Practice For Pharmacodynamics Exam 3

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  • 1/38 Questions

    Which of the following is not a cause of migraines?

    • A) vasodilation
    • B) sterile inflammation
    • C) cholinergic reflux
    • D) vasoconstriction of anastomoses
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'Practice for Pharmacodynamics Exam 3' assesses knowledge on migraine causes, triptan properties, contraindications, and appropriate medication substitutions. It is crucial for students and professionals in medicine, particularly those focusing on pharmacodynamics.

Practice For Pharmacodynamics Exam 3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which one of the following oral triptans has the longest half-life, but the slowest onset of action?

    • A) Sumatriptan

    • B) Eletriptan

    • C) Naratriptan

    • D) Frovatriptan

    Correct Answer
    A. D) Frovatriptan
    Explanation
    Frovatriptan has the longest half-life among the given oral triptans, which means it stays in the body for a longer duration. However, it has the slowest onset of action, meaning it takes a longer time to start working compared to the other triptans. This can be beneficial for individuals who experience prolonged or recurring migraine attacks, as it provides a longer-lasting effect.

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  • 3. 

    Triptans: These agents are generally well tolerated. Side effects are minimal and are dose-related

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Triptans are a class of medications commonly used to treat migraines. They are known to be generally well tolerated by most individuals. The side effects associated with triptans are typically minimal and are often related to the dosage of the medication. This means that higher doses may increase the likelihood of experiencing side effects. Therefore, the statement "Triptans: These agents are generally well tolerated. Side effects are minimal and are dose-related" is true.

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  • 4. 

    Which is not a contraindication in the use of triptans?

    • A) Use of ergotamine, DHE, or other ergot preparations within the prior 24 hours

    • B) Use of monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) within the past 2weeks due to increased risk of "serotonin syndrome"

    • C) Use of Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

    • D) uncontrolled hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. C) Use of Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
  • 5. 

    Increased afferent input to the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vomiting center will have which of the following effects?

    • A) decreased serotonin release

    • B) increased likelihood of emesis and nausea

    • C) Activation of 5HT3 receptors

    • D) b,c

    • E) a,b

    Correct Answer
    A. D) b,c
    Explanation
    Increased afferent input to the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vomiting center can have two effects: increased likelihood of emesis and nausea, and activation of 5HT3 receptors. This suggests that both options b) and c) are correct. Option a) is incorrect because increased afferent input would not lead to decreased serotonin release. Therefore, the correct answer is d) b,c.

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  • 6. 

    A patient is hospitalized for nausea and vomiting. The patient also suffers from Parkinson’s disease and the doctor prescribes ondanesetron ODT. The patients insurance is unable to cover the ODT formulation and a nurse at the doctor’s office says to substitute metoclopramide. Is this substitution appropriate?

    • A) Yes, metoclopramide is an alternative anti-emesis drug

    • B) No, this drug may aggravate the patients Parkonsonism

    • C) No, this drug is indicated for nausea but contraindicated if the patient is vomiting

    • D) No, this drug will not have an effect in Parkinson’s patients due their lack of substancia nigra which is involved in metoclopramides mechanism of action

    Correct Answer
    A. B) No, this drug may aggravate the patients Parkonsonism
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b) No, this drug may aggravate the patient's Parkinsonism. Metoclopramide is a medication commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting, but it can have adverse effects on patients with Parkinson's disease. It works by blocking dopamine receptors, which can worsen the symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with movement. Therefore, substituting metoclopramide for ondanesetron ODT would not be appropriate in this case.

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  • 7. 

    Alosetron’s primary indication is IBS with predominant diarrhea in women.  A female  African-American patient taking the medication is now placed on anti-hypertensive therapy consisting of amlodipine and furosemide. Is the addition of these two medications of any potential concern?

    • A) No, there is no contraindication listed for these two medications

    • B) Contraindication in use of Lotronex is presence of hypertension

    • C) Contraindication is increased risk of constipation in addition to the risk already posed by alosetron

    • D) b and c

    Correct Answer
    A. C) Contraindication is increased risk of constipation in addition to the risk already posed by alosetron
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c) Contraindication is increased risk of constipation in addition to the risk already posed by alosetron. This means that the addition of amlodipine and furosemide, which can also cause constipation, may further increase the risk of constipation for the patient.

