Answer
    D. Carefully assess the scene for safety hazards
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to carefully assess the scene for safety hazards. This is the first action that should be taken because the safety of the responder and the patient is of utmost importance. By assessing the scene for safety hazards, the responder can identify any potential dangers such as loose wires, unstable structures, or other hazardous materials that may pose a risk to themselves or the patient. This allows for appropriate measures to be taken to ensure a safe environment before providing medical care.

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  • 46. 

    A 22 year old man was struck in the forehead by a softball. He is conscious and alert, but comlains of a severe headache. Your assessment reveals a large hematoma to his forehead. His vital signs are stable and his breathing is adequate. You should

    • A.

      Apply firm manual pressure to the hematoma to reduce internal bleeding

    • B.

      Place him in a sitting position and apply a chemical heat pack to his head

    • C.

      Apply an icepack to the hematoma and monitor his level of consciousness

    • D.

      Start an IV of normal saline and administer 2 mg of morphine for the pain

    Correct Answer
    C. Apply an icepack to the hematoma and monitor his level of consciousness
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to apply an icepack to the hematoma and monitor his level of consciousness. This is the most appropriate action because the icepack will help reduce swelling and inflammation in the area, which can help alleviate the severe headache. Monitoring his level of consciousness is important to ensure that there are no signs of worsening symptoms or neurological deficits. This will help determine if further medical intervention is necessary.

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  • 47. 

    A young woman attempted to commit suicide by cutting her wrist. Bright red blood is spurting from the injury site. After applying direct pressure, you should

    • A.

      Apply supplemental oxygen and keep her warm

    • B.

      Elevate her extremity above the level of the heart

    • C.

      Apply direct pressure dressing and start a large bore IV

    • D.

      Locate and apply digital pressure to the brachial artery

    Correct Answer
    B. Elevate her extremity above the level of the heart
    Explanation
    Elevating the extremity above the level of the heart is the correct answer because it helps to reduce blood flow to the injured area and can help control bleeding. By raising the arm, gravity assists in slowing down the blood flow, which can be effective in controlling the spurting blood. This technique, along with applying direct pressure, can help minimize blood loss and provide temporary stabilization until further medical assistance is available.

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  • 48. 

    A 22 year old man was kicked in the abdomen several times during an assault. Your initial assessment reveals that he is responsive only to pain, has poor respiratory effort, and a pulse rate that is rapid and weak. Further assessment reveals abrasions with minimal bleeding to his upper extremities and face, no other gross external bleeding is present. You should

    • A.

      Protect his spine, insert a nasal airway, assist ventilations with a BVM and 100% O2. keep him warm and elevate his legs, transport at once, and establish vascular access en route to a trauma center

    • B.

      Perform immediate endotracheal intubation, apply a cervical collar, establish two large bore IV lines and give a fluid bolus at the scene, apply warm blankets, and transport expeditiously to a trauma center

    • C.

      Apply high flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, apply blankets, elevate his lower extremities 12 inches, insert bilateral intraosseous catheters, deliver a 500mL fluid bolus, and begin transport to a trauma center

    • D.

      Insert an oral airway, hyperventilate him with a BVM at 24 breaths/min, keep him warm and elevate his legs, transport at once, and establish at least one large bore IV line of normal saline while en route to a trauma center

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect his spine, insert a nasal airway, assist ventilations with a BVM and 100% O2. keep him warm and elevate his legs, transport at once, and establish vascular access en route to a trauma center
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to protect his spine, insert a nasal airway, assist ventilations with a BVM and 100% O2, keep him warm and elevate his legs, transport at once, and establish vascular access en route to a trauma center. This is the most appropriate course of action for a patient who has been assaulted and is exhibiting signs of poor respiratory effort, weak pulse, and unresponsiveness. Protecting the spine helps prevent further injury, while inserting a nasal airway and providing ventilations with a BVM and 100% O2 ensures adequate oxygenation. Keeping the patient warm and elevating his legs helps improve circulation, and immediate transport to a trauma center allows for specialized care. Establishing vascular access en route allows for the administration of fluids and medications as needed.

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  • 49. 

    A woman finds her 50 year old husband unresponsive on the couch. When you arrive and begin your assessment, the wife tells you that her husband experienced an episode of chest discomfort 2 days prior, but refused to seek medical attention. The patient is unconsious and unresponsive, is breathing with a marked reduction in tidal volume, and has a rapid thready radial pulses. Your partner reports that the patients systolic BP is 70 mm Hg. The most appropriate treatment for this patient involves-

    • A.

