Online GPAT Mock Test: Quiz

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Online GPAT Mock Test: Quiz - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    One of the following belongs to imidazolidinedione 2,4-dione class:

    • A.

      Phenytoin

    • B.

      Trimethadione

    • C.

      Phensuximide

    • D.

      Paramethadione

    Correct Answer
    A. Phenytoin
    Explanation
    Phenytoin belongs to the imidazolidinedione 2,4-dione class because it contains the imidazolidinedione 2,4-dione structure in its chemical composition. This structure is characterized by a five-membered ring with two nitrogen atoms and two carbonyl groups. Phenytoin is commonly used as an antiepileptic drug and works by stabilizing the neuronal membranes and reducing abnormal electrical activity in the brain.

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  • 2. 

    ------------is the drug of choice for grandmal epilepsy:

    • A.

      Diazepam

    • B.

      Carbamazepine

    • C.

      Phenytoin

    • D.

      Lamotrigine

    Correct Answer
    C. Phenytoin
    Explanation
    Phenytoin is the drug of choice for grandmal epilepsy because it is an effective anticonvulsant medication that helps control and prevent seizures associated with this type of epilepsy. It works by stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain and preventing the spread of abnormal electrical impulses that can trigger seizures. Phenytoin has been widely used for many years and has proven to be effective in managing grandmal epilepsy, making it the preferred choice for treatment. Diazepam, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine are also anticonvulsant medications but may not be as effective or specifically indicated for grandmal epilepsy.

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  • 3. 

    Oxazolidone acts by:

    • A.

      Acting as agonist for GABA a receptor

    • B.

      Blocking the sodium ion chanels

    • C.

      Blocking the calcium ion chanels

    • D.

      Blocking potassium ion channels

    Correct Answer
    C. Blocking the calcium ion chanels
    Explanation
    Oxazolidone acts by blocking the calcium ion channels. Calcium ion channels are responsible for regulating the flow of calcium ions into cells, which is important for various cellular processes. By blocking these channels, oxazolidone can disrupt calcium signaling and interfere with normal cell function. This can have various effects depending on the specific cells and tissues involved, potentially leading to therapeutic effects in certain conditions.

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  • 4. 

    Mechanism of action of carbamazepine is:

    • A.

      Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition

    • B.

      Reduces L-glutamate mediated excitation

    • C.

      Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

    • D.

      Reduces clacium influx into neurons

    Correct Answer
    C. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing
    Explanation
    Carbamazepine is a medication commonly used to treat epilepsy and neuropathic pain. Its mechanism of action involves blocking sustained repetitive neuronal firing. This means that it prevents the excessive and abnormal firing of neurons, which can help to control seizures and reduce pain. By blocking this repetitive firing, carbamazepine helps to stabilize the electrical activity in the brain and nerves, leading to its therapeutic effects.

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  • 5. 

    The chemical class of carbamazepine is:

    • A.

      Benzodiazepines

    • B.

      Succinimides

    • C.

      Barbiturates

    • D.

      Iminostilbenes

    Correct Answer
    D. Iminostilbenes
    Explanation
    Carbamazepine belongs to the chemical class of iminostilbenes. This class of compounds is characterized by a core structure consisting of an imino group (-NH) attached to a stilbene moiety. Carbamazepine, specifically, contains an imino group attached to a biphenyl ring system. This classification is based on the chemical structure and properties of the compound, which allows for its categorization within the iminostilbene class.

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  • 6. 

    Ethosuximide is indicated for:

    • A.

      Delirium tremor

    • B.

      Generalized absence seizures

    • C.

      Petit mal seizures

    • D.

      Partial motor seizures

    Correct Answer
    C. Petit mal seizures
    Explanation
    Ethosuximide is a medication that is specifically indicated for the treatment of petit mal seizures. Petit mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, are a type of seizure characterized by a brief loss of consciousness or awareness. Ethosuximide works by reducing abnormal electrical activity in the brain, helping to prevent these seizures from occurring. It is not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremor, generalized absence seizures, or partial motor seizures.

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  • 7. 

    Mechanism of action of phenytoin is:

    • A.

      Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

    • B.

      Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitation

    • C.

      Enhances pre-synaptic release of GABA

    • D.

      Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition

    Correct Answer
    A. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing
    Explanation
    Phenytoin works by blocking sustained repetitive neuronal firing. This means that it prevents excessive and abnormal electrical activity in the brain, which can lead to seizures. By blocking this repetitive firing, phenytoin helps to control and prevent seizures.