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  • 8. 

    Cyproheptadine is being used in a female patient to treat idiopathic hypersalivation after other treatments have failed. The patient is complaining of mild constipation while taking the drug. What could be the cause?

    • A) Cyproheptadine has a side effect of increased sweating which may be resulting in dehydration

    • B) Cyproheptadine is antagonizing serotonin receptors in the gut

    • C) Cyproheptadine decreases thirst resulting is reduced water intake

    • D) Blockade of central muscarinic receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. B) Cyproheptadine is antagonizing serotonin receptors in the gut
    Explanation
    Cyproheptadine is an antihistamine that also has serotonin antagonist properties. Serotonin plays a role in regulating bowel movements, and antagonizing serotonin receptors in the gut can lead to constipation. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient's mild constipation while taking cyproheptadine is the drug's ability to antagonize serotonin receptors in the gut.

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  • 9. 

    Why may a triptan be preferred over ergotamine?

    • A) Triptan’s work quicker

    • B) Triptan’s absorb better

    • C) Triptan’s do not have to be given with metoclopramide in certain patients to enhance gastric emptying and reduce nausea while using the drug

    • D) All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Triptan’s work quicker
    Explanation
    A triptan may be preferred over ergotamine because it works quicker. Ergotamine is a medication used to treat migraines and cluster headaches, but it has a slower onset of action compared to triptans. Triptans are specifically designed to target serotonin receptors in the brain, which helps to alleviate migraine symptoms. They are known to provide faster relief and are generally more effective in treating migraines. Therefore, if a patient needs immediate relief from migraine symptoms, a triptan would be a better choice over ergotamine.

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  • 10. 

    1.      What is a potential mechanism of action for methysergide?

    • A) Increases release of NE and DA which will cause vasodilation

    • B) Inhibits endothelial release of nitric oxide

    • C) inhibits release of histamine from mast cells

    • D) a and b

    • E) b and c

    Correct Answer
    A. E) b and c
    Explanation
    Methysergide is a medication that is commonly used for the prevention of migraines. The potential mechanism of action for methysergide includes inhibiting the endothelial release of nitric oxide, as well as inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells. Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator, so inhibiting its release can help prevent the dilation of blood vessels that occurs during a migraine. Histamine is also involved in the inflammatory response and can contribute to migraines, so inhibiting its release can provide additional relief. Therefore, the correct answer is e) b and c.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of the ergotamine derivatives?

    • A) painful extremities

    • B) peripheral ischemia

    • C) nausea and vomiting

    • D) continuous paresthesias

    Correct Answer
    A. C) nausea and vomiting
    Explanation
    The most common adverse effect of ergotamine derivatives is nausea and vomiting. Ergotamine derivatives are medications used to treat migraines and cluster headaches. These drugs work by constricting blood vessels in the brain, which can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting. While painful extremities, peripheral ischemia, and continuous paresthesias are possible adverse effects of ergotamine derivatives, they are less common compared to nausea and vomiting.

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  • 12. 

    Cortisone is the active form of hydrocortisone

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Cortisone is not the active form of hydrocortisone. While both cortisone and hydrocortisone are corticosteroids, they have different chemical structures. Hydrocortisone is the active form of cortisone, and it is the primary glucocorticoid hormone produced by the adrenal glands. Cortisone, on the other hand, is a prodrug that gets converted into hydrocortisone in the body. Therefore, the statement that cortisone is the active form of hydrocortisone is false.

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  • 13. 

    Which one of the following drug or drug classes is not used in the acute treatment of migraine headaches?

