Psych 2121-008 - Child And Adolescent Development

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 218

Questions: 62 | Attempts: 218 | Updated: May 8, 2024

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Psych 2121-008 - Child And Adolescent Development - Quiz

62 questions
Notes & Book: Prohibited
Timed Assignment: 1h:30mins
Attempts: 1

Questions and Answers

1.

This disorder includes: inattention, impulsiveness, hyperactivity
- A.
  
  Learning disordder
- B.
  
  ADHD (attention deficit/hyperactive disorder)
- C.
  
  ODD (oppositional defiant disorder)
- D.
  
  ASD (autism spectrum disorder)
Correct Answer
B. ADHD (attention deficit/hyperactive disorder)

Explanation
The given disorder includes symptoms such as inattention, impulsiveness, and hyperactivity. This matches the characteristics of ADHD (attention deficit/hyperactive disorder). Learning disorders may have some overlapping symptoms, but they do not specifically include impulsiveness and hyperactivity. ODD (oppositional defiant disorder) involves defiance and hostility, while ASD (autism spectrum disorder) involves difficulties with social interaction and communication. Therefore, the most appropriate disorder that matches the given symptoms is ADHD.

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2.

Most children with ADHD are diagnosed when they start school.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Most children with ADHD are diagnosed when they start school because that is when their symptoms become more noticeable. The structured environment of school, with its academic and social demands, can highlight the difficulties that children with ADHD face in terms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. Teachers and parents may start to notice that the child is struggling to pay attention, follow instructions, or stay seated for long periods of time. As a result, they may seek a diagnosis and appropriate interventions to support the child's learning and development.

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3.

To be diagnosed (according to DSM) the child needs to have only 2 symptoms of ADHD for only 1 month.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
They need to have 6 out of 9 symptoms or 6 months of the symptoms to a degree that is maladaptive and inconsistent with normal development.

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4.

When administering stimulants for ADHD:
- A.
  
  Give right before bed
- B.
  
  Do not give at bedtime
- C.
  
  Give after meals
- D.
  
  Give before meals
Correct Answer(s)
B. Do not give at bedtime
C. Give after meals

Explanation
Stimulants for ADHD should not be given at bedtime because they can cause difficulty falling asleep. It is recommended to give them after meals to minimize potential stomach upset.

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5.

It is not a problem to abruptly stop your ADHD medications.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
Abruptly stopping ADHD medications can have negative consequences. These medications are typically prescribed to help manage symptoms of ADHD, such as impulsivity, hyperactivity, and inattention. Suddenly discontinuing them can lead to a resurgence of these symptoms, making it difficult for individuals to focus and function effectively. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication regimens.

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6.

Children with ADHD tend to have a co-morbidity with substance abuse, conduct disorder, anxiety and/or depression.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Children with ADHD often have a higher risk of developing co-morbidities such as substance abuse, conduct disorder, anxiety, and depression. This means that these conditions frequently occur alongside ADHD in the same individual. The presence of these co-morbidities can complicate the management and treatment of ADHD, as they may require additional interventions and support. Therefore, the statement "Children with ADHD tend to have a co-morbidity with substance abuse, conduct disorder, anxiety, and/or depression" is true.

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7.

Priority nursing diagnosis for ADHD:
- A.
  
  Ineffective role performance
- B.
  
  Safety/Injury r/t risk taking behaviors
- C.
  
  Low self-esteem and self-concept
- D.
  
  Compromised family coping
Correct Answer
B. Safety/Injury r/t risk taking behaviors

Explanation
The priority nursing diagnosis for ADHD is "Safety/Injury r/t risk taking behaviors." This is because individuals with ADHD often engage in impulsive and risky behaviors, which can increase their risk of injury. Ensuring the safety of the individual is crucial in managing their condition and preventing harm. By addressing this nursing diagnosis first, healthcare professionals can implement strategies to minimize risk and promote a safe environment for the individual with ADHD.

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8.

Positive food choices for ADHD patients:
- A.
  
  Steak and potatoes
- B.
  
  Salads
- C.
  