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  • 8. 

    Indication of clonazepam is:

    • A.

      Myoclonic epilepsy

    • B.

      Partial motor seizures

    • C.

      Status epilepticus

    • D.

      Partial complex seizures

    Correct Answer
    A. Myoclonic epilepsy
    Explanation
    Clonazepam is a medication commonly used to treat myoclonic epilepsy, a type of epilepsy characterized by sudden, brief muscle jerks or twitches. It helps to reduce the frequency and severity of these muscle spasms by acting on the central nervous system. Clonazepam is not typically indicated for the other types of seizures listed, such as partial motor seizures, status epilepticus, or partial complex seizures. Therefore, the correct indication for clonazepam is myoclonic epilepsy.

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  • 9. 

    Lamotrigine is effective in:

    • A.

      Partial seizures

    • B.

      Generalized seizures

    • C.

      Absence seizures

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of above
    Explanation
    Lamotrigine is a medication that is effective in treating all types of seizures, including partial seizures, generalized seizures, and absence seizures. This means that it can be used to control seizures that originate from a specific area of the brain (partial seizures), seizures that affect the entire brain (generalized seizures), and seizures characterized by brief lapses of consciousness (absence seizures). Lamotrigine's broad spectrum of effectiveness makes it a versatile option for individuals with different types of seizures.

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  • 10. 

    An enzyme inducer,this anticulvasant is one of the metabolite of primidone (also an anticonvulsant):

    • A.

      Phenytoin

    • B.

      Phenobarbitone

    • C.

      Phenobarbitone

    • D.

      Diazepam

    Correct Answer
    B. Phenobarbitone
    Explanation
    Phenobarbitone is an enzyme inducer and is one of the metabolites of primidone. Enzyme inducers increase the activity of certain enzymes in the liver, which can lead to increased metabolism and elimination of other drugs. Primidone is also an anticonvulsant medication, and its metabolite phenobarbitone has similar anticonvulsant properties. Therefore, phenobarbitone is the correct answer as it is an enzyme inducer and a metabolite of primidone.

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  • 11. 

    The synonym for ‘Sesame oil’:

    • A.

      Hydrocarbons oil

    • B.

      Margosa oil

    • C.

      Maize oil

    • D.

      Gingally oil

    Correct Answer
    D. Gingally oil
    Explanation
    Gingally oil is a synonym for sesame oil.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following drugs is most readily metabolized to phenobarbital in the body?

    • A.

      Carbamazepine

    • B.

      Clonazepam

    • C.

      Phenytoin

    • D.

      Primidone

    Correct Answer
    D. Primidone
    Explanation
    Primidone is most readily metabolized to phenobarbital in the body. This is because primidone is converted to phenobarbital through hepatic metabolism. The liver breaks down primidone into phenobarbital, which is the active form of the drug. This conversion occurs rapidly and efficiently, making primidone an effective treatment for certain types of seizures.

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  • 13. 

    The synonym for ‘Sesame oil’:

    • A.

      Hydrocarbons oil

    • B.

      Margosa oil

    • C.

      Maize oil

    • D.

      Gingally oil

    Correct Answer
    D. Gingally oil
    Explanation
    Gingally oil is a synonym for sesame oil.

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  • 14. 

    In the patient with a deficiency of vitamin A, which oil capsules you will suggest?

    • A.

      Shark liver oil

    • B.

      Mustard oil

    • C.

      Arachis oil

    • D.

      Linseed oil

    Correct Answer
    A. Shark liver oil
    Explanation
    Shark liver oil is the suggested oil capsule for a patient with a vitamin A deficiency because it is a rich source of vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining healthy vision, promoting growth and development, and supporting the immune system. Shark liver oil contains high levels of vitamin A, making it an effective supplement for individuals with a deficiency. Mustard oil, arachis oil, and linseed oil do not contain significant amounts of vitamin A, so they would not be as beneficial for addressing a vitamin A deficiency.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following oil is used as a vehicle of oily injectables?

    • A.

      Arachis oil

    • B.

      Linseed oil

    • C.

      Castor oil

    • D.

      Jojoba oil

    Correct Answer
    A. Arachis oil
    Explanation
    Arachis oil is used as a vehicle for oily injectables because it is a clear, colorless, and odorless oil that is easily absorbed by the body. It is also stable and has a low viscosity, making it suitable for use in injectable medications. Linseed oil, castor oil, and jojoba oil are not commonly used as vehicles for oily injectables.