    • A) Ergot alkaloids

    • B) Antidepressants

    • C) NSAIDs

    • D) Serotonin agonists

    • E) Acetaminophen

    Correct Answer
    A. B) Antidepressants
    Explanation
    Antidepressants are not typically used in the acute treatment of migraine headaches. While they may be prescribed for the prevention of migraines, they are not considered a first-line treatment for the immediate relief of migraine symptoms. Other options such as ergot alkaloids, NSAIDs, serotonin agonists, and acetaminophen are commonly used for acute migraine treatment.

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  • 14. 

    Using your best judgment and knowledge of migraines, which of the following would not be appropriate for migraine prophylaxis?

    • A) Beta-blockers

    • B) Beta-blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

    • C) Anticonvulsants

    • D) Calcium channel blockers

    Correct Answer
    A. B) Beta-blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
    Explanation
    Beta-blockers are commonly used for migraine prophylaxis due to their ability to reduce the frequency and severity of migraines. However, beta-blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) may not be appropriate for migraine prophylaxis. ISA beta-blockers have partial agonist activity, meaning they partially stimulate beta receptors while also blocking them. This partial stimulation can potentially worsen migraines or cause other adverse effects. Therefore, it is best to avoid beta-blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity for migraine prophylaxis.

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  • 15. 

    Triptans are selective agonists at which of the following receptors?

    • A) 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D

    • B) Dopamine

    • C) Norepinephrine

    • D) Cholinergic

    Correct Answer
    A. A) 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D
    Explanation
    Triptans are selective agonists at 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors. This means that they specifically bind and activate these receptors in the brain. By doing so, triptans help to constrict blood vessels and reduce inflammation, which can relieve symptoms of migraines and cluster headaches. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and cholinergic receptors are not the primary targets of triptans, making options b), c), and d) incorrect.

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  • 16. 

    Nausea is the most common gastrointestinal symptom that accompanies migraine attack

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Nausea is a common symptom that often occurs during a migraine attack. Many individuals who experience migraines also report feeling nauseous or even vomiting during an episode. This gastrointestinal symptom is believed to be caused by the activation of certain brain pathways that control both pain and nausea. Therefore, it is accurate to say that nausea is the most common gastrointestinal symptom associated with migraines.

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  • 17. 

    Migraine pain is believed to result from activity in which one of the following systems?

    • A) Trigeminovascular

    • B) Perivascular

    • C) Extravascular

    • D) Tuberofundibular

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Trigeminovascular
    Explanation
    Migraine pain is believed to result from activity in the trigeminovascular system. This system involves the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the head and face to the brain. When this system becomes activated, it can lead to the release of certain chemicals that cause inflammation and pain in the blood vessels surrounding the brain. This activation is thought to be a key factor in the development of migraine pain.

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  • 18. 

    Cortisol deficiency results in impaired renal function (GFR is reduced) and ADH release increases

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cortisol deficiency can lead to impaired renal function because cortisol plays a role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance. Without enough cortisol, the kidneys may not be able to properly filter waste products from the blood, resulting in reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Additionally, cortisol deficiency can cause an increase in the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH helps regulate water balance in the body by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. Therefore, with cortisol deficiency, ADH release increases, further affecting renal function.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following drugs is not a steroidogenic inhibitor?

    • A) cyproheptadine

    • B) mitotane

    • C) ketoconazole

    • D) aminoglutethimide

    Correct Answer
    A. A) cyproheptadine
    Explanation
    Cyproheptadine is not a steroidogenic inhibitor because it is an antihistamine and serotonin antagonist. It is commonly used to treat allergies and has no direct effect on steroid hormone production. On the other hand, mitotane, ketoconazole, and aminoglutethimide are all known steroidogenic inhibitors. Mitotane is used to treat adrenal cancer by inhibiting steroid synthesis. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that also inhibits steroid synthesis. Aminoglutethimide is an aromatase inhibitor that blocks the conversion of androgens to estrogens.

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  • 20. 