  Cookies and Sodas
- D.
  
  Peanut butter sandwiches
Correct Answer
D. Peanut butter sandwiches

Explanation
Peanut butter sandwiches are a positive food choice for ADHD patients because they provide a good balance of protein and carbohydrates. Protein helps to stabilize blood sugar levels and improve focus, while carbohydrates provide energy. Additionally, peanut butter contains healthy fats and vitamins that support brain health.

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9.

Adult ADHD is usually misdiagnosed as depression, anxiety and/or bipolar.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Adult ADHD is often misdiagnosed as depression, anxiety, or bipolar disorder due to overlapping symptoms such as difficulty concentrating, impulsivity, and mood swings. These conditions can share similar characteristics, making it challenging to differentiate between them. Additionally, individuals with ADHD may also experience symptoms of depression or anxiety as a result of their ADHD symptoms, further complicating the diagnosis. Therefore, it is true that adult ADHD is commonly misdiagnosed as depression, anxiety, and/or bipolar disorder.

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10.

Irlen's syndrome:
- A.
  
  Colored lenses for learning disorders
- B.
  
  Larger Print for vision impaired children
- C.
  
  Reading to child instead of them reading for learning disorders
- D.
  
  Special education class for learning disorders
Correct Answer
A. Colored lenses for learning disorders

Explanation
Colored lenses are used to help individuals with Irlen's syndrome, a perceptual processing disorder. This syndrome affects the way the brain processes visual information, leading to difficulties in reading and other visual tasks. Colored lenses can help alleviate symptoms such as eye strain, headaches, and difficulty focusing by filtering out specific wavelengths of light. By wearing these lenses, individuals with learning disorders associated with Irlen's syndrome can improve their visual perception and reading abilities.

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11.

Reassessment for learning disorders is needed every ______ years:
- A.
  
  15
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  9
- D.
  
  5
Correct Answer
D. 5

Explanation
Reassessment for learning disorders is needed every 5 years because it is important to regularly evaluate and monitor the progress of individuals with learning disorders. This allows for any changes or improvements in their condition to be identified, and appropriate interventions or support to be provided. Regular reassessment also helps to ensure that the individual's educational and therapeutic needs are being met effectively, and any necessary adjustments can be made to their learning plan.

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12.

This conduct disorder is diagnosed by DSM by the following: aggression towards people or animals; destruction of property; theft; deceitfulness; serious violation of rules
- A.
  
  Conduct Disorder
- B.
  
  Learning Disorder
- C.
  
  Oppositional Defiant Disorder
- D.
  
  ADHD
Correct Answer
A. Conduct Disorder

Explanation
Conduct Disorder is diagnosed by the DSM based on specific criteria, including aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, theft, deceitfulness, and serious violation of rules. These behaviors are typically persistent and severe, causing significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning. Conduct Disorder is different from Oppositional Defiant Disorder, which involves a pattern of defiant and disobedient behavior but does not include the more severe behaviors seen in Conduct Disorder. Learning Disorder and ADHD are unrelated conditions that involve difficulties in academic or attentional functioning, respectively.

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13.

Which type of conduct disorder has the best prognosis:
- A.
  
  Childhood - Onset
- B.
  
  Adolescent - Onset
Correct Answer
B. Adolescent - Onset

Explanation
Adolescent-Onset conduct disorder has a better prognosis compared to Childhood-Onset conduct disorder. This is because individuals with Adolescent-Onset conduct disorder usually show less severe symptoms and have a higher likelihood of growing out of the disorder as they transition into adulthood. On the other hand, Childhood-Onset conduct disorder is often associated with more persistent and severe behavioral problems, which can lead to a poorer prognosis and a higher risk of developing antisocial personality disorder in adulthood.

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14.

What is the best treatment for CD (conduct disorder)?
- A.
  
  Play Therapy
- B.
  
  Putting deviant youth together
- C.
  
  PMT (Parent Management Training)
- D.
  