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  • 16. 

    Oil is having antileprotic property:

    • A.

      Linseed oil

    • B.

      Jojoba oil

    • C.

      Chaulmoogra oil

    • D.

      Corn oil

    Correct Answer
    C. Chaulmoogra oil
    Explanation
    Chaulmoogra oil is known to have antileprotic properties. It has been traditionally used in the treatment of leprosy due to its antibacterial and anti-inflammatory properties. The oil contains various active compounds that help in inhibiting the growth of the bacteria causing leprosy and reducing the symptoms of the disease. Therefore, chaulmoogra oil is the correct answer as it possesses the property mentioned in the question.

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  • 17. 

    The oil is not used as a vehicle for the injectables: 

    • A.

      Arachis oil

    • B.

      Olive oil

    • C.

      Sesame oil

    • D.

      Corn oil

    Correct Answer
    D. Corn oil
    Explanation
    The given answer is Corn oil because it is not commonly used as a vehicle for injectables. Arachis oil, olive oil, and sesame oil are often used as carriers or vehicles for injectable medications, while corn oil is not typically used for this purpose.

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  • 18. 

    Which oil generally lowers the blood cholesterol level?

    • A.

      Arachis oil

    • B.

      Castor oil

    • C.

      Neem oil

    • D.

      Corn oil

    Correct Answer
    D. Corn oil
    Explanation
    Corn oil is generally known to lower blood cholesterol levels. It contains a high amount of polyunsaturated fatty acids, specifically omega-6 fatty acids, which have been shown to help reduce LDL cholesterol levels in the blood. Additionally, corn oil is low in saturated fat and cholesterol, making it a healthier option compared to other oils. Regular consumption of corn oil as part of a balanced diet can contribute to maintaining healthy cholesterol levels and reducing the risk of heart disease.

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  • 19. 

    The test not used as an analytical parameter for oil: 

    • A.

      Acetyl value

    • B.

      Acid value

    • C.

      Hydroxyl value

    • D.

      Ketone value

    Correct Answer
    D. Ketone value
    Explanation
    The ketone value is not used as an analytical parameter for oil. The acetyl value, acid value, and hydroxyl value are commonly used to determine the quality and composition of oils. However, the ketone value is not a recognized parameter for analyzing oils.

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  • 20. 

    Terpenes made up of: 

    • A.

      Calcierene

    • B.

      Pseudopriene

    • C.

      Neoprene

    • D.

      Isoprene

    Correct Answer
    D. Isoprene
    Explanation
    Terpenes are a class of organic compounds that are made up of isoprene units. Isoprene is a five-carbon molecule that serves as the building block for terpenes. Terpenes are commonly found in plants and are responsible for their distinct aromas and flavors. They also play a role in various biological processes and have potential therapeutic properties. Therefore, the correct answer is Isoprene, as it is the fundamental component of terpenes.

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  • 21. 

    Molecular formula for isoprene unit is: 

    • A.

      C8 H8

    • B.

      C3 H8

    • C.

      C5 H8

    • D.

      C6 H6

    Correct Answer
    C. C5 H8
    Explanation
    The molecular formula for isoprene unit is C5 H8 because isoprene is a hydrocarbon with five carbon atoms and eight hydrogen atoms. This formula accurately represents the composition of isoprene and is commonly used to represent its structure.

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  • 22. 

    Example of alcohol volatile oil: 

    • A.

      Peppermint

    • B.

      Cinnamon

    • C.

      Lemon peel

    • D.

      Orange peel

    Correct Answer
    A. Peppermint
    Explanation
    Peppermint is an example of alcohol volatile oil because it contains a high concentration of volatile compounds that can easily evaporate at room temperature. These compounds, such as menthol and menthone, give peppermint its characteristic aroma and flavor. When peppermint oil is exposed to air, the volatile compounds quickly evaporate, releasing the strong scent of peppermint. This makes peppermint oil a popular ingredient in various products like toothpaste, chewing gum, and aromatherapy oils.

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  • 23. 

    Which is not an example of ester volatile oil? 

    • A.

      Gaultheria

    • B.

      Lavender

    • C.

      Muster

    • D.