      Administering high flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, monitoring his cardiac rhythm, starting a large bore IV and giving a 20 ml/kg crystalloid bolus, initiating transport and infusing dopamine at 10-20 mcg/kg/min while en route to the closest facility

    • B.

      Applying a CPAP device, monitoring his cardiac rhythm for dysrhythmias, establishing IV or IO access at the scene, administering a 500 mL crystalloid bolus, initiating transport, and administering atropine en route to prevent bradycardia

    • C.

      Hyperventilating him with a BVM device for 2-3 minutes, intubating his trachea, establishing vascular access, administering prophylactic amiodarone to prevent ventricular dysrhythmias, and transporting him while infusing crystalloid fluid boluses en route to the hospital

    • D.

      Assisting his ventilations, applying a cardiac monitor, intubating if necessary, auscultating his lungs, transporting at once, establishing vascular access en route, administering a 200 mL crystalloid bolus if his lungs are clear and considering a dopamine infusion

    Correct Answer
    B. Applying a CPAP device, monitoring his cardiac rhythm for dysrhythmias, establishing IV or IO access at the scene, administering a 500 mL crystalloid bolus, initiating transport, and administering atropine en route to prevent bradycardia
    Explanation
    The most appropriate treatment for this patient involves applying a CPAP device, monitoring his cardiac rhythm for dysrhythmias, establishing IV or IO access at the scene, administering a 500 mL crystalloid bolus, initiating transport, and administering atropine en route to prevent bradycardia. This treatment plan addresses the patient's respiratory distress by providing positive pressure ventilation through the CPAP device. Monitoring the cardiac rhythm is important to identify any dysrhythmias that may require further intervention. Establishing IV or IO access allows for the administration of fluids to address the patient's low blood pressure. Administering atropine en route can help prevent bradycardia, which may be a complication of the patient's low blood pressure. Transporting the patient to a facility for further evaluation and treatment is also necessary.

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  • 50. 

    a 19 year old man fell approximately 20 feet, landing on a hard surface. Your assessment reveals that he is consious, is unable to move his lower extremities, and has pale, clammy skin above the level of his umbilicus. His respirations are 24 breaths/min and shallow, pulse rate is 50 beats/min and weak, and BP is 75/56mm Hg As your partner maintains stabilization of the patient's head, you perform a rapid trauma assesment, which reveals no obvious signs of hypovolemia. You should

    • A.

      Apply high flow oxygen, attempt transcutaneous pacing to increase his heart rate, apply spinal motion restriction precautions, establish vascular access and administer a crystalloid bolus of 10-20 mL/kg, begin transport, and infuse dopamine at 2 mcg/kg/min en route

    • B.

      Consider immediate intubation to protect his airway, apply spinal motion restriction precautions, apply warm blankets, begin transport, establish IV or IO access en route, and administer up to 4 liters of normal saline or lactated Ringer's solution to increase his BP and improve perfusion

    • C.

      Assist ventilations as needed, apply spinal motion restriction precatutions, keep him warm, begin transport, establish vascular access en route, administer crystalloid boluses in 200 mL increments, consider atropine for his bradycardia, and infuse dopamine if his blood pressure is refractory to fluid boluses.

    • D.

      Provide ventilatory assistance with a BVM device, establish immediate vascular access and infuse normal saline wide open, apply spinal motion restrictions, administer 1 mg of atropine to increase his heart rate above 60 beats/min, begin transport, and perform transcutaneous pacing en route if he remains bradycardic

    Correct Answer
    C. Assist ventilations as needed, apply spinal motion restriction precatutions, keep him warm, begin transport, establish vascular access en route, administer crystalloid boluses in 200 mL increments, consider atropine for his bradycardia, and infuse dopamine if his blood pressure is refractory to fluid boluses.
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation suggests that he has suffered a significant traumatic injury, likely involving his spinal cord. His inability to move his lower extremities and the presence of pale, clammy skin above the level of his umbilicus indicate a potential spinal cord injury. The low pulse rate, weak blood pressure, and shallow respirations suggest that he is experiencing bradycardia and hypotension, which may be due to neurogenic shock. Therefore, the appropriate course of action is to assist ventilations as needed, apply spinal motion restriction precautions, keep him warm, begin transport, establish vascular access en route, administer crystalloid boluses in 200 mL increments, consider atropine for his bradycardia, and infuse dopamine if his blood pressure is refractory to fluid boluses.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 30, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Jbouren
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