  Psychodynamic Therapy
Correct Answer
C. PMT (Parent Management Training)

Explanation
PMT (Parent Management Training) is considered the best treatment for CD (conduct disorder) because it focuses on teaching parents effective strategies to manage their child's behavior. This therapy helps parents establish clear rules and expectations, provide consistent discipline, and improve communication with their child. By equipping parents with the necessary skills, PMT aims to reduce negative behaviors and promote positive behavior in children with conduct disorder. It recognizes the important role parents play in shaping their child's behavior and seeks to empower them to effectively address and manage their child's conduct disorder.

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15.

Typical manifestations of Conduct Disorder: (select all that apply)
- A.
  
  No remorse
- B.
  
  Respect for others
- C.
  
  Cheerful
- D.
  
  Extreme number of tattoos/piercings
- E.
  
  Blames others
- F.
  
  Early onset of sexual behavior
Correct Answer(s)
A. No remorse
D. Extreme number of tattoos/piercings
E. Blames others
F. Early onset of sexual behavior

Explanation
The correct answer is "No remorse, Extreme number of tattoos/piercings, Blames others, Early onset of sexual behavior." These manifestations are commonly seen in individuals with Conduct Disorder. Conduct Disorder is a behavioral and emotional disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of violating the rights of others or societal norms. Lack of remorse, blaming others for their actions, engaging in early sexual behavior, and having an excessive number of tattoos/piercings are all indicative of the disruptive and aggressive behavior associated with Conduct Disorder. Respect for others and being cheerful are not typical manifestations of this disorder.

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16.

Diagnosis of ODD occurs when the child does not fit into the criteria of Conduct Disorder
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The statement is true because Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) and Conduct Disorder (CD) are two different diagnoses in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5). ODD is characterized by a pattern of defiant, disobedient, and hostile behavior towards authority figures, while CD involves more severe and aggressive behaviors that violate the rights of others. Therefore, if a child's behavior does not meet the criteria for CD, but does meet the criteria for ODD, a diagnosis of ODD would be appropriate.

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17.

Pervasive Developmental Disorder is also known as:
- A.
  
  Mental Retardation
- B.
  
  Autism Spectrum Disorder
- C.
  
  PKU
Correct Answer
B. Autism Spectrum Disorder

Explanation
Pervasive Developmental Disorder is another term for Autism Spectrum Disorder. Autism Spectrum Disorder is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties in social interaction, communication, and repetitive patterns of behavior. It is a lifelong condition that affects individuals differently and can range from mild to severe. The term Pervasive Developmental Disorder is often used interchangeably with Autism Spectrum Disorder to describe the same condition.

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18.

DSM diagnostic for ASD (Autism Spectrum Disorder):
- A.
  
  Abnormal functioning prior to age 3 in social interaction, language in social communication and symbolic or imaginative play
- B.
  
  Impulsive behavior
- C.
  
  Impairment in communication and social interactions
- D.
  
  Restrictive repetitive patterns of behaviors, interest and activities
- E.
  
  Actively defies requests/rules
Correct Answer(s)
A. Abnormal functioning prior to age 3 in social interaction, language in social communication and symbolic or imaginative play
C. Impairment in communication and social interactions
D. Restrictive repetitive patterns of behaviors, interest and activities

Explanation
The correct answer includes three key diagnostic criteria for ASD: abnormal functioning prior to age 3 in social interaction, language in social communication, and symbolic or imaginative play; impairment in communication and social interactions; and restrictive repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, and activities. These criteria are commonly used to identify individuals with ASD and are included in the DSM diagnostic criteria. Additionally, the answer does not include the criterion of impulsive behavior or actively defying requests/rules, which are not specific to ASD.

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19.

Irrational fear that produces a conscious avoidance of the feared subject, activity or situation
- A.
  
  Phobia
- B.
  
  Anxiety
- C.
  
  Panic
- D.
  
  Separation Anxiety
Correct Answer
A. pHobia

Explanation
The given correct answer is "Phobia". A phobia is an irrational fear that causes a person to consciously avoid the subject, activity, or situation they fear. It is characterized by intense anxiety and can lead to panic attacks. Phobias can vary in severity and can be related to specific objects, activities, or situations. People with phobias often experience extreme distress and may go to great lengths to avoid their feared stimuli.