    Glucocorticoids regulate their own secretion by inhibiting the pituitary secretion of:

    • A) adrenocorticotropic hormone

    • B) corticotropin-releasing hormone

    • C) melanocyte-stimulating hormone

    • D) renin

    Correct Answer
    A. A) adrenocorticotropic hormone
    Explanation
    Glucocorticoids are a type of steroid hormone that are produced and secreted by the adrenal glands. They play a role in regulating various physiological processes in the body, including the immune response and metabolism. In order to maintain homeostasis, the secretion of glucocorticoids needs to be tightly regulated. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a hormone that is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal glands. Therefore, by inhibiting the secretion of ACTH, glucocorticoids can regulate their own secretion.

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  • 21. 

     Aldosterone is synthesized in the:

    • A) zona glomerulosa

    • B) zona fasciculate

    • C) zona reticularis

    • D) medulla

    Correct Answer
    A. A) zona glomerulosa
    Explanation
    Aldosterone is synthesized in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. This region of the adrenal cortex is responsible for producing mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone. Aldosterone plays a crucial role in regulating electrolyte and fluid balance in the body. It acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water and promote the excretion of potassium. This helps to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte levels within a normal range.

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  • 22. 

     The majority of cases of ACTH-dependent Cushing’s syndrome are caused by

    • A) adrenal carcinoma

    • B) primary pigmented nodular adrenal disease

    • C) adrenal adenoma

    • D) pituitary adenoma

    Correct Answer
    A. D) pituitary adenoma
    Explanation
    The majority of cases of ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome are caused by pituitary adenoma. This is because pituitary adenomas can produce excessive amounts of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. The excess cortisol leads to the symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. Adrenal carcinoma, primary pigmented nodular adrenal disease, and adrenal adenoma can also cause Cushing's syndrome, but they are less common causes compared to pituitary adenomas.

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  • 23. 

    The treatment of choice for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia-dependent aldosteronism is:

    • A) Spironolactone

    • B) Mifepristone

    • C) Angiotensin receptor blockers

    • D) Partial adrenalectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. A) Spironolactone
    Explanation
    Spironolactone is the treatment of choice for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia-dependent aldosteronism. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of aldosterone by both adrenal glands, leading to excessive salt and water retention and high blood pressure. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that blocks the effects of aldosterone, helping to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure. It is commonly used to treat this condition and has been shown to be effective in normalizing blood pressure and improving symptoms in patients with bilateral adrenal hyperplasia-dependent aldosteronism.

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  • 24. 

    For a patient taking a methylprednisone dose regimen as part of an acute respiratory infection, which of the following seems most suitable? (Knowledge of dosing is not needed)

    • A) 5 tablets today OTD

    • C) 1 tablet every day for 5 days

    • B) 5 tablets today UD, 4 tablets on 2nd day UD, 4 tablets on 3rd day UD, 3 tablets on 4th day UD, 2 tablets on 5th day as directed, and 1 tablet on the 6th day UD (UD = as directed)

    • D) None of the above is appropriate

    Correct Answer
    A. B) 5 tablets today UD, 4 tablets on 2nd day UD, 4 tablets on 3rd day UD, 3 tablets on 4th day UD, 2 tablets on 5th day as directed, and 1 tablet on the 6th day UD (UD = as directed)
    Explanation
    The most suitable option is b) because it provides a specific dosing regimen over a period of 6 days, gradually decreasing the number of tablets each day. This allows for a controlled tapering of the medication, which is important when taking methylprednisone to minimize potential side effects and prevent abrupt discontinuation of the medication. The "as directed" instruction on the 5th and 6th day allows for flexibility in dosing based on the patient's condition.

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  • 25. 

    Patients who will be taking glucocorticoids long term should be warned about all of the following, except:

    • A) Weight gain and insomnia often occur when starting treatment

    • B) Chronic use can lead to osteoporosis and glaucoma for which they must be monitored.

    • C) Patients should wear medical identification stating they are on chronic steroid therapy.

    • D) Patients may need to decrease dose during times of increased stress.

    Correct Answer
    A. D) Patients may need to decrease dose during times of increased stress.
    Explanation
    Patients who will be taking glucocorticoids long term should be warned about weight gain and insomnia often occurring when starting treatment, chronic use leading to osteoporosis and glaucoma for which they must be monitored, and the importance of wearing medical identification stating they are on chronic steroid therapy. However, they do not need to decrease the dose during times of increased stress.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following does not contribute to membrane inducing vasodilation?