      Cinnamon

    Correct Answer
    D. Cinnamon
    Explanation
    Cinnamon is not an example of ester volatile oil because it primarily contains cinnamaldehyde, which is an aldehyde compound, rather than esters. Ester volatile oils are characterized by the presence of esters, which are organic compounds formed by the reaction between acids and alcohols. Gaultheria, Lavender, and Muster are examples of ester volatile oils as they contain esters in their chemical composition.

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  • 24. 

    Drug is not an example of phenol volatile oil: 

    • A.

      Clove

    • B.

      Anise

    • C.

      Creosote

    • D.

      Thyme

    Correct Answer
    B. Anise
    Explanation
    Anise is not an example of phenol volatile oil because it does not contain the compound phenol in its volatile oil composition. Phenol volatile oils are characterized by the presence of phenolic compounds, which have specific chemical properties and contribute to the aroma and therapeutic properties of the oil. Anise, on the other hand, contains anethole as its main volatile compound, which is a different type of compound and not classified as a phenol. Therefore, Anise does not fit the criteria of being an example of phenol volatile oil.

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  • 25. 

    The major terpenoid in clove oil: 

    • A.

      Eugenol

    • B.

      Santalol

    • C.

      Anethol

    • D.

      Menthol

    Correct Answer
    B. Santalol
  • 26. 

    Triterpenes contain number of isoprene units: 

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    Triterpenes are a class of organic compounds that are composed of multiple isoprene units. Isoprene is a five-carbon molecule, so if triterpenes contain six isoprene units, it means they are made up of 30 carbon atoms (6 x 5 = 30). Therefore, the correct answer is 6.

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  • 27. 

    Fructose is metabolized by:

    • A.

      Fructose 1-phosphate pathway

    • B.

      Fructose 6-phosphate pathway

    • C.

      Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate pathway

    • D.

      Both (a) and (b)

    Correct Answer
    D. Both (a) and (b)
    Explanation
    Fructose can be metabolized by both the fructose 1-phosphate pathway and the fructose 6-phosphate pathway. In the fructose 1-phosphate pathway, fructose is converted into fructose 1-phosphate by the enzyme fructokinase. Fructose 1-phosphate is then converted into glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone phosphate, which can enter the glycolysis pathway. In the fructose 6-phosphate pathway, fructose is converted into fructose 6-phosphate by the enzyme fructo-6-phosphate kinase. Fructose 6-phosphate can then enter the glycolysis pathway as well. Therefore, fructose can be metabolized through both of these pathways.

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  • 28. 

    Humans are unable to digest:

    • A.

      Starch

    • B.

      Complex carbohydrates

    • C.

      Denatured proteins

    • D.

      Cellulose

    Correct Answer
    D. Cellulose
    Explanation
    Cellulose is a complex carbohydrate that makes up the cell walls of plants. It is composed of glucose molecules linked together in a way that humans lack the necessary enzymes to break down these bonds. As a result, cellulose passes through the digestive system without being digested. While humans can digest starch and other complex carbohydrates with the help of enzymes like amylase, cellulose remains indigestible for us.

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  • 29. 

    How many ATP equivalents per mole of glucose input are required for gluconeogenesis?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 6
    Explanation
    In gluconeogenesis, glucose is synthesized from non-carbohydrate sources. This process requires the input of ATP equivalents to drive the various enzymatic reactions involved. The correct answer is 6, indicating that six ATP equivalents are needed per mole of glucose input during gluconeogenesis. This energy requirement is necessary to overcome the thermodynamic barriers and ensure the synthesis of glucose.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following compounds is responsible for the coordinated regulation of glucose and glycogen metabolism?

    • A.

      NAD+

    • B.

      Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate

    • C.

      Acetyl-CoA

    • D.

      Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate

    Correct Answer
    B. Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate
    Explanation
    Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate is responsible for the coordinated regulation of glucose and glycogen metabolism. It acts as an allosteric regulator of the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1), which is a key enzyme in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. When fructose 2,6 bisphosphate levels are high, it activates PFK-1, promoting glycolysis and inhibiting gluconeogenesis. Conversely, when fructose 2,6 bisphosphate levels are low, it inhibits PFK-1, inhibiting glycolysis and promoting gluconeogenesis. This coordinated regulation helps maintain glucose homeostasis in the body.

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  • 31. 

    Gluconeogenesis requires a higher amount of ATP equivalents as compared to that produced by glycolysis because:

    • A.