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20.

Often, physical symptoms occur in separation anxiety, such as headaches, nausea and stomachaches.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Physical symptoms often occur in individuals experiencing separation anxiety, such as headaches, nausea, and stomachaches. This is because the stress and anxiety associated with being separated from a loved one can manifest in physical discomfort. These symptoms are a result of the body's natural response to stress, which can include increased heart rate, muscle tension, and digestive issues. Therefore, it is true that physical symptoms can occur in separation anxiety.

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21.

At-risk population for Separation Anxiety:
- A.
  
  Threatening events
- B.
  
  Bullying
- C.
  
  Loss of a family member
- D.
  
  Frequent relocations
Correct Answer(s)
A. Threatening events
C. Loss of a family member
D. Frequent relocations

Explanation
The at-risk population for separation anxiety includes individuals who have experienced threatening events, loss of a family member, and frequent relocations. These factors can contribute to feelings of insecurity, fear, and uncertainty, which can increase the likelihood of developing separation anxiety. Threatening events can create a sense of danger and instability, while the loss of a family member can lead to feelings of grief and abandonment. Frequent relocations can disrupt a person's sense of stability and belonging, making it difficult to form secure attachments and increasing the risk of separation anxiety.

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22.

Usually body weight of an anorexia nervosa client is ____ % under normal body weight.
- A.
  
  5-10
- B.
  
  15-25
- C.
  
  40-50
- D.
  
  80
Correct Answer
B. 15-25

Explanation
The correct answer is 15-25. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often restrict their food intake, leading to significant weight loss. The body weight of a person with anorexia nervosa is typically 15-25% below their normal body weight. This weight loss can have severe physical and psychological consequences. It is important for individuals with anorexia nervosa to receive appropriate medical and psychological treatment to address the underlying issues and promote healthy weight restoration.

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23.

Many times bulimia and anorexia nervosa overlap.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
In about 50% of the cases

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24.

Key to diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa:
- A.
  
  3 missed periods in a year
- B.
  
  3 missed periods in 6 months
- C.
  
  3 consecutive missed periods
Correct Answer
C. 3 consecutive missed periods

Explanation
The correct answer is 3 consecutive missed periods. This is because the key to diagnosing Anorexia Nervosa is the absence of menstrual periods, known as amenorrhea. In order for this symptom to be considered significant, it must occur for three consecutive missed periods. This is an important diagnostic criterion as it indicates the severe impact of the disorder on the body and hormonal balance.

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25.

Average age of diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa:
- A.
  
  12 - 14 Years Old
- B.
  
  18 - 21 Years Old
- C.
  
  6-10 Years Old
Correct Answer
A. 12 - 14 Years Old

Explanation
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. It commonly develops during adolescence, with the average age of diagnosis being between 12 and 14 years old. During this period, individuals undergo significant physical and emotional changes, making them more vulnerable to developing unhealthy eating habits and body dissatisfaction. Early detection and intervention are crucial in treating anorexia nervosa and preventing long-term complications.

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26.

Average age of diagnosis of Bulimia:
- A.
  
  8-10 Years Old
- B.
  
  12 - 14 Years Old
- C.
  
  18-21 Years Old
Correct Answer
C. 18-21 Years Old

Explanation
The correct answer is 18-21 years old because bulimia nervosa typically develops in late adolescence or early adulthood. This eating disorder is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting or excessive exercise. It is more commonly diagnosed in older individuals due to the complex interplay of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors that contribute to its development. Early detection and intervention are crucial in order to prevent further physical and psychological complications associated with bulimia nervosa.

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27.

Swollen parotid glands are a sign of:
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
B. Bulimia

Explanation
Swollen parotid glands are a sign of bulimia. Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, either through self-induced vomiting or the use of laxatives. The excessive vomiting can cause irritation and inflammation of the parotid glands, which are located near the ears. This can lead to swelling and tenderness in the area. Anorexia nervosa, on the other hand, is an eating disorder characterized by severe restriction of food intake, and swollen parotid glands are not typically associated with this condition.