    • A) CGRP

    • B) NK-A

    • C) bradykinin

    • D) Substance P

    • E) Actually, all of the above do cause vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    A. E) Actually, all of the above do cause vasodilation
    Explanation
    All of the substances mentioned in options a) to d) - CGRP, NK-A, bradykinin, and Substance P - contribute to membrane inducing vasodilation. This means that they all have the ability to cause the widening of blood vessels. Therefore, option e) stating that "all of the above do cause vasodilation" is the correct answer.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following regarding gastrointestinal motility is true?

    • Excitatory ACh only stimulates M3 and M2 receptors

    • Serotonin acting at presynaptic 5-HT4 receptors increases the release of ACh and CGRP from submucosal IPANs

    • Erythromycin acts as an antagonist at motilin receptors

    • All o fthe above are actually true

    Correct Answer
    A. Serotonin acting at presynaptic 5-HT4 receptors increases the release of ACh and CGRP from submucosal IPANs
    Explanation
    Serotonin acts as an agonist at presynaptic 5-HT4 receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of acetylcholine (ACh) and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) from submucosal intrinsic primary afferent neurons (IPANs). This increase in ACh and CGRP release enhances gastrointestinal motility. Therefore, the statement that serotonin acting at presynaptic 5-HT4 receptors increases the release of ACh and CGRP from submucosal IPANs is true.

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  • 28. 

    In the occipital lobe the orthodromic impulse results in an antidromic impulse that moves up tot he dura mater where it activates the release of vasodilating neuropeptides (CGRP, substance P,NKA) and from the vessels bradykinin and albumin will be released resulting in inflammation

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In the occipital lobe, the orthodromic impulse refers to a nerve impulse that travels in the normal direction along a neuron. In this case, the orthodromic impulse results in an antidromic impulse, which means that the nerve impulse travels in the opposite direction. This antidromic impulse moves up to the dura mater, a thick membrane that surrounds the brain, where it activates the release of vasodilating neuropeptides such as CGRP, substance P, and NKA. Additionally, the release of bradykinin and albumin from the blood vessels occurs, leading to inflammation. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 29. 

    Triptans can cause tightness and pressure in the chest as a side effect

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Triptans are a class of medications commonly used to treat migraines. While they are effective in relieving migraine symptoms, one of the potential side effects is chest tightness and pressure. This occurs because triptans can cause constriction of blood vessels, including those in the chest. This side effect is usually temporary and not dangerous, but it is important to be aware of it and consult a healthcare professional if it occurs. Therefore, the statement "Triptans can cause tightness and pressure in the chest as a side effect" is true.

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  • 30. 

    One may treat hypomotility effectively with a cholinomimetic agent such as bethanecol which activates PNS to increase gastric motility

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is incorrect. Hypomotility refers to decreased or slowed movement in the gastrointestinal tract. While cholinomimetic agents like bethanecol can increase gastric motility, they are not the primary treatment for hypomotility. Other medications like prokinetic agents (e.g., metoclopramide) or laxatives may be more commonly used to treat hypomotility. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following regarding metoclopramide is false?

    • It is a benzamide D2 receptor antagonist that enhances the motility of smooth muscle from the esophagus through the proximal small intestine

    • Facilitates gastric emptying from teh duodenum to the ileocecal valve

    • Increases receptive relaxation in the upper stomach and decreases antral contractions

    • Reduces reflux from the duodenum and the stomach into the esophagus

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases receptive relaxation in the upper stomach and decreases antral contractions
    Explanation
    Metoclopramide is a benzamide D2 receptor antagonist that enhances the motility of smooth muscle from the esophagus through the proximal small intestine. It also facilitates gastric emptying from the duodenum to the ileocecal valve and reduces reflux from the duodenum and the stomach into the esophagus. However, it does not increase receptive relaxation in the upper stomach and decrease antral contractions.

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  • 32. 