      Gluconeogenesis releases energy as heat

    • B.

      Glycolysis releases energy as heat

    • C.

      Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria while gluconeogenesis occurs in the cytosol

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Glycolysis releases energy as heat
    Explanation
    Glycolysis releases energy as heat because it is an anaerobic process that breaks down glucose into pyruvate, producing a small amount of ATP and NADH. Since gluconeogenesis is the reverse process of glycolysis, it requires more ATP equivalents to convert pyruvate back into glucose. Therefore, the higher amount of ATP equivalents needed for gluconeogenesis is due to the fact that glycolysis releases energy as heat.

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  • 32. 

    The production or break down of __________ is often coupled with the metabolic reactions of biosynthesis and catabolism.

    • A.

      Aspirin

    • B.

      DNA

    • C.

      ATP

    • D.

      CO2

    Correct Answer
    C. ATP
    Explanation
    ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule responsible for storing and transferring energy within cells. It is involved in various metabolic reactions, including biosynthesis (the creation of complex molecules) and catabolism (the breakdown of complex molecules). These reactions require energy, which is supplied by ATP through the release of its high-energy phosphate bonds. Therefore, the production or breakdown of ATP is closely linked to the metabolic reactions of biosynthesis and catabolism.

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  • 33. 

    The cells dependent solely on glucose as an energy source are:

    • A.

      Muscle cells

    • B.

      Brain cells

    • C.

      Kidney cells

    • D.

      Liver cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Brain cells
    Explanation
    Brain cells, also known as neurons, primarily rely on glucose as their main source of energy. Unlike other cells in the body, neurons have limited ability to store glucose or use other energy sources such as fatty acids. Glucose is essential for maintaining proper brain function and supporting various neuronal activities such as neurotransmitter synthesis, signal transmission, and maintaining the electrochemical balance. Therefore, brain cells are highly dependent on a continuous supply of glucose to meet their energy demands.

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  • 34. 

    The main site for gluconeogenesis is:

    • A.

      Kidney

    • B.

      Liver

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Muscle

    Correct Answer
    B. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is the main site for gluconeogenesis. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and glycerol. The liver plays a crucial role in maintaining blood glucose levels by producing glucose when the body needs it. It has the necessary enzymes and metabolic pathways to carry out gluconeogenesis efficiently. Other organs, such as the kidney and brain, can also contribute to gluconeogenesis to a lesser extent, but the liver is the primary site for this process.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following statements about the energy needs of cells is false?

    • A.

      Without a continuous input of energy, cell disorder will increase

    • B.

      The laws of thermodynamics force cells to acquire energy

    • C.

      Many cellular reactions have an associated activation energy

    • D.

      The most usable energy for cells comes from the rapid combustion of glucose

    Correct Answer
    D. The most usable energy for cells comes from the rapid combustion of glucose
    Explanation
    The most usable energy for cells does not come from the rapid combustion of glucose. Glucose is broken down in a controlled manner through cellular respiration to produce ATP, which is the main source of usable energy for cells. Rapid combustion of glucose would release energy in an uncontrolled manner and would not be usable by cells.

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  • 36. 

    Cellulose fibers resemble with the protein structure in the form of:

    • A.

      β-sheets

    • B.

      α-helices

    • C.

      β-turns

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. β-sheets
    Explanation
    Cellulose fibers resemble the protein structure in the form of β-sheets. β-sheets are a common secondary structure found in proteins, where adjacent strands of the protein chain are aligned in a parallel or antiparallel manner, forming a sheet-like structure. Similarly, cellulose fibers are made up of long chains of glucose molecules that are arranged in a parallel manner, creating a sheet-like structure. This similarity in structure allows cellulose fibers to exhibit properties such as strength and rigidity, similar to proteins with β-sheet structures.

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  • 37. 

    During vigorous exercise, pyruvate produced by glycolysis is converted to:

    • A.

      Acetate

    • B.

      Lactate

    • C.

      Monosodium phosphate

    • D.

      Pyruvic acid

    Correct Answer
    B. Lactate
    Explanation
    During vigorous exercise, the body needs to produce energy quickly. When the supply of oxygen is limited, pyruvate, which is produced by glycolysis, is converted to lactate through a process called anaerobic glycolysis. This allows the body to continue producing energy without relying on oxygen. Lactate can then be used as a fuel source by the muscles or converted back to pyruvate when oxygen becomes available again. This conversion to lactate helps to prevent the build-up of excessive pyruvate and allows for the continued production of energy during intense exercise.