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28.

Russell's sign:
- A.
  
  Spot of knuckles from inducing vomiting
- B.
  
  Pouch of fluid that collects in abdomen
- C.
  
  Enamel erosion
Correct Answer
A. Spot of knuckles from inducing vomiting

Explanation
Russell's sign refers to the presence of calluses or bruises on the knuckles of the hand caused by repeatedly inducing vomiting. This behavior is commonly seen in individuals with eating disorders, such as bulimia nervosa. The act of inducing vomiting involves the hand coming into contact with the teeth, leading to the characteristic knuckle marks. Therefore, the correct answer is "Spot of knuckles from inducing vomiting."

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29.

Which eating disorder causes bradycardia and arrhythmias
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
A. Anorexia Nervosa

Explanation
Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. Individuals with anorexia often restrict their food intake to an extreme level, leading to severe malnutrition. This malnutrition can cause a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) and abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias). The body's response to starvation includes a reduction in metabolic rate, which can slow down the heart rate. Additionally, electrolyte imbalances due to malnutrition can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to arrhythmias. Therefore, Anorexia Nervosa is the eating disorder that causes bradycardia and arrhythmias.

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30.

Which eating disorder an increased risk of osteoporosis (reduction in bone density)
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
A. Anorexia Nervosa

Explanation
Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. Individuals with this disorder severely restrict their food intake, leading to significant weight loss and malnutrition. The lack of proper nutrition, particularly a deficiency in calcium and vitamin D, can result in a reduction in bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Therefore, individuals with Anorexia Nervosa are more likely to experience this condition compared to those with Bulimia.

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31.

Which eating disorder have an increased risk for cavities
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
B. Bulimia

Explanation
Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting or excessive exercise. These purging behaviors expose the teeth to high levels of stomach acid, which can erode the enamel and lead to cavities. On the other hand, individuals with anorexia nervosa typically restrict their food intake, which may lead to nutritional deficiencies, but does not involve the same purging behaviors that increase the risk of cavities.

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32.

Slow, lethargic, wears baggy layered clothing
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
A. Anorexia Nervosa

Explanation
The given description of being slow, lethargic, and wearing baggy layered clothing is indicative of symptoms commonly associated with Anorexia Nervosa. Anorexia Nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe restriction of food intake, excessive weight loss, and a distorted body image. Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa often exhibit slow movements and lack of energy due to the extreme calorie deficit they subject their bodies to. Additionally, wearing baggy layered clothing can be an attempt to hide their emaciated appearance.

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33.

Which eating disorder has an increased risk for pneumonia
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
B. Bulimia

Explanation
Bulimia is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, which can involve self-induced vomiting. Frequent vomiting can irritate and damage the esophagus, leading to an increased risk of aspiration pneumonia. This occurs when stomach contents, including stomach acid, are inhaled into the lungs, causing inflammation and infection. Anorexia nervosa, on the other hand, is associated with a higher risk of other complications such as electrolyte imbalances and heart problems, but not specifically pneumonia.

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34.

Normal appearance, open and talkative
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
B. Bulimia

Explanation
The given answer, Bulimia, is the correct choice because the symptoms described in the question, such as normal appearance, openness, and talkativeness, are commonly associated with individuals suffering from Bulimia. Unlike Anorexia Nervosa, where individuals typically exhibit extreme weight loss and a distorted body image, people with Bulimia often maintain a normal weight while engaging in binge-eating episodes followed by purging behaviors. This can lead to a deceptive appearance of normalcy, making it harder to recognize the disorder. Additionally, individuals with Bulimia tend to be more open and talkative about their feelings and struggles compared to those with Anorexia Nervosa.

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35.

Sad and anxious, seldom laughs or smiles
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
A. Anorexia Nervosa

Explanation
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe restriction of food intake. People with this disorder often experience sadness and anxiety, and their emotional state may be reflected in their lack of laughter or smiles. This aligns with the given description of feeling sad and anxious, seldom laughing or smiling, making Anorexia Nervosa the correct answer.

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36.