    Extrapyramidal syndromes can occur at high doses of metoclopramide

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Extrapyramidal syndromes are movement disorders that can occur as a side effect of certain medications, including metoclopramide. These syndromes are characterized by symptoms such as tremors, muscle stiffness, and abnormal body movements. At high doses, metoclopramide can block dopamine receptors in the brain, leading to the development of extrapyramidal syndromes. Therefore, the statement "Extrapyramidal syndromes can occur at high doses of metoclopramide" is true.

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  • 33. 

    Metoclopramide may be used in pregnancy

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Metoclopramide, a medication used to treat nausea and vomiting, can be used in pregnancy. It is considered safe for use during pregnancy and has been used for many years without any significant adverse effects on the developing fetus. Metoclopramide helps to relieve symptoms of nausea and vomiting, which are common discomforts experienced by pregnant women. It works by increasing the movement of the stomach and intestines, helping to reduce nausea and improve digestion. However, it is always important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication during pregnancy.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not shared by both domperidone and metoclopramide?

    • Hyperprolactemia

    • Extrapyramidal effects

    • Anti-emetic activity

    • Enhances gastric motility

    Correct Answer
    A. Extrapyramidal effects
    Explanation
    Both domperidone and metoclopramide are medications used to treat gastrointestinal disorders. They both have anti-emetic activity, meaning they help to prevent nausea and vomiting. They also enhance gastric motility, which means they help to improve the movement of food through the digestive system. However, extrapyramidal effects are not shared by both medications. Extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders that can occur as a side effect of certain medications, including metoclopramide. Domperidone, on the other hand, does not commonly cause extrapyramidal effects.

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  • 35. 

    Like metoclopramide, the GI actions of cisapride are blocked by atropine

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cisapride, like metoclopramide, is a medication that affects the gastrointestinal (GI) system. Atropine is a medication that blocks certain actions in the body, including some GI actions. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that the GI actions of cisapride, similar to metoclopramide, would also be blocked by atropine. Hence, the statement is true.

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  • 36. 

     Cisapride does not block D2 receptors and therefore does not influencethe concentration of prolactin in the plasma or cause extrapyramidalsymptoms

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cisapride is a medication used to treat gastrointestinal disorders, particularly gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). It acts by increasing the movement of the stomach and intestines. Unlike other medications that block dopamine D2 receptors, cisapride does not have any effect on these receptors. As a result, it does not influence the concentration of prolactin in the plasma or cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are movement disorders commonly associated with dopamine blockade. Therefore, the statement that cisapride does not block D2 receptors and does not affect prolactin concentration or cause extrapyramidal symptoms is true.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is false regarding lubiprostone?

    • Increases intestinal fluid by activating and opening specific potassium channels in the luminal cells of the intestines

    • The drug is a bicyclic fatty acid, prostaglandin El (PGE1) derivative

    • Alters stool consistency and promotes regular bowel movements, without altering serum electrolyte concentrations or producing tolerance

    • The action of lubiprostone is observed only the apical (luminal) side of the intestinal epithelium

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases intestinal fluid by activating and opening specific potassium channels in the luminal cells of the intestines
    Explanation
    Lubiprostone does not increase intestinal fluid by activating and opening specific potassium channels in the luminal cells of the intestines. This statement is false because lubiprostone actually increases intestinal fluid secretion by activating chloride channels in the intestinal epithelium, leading to increased fluid in the intestines.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following regarding linaclotide is false?

    • It is a guanylate cyclase-C receptor agonist

    • Causes no major side effects other than increased incidence of stomach pain and flatulence

    • Treats chronic idiopathic constipation or irritable bowel syndrome with constipation

    • Not recommended for use in patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Causes no major side effects other than increased incidence of stomach pain and flatulence
    Explanation
    Linaclotide is a guanylate cyclase-C receptor agonist that is used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation or irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. However, the statement that it causes no major side effects other than increased incidence of stomach pain and flatulence is false. Linaclotide can also cause diarrhea, headache, nausea, and abdominal distension. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that it has no major side effects other than stomach pain and flatulence.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 22, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Manueljdelrio

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