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  • 38. 

    Gluconeogenesis uses:

    • A.

      3 ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose

    • B.

      2 ATPs and 1 GTPs per glucose

    • C.

      3 ATPs and 3 GTPs per glucose

    • D.

      4 ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose

    Correct Answer
    D. 4 ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose
    Explanation
    Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic pathway that generates glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. It is an energy-consuming process that requires ATP and GTP as a source of energy. The correct answer states that gluconeogenesis uses 4 ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose molecule. This means that a total of 4 ATP molecules and 2 GTP molecules are hydrolyzed to provide the necessary energy for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose.

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  • 39. 

    Saliva contains all of the following except:

    • A.

      Hormones

    • B.

      Amylase

    • C.

      Bacteria-killing enzymes

    • D.

      Antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Hormones
    Explanation
    Saliva is a fluid produced by the salivary glands in the mouth. It aids in the digestion process and helps to keep the mouth clean and healthy. Saliva contains various components, including amylase, which is an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates, bacteria-killing enzymes that help to protect against oral infections, and antibodies that help to fight off pathogens. However, saliva does not contain hormones. Hormones are chemical messengers produced by glands in the body that regulate various bodily functions, but they are not typically found in saliva.

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  • 40. 

    The conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate:

    • A.

      Requires biotin

    • B.

      Involves the fixation of carbon dioxide

    • C.

      Occurs in the mitochondria

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Requires biotin
    Explanation
    The conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate requires biotin because biotin is a cofactor for the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase, which catalyzes this reaction. Biotin is necessary for the carboxylation of pyruvate, which involves the fixation of carbon dioxide. This reaction occurs in the mitochondria, where pyruvate is transported and converted to oxaloacetate. Therefore, all of the above statements are true.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is not included in the Domain Eukarya?

    • A.

      A fern

    • B.

      A yeast

    • C.

      A slime mold

    • D.

      A photosynthetic bacterium

    Correct Answer
    D. A photosynthetic bacterium
    Explanation
    Photosynthetic bacteria, also known as cyanobacteria, are prokaryotes and belong to the Domain Bacteria, not the Domain Eukarya. The Domain Eukarya includes organisms with eukaryotic cells, such as ferns, yeasts, and slime molds.

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  • 42. 

    Members of the Kingdom Fungi are:

    • A.

      Usually motile.

    • B.

      Typically found in "extreme environments."

    • C.

      Photosynthetic.

    • D.

      Either unicellular or multicellular.

    Correct Answer
    D. Either unicellular or multicellular.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "either unicellular or multicellular." This is because members of the Kingdom Fungi can exist in both forms. Some fungi, such as yeast, are unicellular and exist as single-celled organisms. Others, such as mushrooms, are multicellular and exist as complex structures made up of many cells. The ability of fungi to exist in both forms is one of the characteristics that distinguishes them from other kingdoms in the classification system.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following would be classified with the archaea?

    • A.

      A cell with a peptidoglycan containing cell wall.

    • B.

      An extreme halophile.

    • C.

      A nucleated cell.

    • D.

      A cell with a chloroplast.

    Correct Answer
    B. An extreme halophile.
    Explanation
    Archaea are a group of single-celled microorganisms that have distinct characteristics, including the ability to survive in extreme environments. An extreme halophile refers to an organism that thrives in high salt concentrations, which is a characteristic commonly found in archaea. The other options do not fit the classification of archaea. A cell with a peptidoglycan containing cell wall is a characteristic of bacteria, not archaea. A nucleated cell is a characteristic of eukaryotes, which include plants, animals, and fungi. A cell with a chloroplast is a characteristic of photosynthetic organisms, such as plants and some protists, but not archaea.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is in the correct order?

    • A.

      Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

    • B.

      Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Family, Order, Class, Genus, Species

    • C.

      Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Family, Order, Class, Genus, Species

    • D.

      Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

    Correct Answer
    A. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the one that lists the taxonomic categories in the correct order, from broadest to most specific. In the given answer, the categories are listed in the correct order, starting with the broadest category "Domain" and ending with the most specific category "Species". This order follows the hierarchical classification system used in biology to categorize organisms based on their characteristics and evolutionary relationships.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is not true of the Western Blot?

    • A.