Mild confusion, and difficulty concentrating
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
A. Anorexia Nervosa

Explanation
Mild confusion and difficulty concentrating are common symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa. This eating disorder is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe restriction of food intake and significant weight loss. The lack of proper nutrition and energy can affect cognitive function, resulting in confusion and difficulty concentrating. Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa also often have distorted body image and a relentless pursuit of thinness. Bulimia, on the other hand, involves episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging, but does not typically cause the same level of cognitive impairment.

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37.

Preoccupied with food and has magical thinking (if I were thinner everything would be perfect)
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
A. Anorexia Nervosa

Explanation
The given answer suggests that the person is preoccupied with food and has magical thinking, believing that if they were thinner, everything would be perfect. This aligns with the symptoms and characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa, an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, a distorted body image, and a relentless pursuit of thinness. Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa often restrict their food intake, leading to significant weight loss and potential health complications.

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38.

Embarrassment, shame and guilt; hides food
- A.
  
  Anorexia Nervosa
- B.
  
  Bulimia
Correct Answer
B. Bulimia

Explanation
Bulimia is characterized by a cycle of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting or excessive exercise. The individual with bulimia often feels a sense of shame, embarrassment, and guilt about their eating behaviors, which leads them to hide their food consumption and engage in secretive behaviors. This aligns with the given statement that mentions embarrassment, shame, and guilt, along with the behavior of hiding food. Therefore, the correct answer is Bulimia.

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39.

Hypokalemia, hyponatremia and dehydration are concerns for eating disorders
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa and bulimia can lead to imbalances in electrolytes and fluid levels in the body. Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and dehydration are common concerns in individuals with eating disorders. Hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, which can cause muscle weakness and irregular heart rhythms. Hyponatremia is characterized by low sodium levels and can result in symptoms such as confusion, seizures, and coma. Dehydration occurs when the body loses more fluids than it takes in, leading to symptoms like dry mouth, fatigue, and dizziness. Therefore, it is true that hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and dehydration are concerns for eating disorders.

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40.

Priority of medical management for eating disorders:
- A.
  
  Cardiac Issues
- B.
  
  Cognitive Therapy
- C.
  
  Increase of body weight to 5-10% within normal limits
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac Issues

Explanation
The priority of medical management for eating disorders is to address cardiac issues. Eating disorders can severely impact the heart, leading to various cardiac complications such as arrhythmias, electrolyte imbalances, and heart failure. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the management of these cardiac issues to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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41.

Medications that can be given to eating disorder patients:
- A.
  
  Thyroid supplements
- B.
  
  Laxatives
- C.
  
  Antidepressants
- D.
  
  Nausea medications
- E.
  
  Vitamins
- F.
  
  Calcium
- G.
  
  Diuretics
Correct Answer(s)
A. Thyroid supplements
C. Antidepressants
E. Vitamins
F. Calcium

Explanation
Eating disorder patients may have imbalances in their hormones, particularly in the thyroid gland, which can affect their metabolism and overall health. Thyroid supplements can help regulate the thyroid function. Antidepressants may be prescribed to address underlying mental health issues that contribute to the eating disorder. Vitamins and calcium are important for overall health and to replenish any nutrient deficiencies. Laxatives, diuretics, and nausea medications are not typically recommended for eating disorder patients as they can be misused and worsen the condition.

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42.

Eating disorder patients may not exercise at all
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
False. Eating disorder patients may engage in excessive exercise as a form of purging or compensatory behavior. Some individuals with eating disorders use exercise as a way to burn calories and control their weight. This behavior can be driven by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that eating disorder patients may not exercise at all.

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43.

Diagnostic IQ level for Mental Retardation
- A.
  
  Under 70
- B.
  
  Under 20
- C.
  
  Under 90
- D.
  
  Under 60
Correct Answer
A. Under 70

Explanation
The correct answer is "Under 70". This is because a diagnostic IQ level for mental retardation is typically considered to be below 70. Individuals with an IQ score below 70 are generally considered to have intellectual disabilities and may require additional support and accommodations in various aspects of their lives.

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44.

