Practice For Pharmacodynamics Exam 3

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Practice For Pharmacodynamics Exam 3 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is not a cause of migraines?
    • A. 

      A) vasodilation

    • B. 

      B) sterile inflammation

    • C. 

      C) cholinergic reflux

    • D. 

      D) vasoconstriction of anastomoses

  • 2. 
    Which one of the following oral triptans has the longest half-life, but the slowest onset of action?
    • A. 

      A) Sumatriptan

    • B. 

      B) Eletriptan

    • C. 

      C) Naratriptan

    • D. 

      D) Frovatriptan

  • 3. 
    Triptans: These agents are generally well tolerated. Side effects are minimal and are dose-related
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Which is not a contraindication in the use of triptans?
    • A. 

      A) Use of ergotamine, DHE, or other ergot preparations within the prior 24 hours

    • B. 

      B) Use of monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) within the past 2weeks due to increased risk of "serotonin syndrome"

    • C. 

      C) Use of Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

    • D. 

      D) uncontrolled hypertension

  • 5. 
    Increased afferent input to the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vomiting center will have which of the following effects?
    • A. 

      A) decreased serotonin release

    • B. 

      B) increased likelihood of emesis and nausea

    • C. 

      C) Activation of 5HT3 receptors

    • D. 

      D) b,c

    • E. 

      E) a,b

  • 6. 
    A patient is hospitalized for nausea and vomiting. The patient also suffers from Parkinson’s disease and the doctor prescribes ondanesetron ODT. The patients insurance is unable to cover the ODT formulation and a nurse at the doctor’s office says to substitute metoclopramide. Is this substitution appropriate?
    • A. 

      A) Yes, metoclopramide is an alternative anti-emesis drug

    • B. 

      B) No, this drug may aggravate the patients Parkonsonism

    • C. 

      C) No, this drug is indicated for nausea but contraindicated if the patient is vomiting

    • D. 

      D) No, this drug will not have an effect in Parkinson’s patients due their lack of substancia nigra which is involved in metoclopramides mechanism of action

  • 7. 
    Alosetron’s primary indication is IBS with predominant diarrhea in women.  A female  African-American patient taking the medication is now placed on anti-hypertensive therapy consisting of amlodipine and furosemide. Is the addition of these two medications of any potential concern?
    • A. 

      A) No, there is no contraindication listed for these two medications

    • B. 

      B) Contraindication in use of Lotronex is presence of hypertension

    • C. 

      C) Contraindication is increased risk of constipation in addition to the risk already posed by alosetron

    • D. 

      D) b and c

  • 8. 
    Cyproheptadine is being used in a female patient to treat idiopathic hypersalivation after other treatments have failed. The patient is complaining of mild constipation while taking the drug. What could be the cause?
    • A. 

      A) Cyproheptadine has a side effect of increased sweating which may be resulting in dehydration

    • B. 

      B) Cyproheptadine is antagonizing serotonin receptors in the gut

    • C. 

      C) Cyproheptadine decreases thirst resulting is reduced water intake

    • D. 

      D) Blockade of central muscarinic receptors

  • 9. 
    Why may a triptan be preferred over ergotamine?
    • A. 

      A) Triptan’s work quicker

    • B. 

      B) Triptan’s absorb better

    • C. 

      C) Triptan’s do not have to be given with metoclopramide in certain patients to enhance gastric emptying and reduce nausea while using the drug

    • D. 

      D) All of the above

  • 10. 
    1.      What is a potential mechanism of action for methysergide?
    • A. 

      A) Increases release of NE and DA which will cause vasodilation

    • B. 

      B) Inhibits endothelial release of nitric oxide

    • C. 

      C) inhibits release of histamine from mast cells

    • D. 

      D) a and b

    • E. 

      E) b and c

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of the ergotamine derivatives?
    • A. 

      A) painful extremities

    • B. 

      B) peripheral ischemia

    • C. 

      C) nausea and vomiting

    • D. 

      D) continuous paresthesias

  • 12. 
    Cortisone is the active form of hydrocortisone
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    Which one of the following drug or drug classes is not used in the acute treatment of migraine headaches?
    • A. 

      A) Ergot alkaloids

    • B. 

      B) Antidepressants

    • C. 

      C) NSAIDs

    • D. 

      D) Serotonin agonists

    • E. 

      E) Acetaminophen

  • 14. 
    Using your best judgment and knowledge of migraines, which of the following would not be appropriate for migraine prophylaxis?
    • A. 

      A) Beta-blockers

    • B. 

      B) Beta-blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

    • C. 

      C) Anticonvulsants

    • D. 

      D) Calcium channel blockers

  • 15. 
    Triptans are selective agonists at which of the following receptors?
    • A. 

      A) 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D

    • B. 

      B) Dopamine

    • C. 

      C) Norepinephrine

    • D. 

      D) Cholinergic

  • 16. 
    Nausea is the most common gastrointestinal symptom that accompanies migraine attack
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    Migraine pain is believed to result from activity in which one of the following systems?
    • A. 

      A) Trigeminovascular

    • B. 

      B) Perivascular

    • C. 

      C) Extravascular

    • D. 

      D) Tuberofundibular

  • 18. 
    Cortisol deficiency results in impaired renal function (GFR is reduced) and ADH release increases
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Which of the following drugs is not a steroidogenic inhibitor?
    • A. 

      A) cyproheptadine

    • B. 

      B) mitotane

    • C. 

      C) ketoconazole

    • D. 

      D) aminoglutethimide

  • 20. 
    Glucocorticoids regulate their own secretion by inhibiting the pituitary secretion of:
    • A. 

      A) adrenocorticotropic hormone

    • B. 

      B) corticotropin-releasing hormone

    • C. 

      C) melanocyte-stimulating hormone

    • D. 

      D) renin

  • 21. 
     Aldosterone is synthesized in the:
    • A. 

      A) zona glomerulosa

    • B. 

      B) zona fasciculate

    • C. 

      C) zona reticularis

    • D. 

      D) medulla

  • 22. 
     The majority of cases of ACTH-dependent Cushing’s syndrome are caused by
    • A. 

      A) adrenal carcinoma

    • B. 

      B) primary pigmented nodular adrenal disease

    • C. 

      C) adrenal adenoma

    • D. 

      D) pituitary adenoma

  • 23. 
    The treatment of choice for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia-dependent aldosteronism is:
    • A. 

      A) Spironolactone

    • B. 

      B) Mifepristone

    • C. 

      C) Angiotensin receptor blockers

    • D. 

      D) Partial adrenalectomy

  • 24. 
    For a patient taking a methylprednisone dose regimen as part of an acute respiratory infection, which of the following seems most suitable? (Knowledge of dosing is not needed)
    • A. 

      A) 5 tablets today OTD

    • B. 

      C) 1 tablet every day for 5 days

    • C. 

      B) 5 tablets today UD, 4 tablets on 2nd day UD, 4 tablets on 3rd day UD, 3 tablets on 4th day UD, 2 tablets on 5th day as directed, and 1 tablet on the 6th day UD (UD = as directed)

    • D. 

      D) None of the above is appropriate

  • 25. 
    Patients who will be taking glucocorticoids long term should be warned about all of the following, except:
    • A. 

      A) Weight gain and insomnia often occur when starting treatment

    • B. 

      B) Chronic use can lead to osteoporosis and glaucoma for which they must be monitored.

    • C. 

      C) Patients should wear medical identification stating they are on chronic steroid therapy.

    • D. 

      D) Patients may need to decrease dose during times of increased stress.

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