      After electrophoresis and transfer of proteins to a filter, specific proteins can be identified with a patient's antibodies and an enzyme linked to anti-human serum.

    • B.

      It is an important test for diagnosis of both HIV infection and Lyme disease.

    • C.

      Proteins from a known bacterium or virus are separated by electrophoresis in this assay.

    • D.

      This technique identifies signature rRNA sequences of microbes.

    Correct Answer
    D. This technique identifies signature rRNA sequences of microbes.
    Explanation
    The Western Blot technique is not used to identify signature rRNA sequences of microbes. Instead, it is used to identify specific proteins using a patient's antibodies and an enzyme linked to anti-human serum. It is an important test for diagnosing HIV infection and Lyme disease, and it separates proteins from known bacteria or viruses through electrophoresis.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is not used in DNA fingerprinting?

    • A.

      Antibodies.

    • B.

      Agarose gel.

    • C.

      DNA stain.

    • D.

      Restriction enzymes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibodies.
    Explanation
    DNA fingerprinting is a technique used to identify and compare DNA samples. It involves the use of various tools and methods, such as agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA staining, and restriction enzymes. Antibodies, on the other hand, are not used in DNA fingerprinting. Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system in response to foreign substances, and they are typically used in techniques such as immunohistochemistry or Western blotting to detect specific proteins. In DNA fingerprinting, the focus is on analyzing and comparing DNA sequences, so antibodies are not used.

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  • 47. 

    PCR:

    • A.

      Amplifies the amount of lipid found in a microbe.

    • B.

      Requires microbes to be cultured.

    • C.

      Is never used to identify the causative agent of an infectious disease.

    • D.

      Is useful as a step that may precede DNA fingerprinting or DNA sequencing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Is useful as a step that may precede DNA fingerprinting or DNA sequencing.
    Explanation
    PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a technique used to amplify a specific segment of DNA. It does not amplify lipids or require microbes to be cultured. However, it is commonly used as a preliminary step before DNA fingerprinting or DNA sequencing. PCR allows for the amplification of a specific DNA region, making it easier to analyze and identify genetic variations or mutations. This amplified DNA can then be used for further analysis such as DNA fingerprinting or DNA sequencing to identify the causative agent of an infectious disease.

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  • 48. 

    DNA probes:

    • A.

      Are DNA fragments.

    • B.

      Allow for microbial detection without use of radioactive or fluorescent molecules

    • C.

      Are designed so that each should bind to DNA from a variety of microbes.

    • D.

      Are composed of protein.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are DNA fragments.
    Explanation
    DNA probes are short segments of DNA that are used to detect the presence of specific DNA sequences in a sample. They can be labeled with radioactive or fluorescent molecules to visualize the binding of the probe to the target DNA. The probes are designed to be complementary to the target DNA sequence, allowing them to bind specifically to the desired target. Therefore, the correct answer is that DNA probes are DNA fragments, as they are short segments of DNA used for detection purposes.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not true of cladograms?

    • A.

      They can be based on the fossil record.

    • B.

      They make dichotomous keys useless.

    • C.

      They can be based on molecular information.

    • D.

      They show evolutionary relationships among organisms.

    Correct Answer
    B. They make dichotomous keys useless.
    Explanation
    Cladograms do not make dichotomous keys useless. Cladograms are diagrams that show the evolutionary relationships among organisms. They can be based on various types of information, including the fossil record and molecular data. Dichotomous keys, on the other hand, are tools used to identify organisms based on a series of yes/no questions. While cladograms provide a more detailed understanding of evolutionary relationships, dichotomous keys are still useful for quickly identifying organisms based on observable characteristics.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following is not a step in identification of bacteria by DNA probes?

    • A.

      Isolating the bacteria to be tested by filtration.

    • B.

      Making the bacterial DNA single stranded.

    • C.

      Lysis of the bacteria collected.

    • D.

      Making the probe double stranded.

    Correct Answer
    D. Making the probe double stranded.
    Explanation
    The identification of bacteria by DNA probes involves several steps, including isolating the bacteria to be tested, making the bacterial DNA single stranded, and lysing the bacteria collected. However, making the probe double stranded is not a step in this process. DNA probes are typically single-stranded molecules that are designed to bind specifically to the target DNA sequence of the bacteria being identified. By making the probe double stranded, it would lose its specificity and ability to bind to the target DNA, thus making it ineffective for identification purposes.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 06, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Pharmacy_2003

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