Another name for Intellectual Development Disorder
- A.
  
  Conduct Disorder
- B.
  
  Mental Retardation
- C.
  
  Phobia
Correct Answer
B. Mental Retardation

Explanation
The correct answer is Mental Retardation. This term was previously used to describe a condition now known as Intellectual Development Disorder. It refers to significant limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior, which manifest during the developmental period. The term "Mental Retardation" has been replaced to promote a more respectful and inclusive language, recognizing the individual's potential for growth and development.

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45.

Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase:
- A.
  
  Fragile X
- B.
  
  Down Syndrome
- C.
  
  PKU
Correct Answer
C. PKU

Explanation
PKU stands for Phenylketonuria, a genetic disorder caused by the absence of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. This enzyme is responsible for breaking down an amino acid called phenylalanine. Without this enzyme, phenylalanine builds up in the body and can cause intellectual disability, developmental delays, and other symptoms. Fragile X and Down Syndrome are unrelated genetic disorders and do not involve the absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase.

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46.

The Guthrie blood test is used to test for:
- A.
  
  PKU
- B.
  
  Fragile X
- C.
  
  Down Syndrome
- D.
  
  Tourette's Syndrome
Correct Answer
A. PKU

Explanation
The Guthrie blood test is used to test for PKU, which stands for Phenylketonuria. PKU is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. This test is commonly performed on newborns to detect if they have elevated levels of phenylalanine in their blood, which can lead to intellectual disabilities and other health problems if not treated early. The Guthrie blood test involves collecting a small blood sample from the baby's heel and analyzing it for phenylalanine levels.

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47.

Approved foods for mother and child with PKU: (select all that apply)
- A.
  
  Fruits
- B.
  
  Vegetables
- C.
  
  Diet soda
- D.
  
  Beans
- E.
  
  Low protein breads
- F.
  
  Meat and fish
- G.
  
  Dairy
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fruits
B. Vegetables
E. Low protein breads

Explanation
The approved foods for a mother and child with PKU are fruits, vegetables, and low protein breads. PKU is a genetic disorder that affects the body's ability to break down an amino acid called phenylalanine. Therefore, individuals with PKU need to follow a strict low protein diet to prevent the build-up of phenylalanine in their body. Fruits and vegetables are generally low in protein and can be safely consumed. Low protein breads are specially formulated to have reduced levels of phenylalanine. Diet soda, beans, meat, and fish are high in protein and should be avoided by individuals with PKU. Dairy products also contain phenylalanine and should be limited or avoided.

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48.

Formulas approved for infants
- A.
  
  Pregestimil
- B.
  
  Lofenalac
- C.
  
  Prophree
- D.
  
  Gentlease
Correct Answer(s)
B. Lofenalac
C. PropHree

Explanation
The given answer, Lofenalac and Prophree, refers to two formulas that are approved for infants. These formulas have been deemed safe and suitable for the nutritional needs of infants. The other options, Pregestimil and Gentlease, may also be formulas approved for infants, but they are not included in the answer.

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49.

Normal level of serum phenylalanine:
- A.
  
  10 mg/dl
- B.
  
  2 mg/dl
- C.
  
  16 mg/dl
- D.
  
  25 mg/dl
Correct Answer
B. 2 mg/dl

Explanation
The normal level of serum phenylalanine is 2 mg/dl. This means that in a healthy individual, the concentration of phenylalanine in their blood should be around 2 milligrams per deciliter. Higher levels of phenylalanine can indicate a metabolic disorder called phenylketonuria (PKU), where the body is unable to break down phenylalanine properly. This can lead to a buildup of phenylalanine in the blood, which can have harmful effects on the brain and nervous system if left untreated.

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50.

Mothers with PKU cannot breastfeed.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
They can breastfeed but may need a supplement formula

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Current Version
May 08, 2024

Quiz Edited by
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Oct 25, 2014

Quiz Created by
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The Guthrie blood test is used to test for:

Approved foods for mother and child with PKU: (select all that apply)

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Normal level of serum phenylalanine:

Mothers with PKU cannot breastfeed.