Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodydamics W/Exp Part 2

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Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodydamics W/Exp Part 2 - Quiz

Did you just tackle it, the Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodynamics W/exp Part 1 quiz the other day and feel like you are ready for part two? I hope that you have been studying as this Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodydamics W/exp Part 2 exam will not be that easy for you. Are you ready? Have at it then and good luck in the exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is the most likely post receptor mechanism of G-protein coupled receptors?

    • A.

      Regulation of the synthesis of second messengers

    • B.

      Regulation of gene transcription

    • C.

      Opening of ligand-gated chloride channels

    • D.

      Opening of ligand-gated Na+ channels

    • E.

      Inactivation of G-protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulation of the synthesis of second messengers
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the main post receptor mechanism of G-protein coupled
    receptors.
    Answer: A
    The postreceptor mechanism of G-protein coupled receptors (also called metabotropic
    receptors) involves the regulation of an effector element, usually an enzyme or an ion channel.
    The enzyme in turn regulates the synthesis of a second messenger. According to the receptor
    involved and the G-protein that is activated, the intracellular concentration of the second
    messenger can be increased or decreased. B) Regulation of gene transcription follows the
    activation of intracellular receptors or Janus-kinase linked receptors, not of G-protein coupled
    receptors.
    C) Opening of ligand-gated chloride channels is brought about by the activation of GABA-A or
    glycine receptors. These receptors are ionotropic, not metabotropic.
    D) Opening of ligand -gated Na+ channels is brought about by nicotinic, NMDA, and AMPA
    receptors. These receptors are ionotropic, not metabotropic.
    E) Activation of G-protein coupled receptors leads in turn to activation, not inactivation, of Gprotein

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  • 2. 

    Acetylcholine is able to bind to nicotinic or muscarinic receptors. Which of the following pairs of statements correctly defines the nature of these receptors?

    • A.

      Nicotinic: ionotropic. Muscarinic: ionotropic

    • B.

      Nicotinic: ionotropic. Muscarinic: metabotropic

    • C.

      Nicotinic: metabotropic: Muscarinic: ionotropic

    • D.

      Nicotinic: metabotropic: Muscarinic: metabotropic

    Correct Answer
    B. Nicotinic: ionotropic. Muscarinic: metabotropic
    Explanation
    Learning objective: define the terms :ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.
    Answer: B
    Nicotinic cholinergic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels. Binding of an agonist to these
    receptors causes a conformational change that opens the channel, allowing inward movement of
    positively charged ions (mainly Na+). Therefore nicotinic receptors are called ionotropic.
    All muscarinic cholinergic receptors are G-protein coupled, and are called metabotropic.
    A, C, D) (see explanation above)

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  • 3. 

    A 45-year-old woman recently diagnosed with urinary tract infection, started a therapy with Bactrim (a trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination). Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are bacteriostatic drugs, when given alone. However a bactericidal effect is obtained when the two drugs are given in combination. Which of the following terms best defines this drug interaction?

    • A.

      Additive effect

    • B.

      Potentiation

    • C.

      Synergism

    • D.

      Reverse tolerance

    • E.

      Sensitization

    Correct Answer
    C. Synergism
    Explanation
    Learning objective: define the term “drug synergism”.
    Answer: C
    A drug interaction is defined synergism when the response elicited by combined drugs is
    greater than the combined responses of the individual drugs. In other words the response
    elicited by the combined drugs is more than simply additive. In the present case the effects of
    the individual drugs are bacteriostatic, whereas the effect of the combined drugs is more than
    an additive bacteriostatic effect (a bactericidal effect is greater than a bacteriostatic effect). The
    interaction is therefore defined synergism.
    A) Additive effect occurs when the response elicited by combined drugs is equal to the
    combined responses of the individual drugs.
    B) Potentiation occurs when a drug enhances the effect of another drug, but is devoid of that
    effect when given alone.
    D, E) These terms refer to a drug effect which increases in time, when the drug is chronically
    given.

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  • 4. 

    Barbiturates are able to induce many CYP isozymes, included those involved in barbiturate metabolism. During chronic treatment with barbiturates the initial response to a fixed dose may decrease with time. Which of the following terms best explains this decrease?

    • A.

      Pharmacodynamic tolerance

    • B.

      Tachyphylaxis

    • C.

      Pharmacokinetic tolerance

    • D.

      Crossed tolerance

    • E.

      Sensitization

    Correct Answer
    C. Pharmacokinetic tolerance
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the mechanism of pharmacokinetic tolerance.
    Answer: C
    If a drug can induce its own metabolism tolerance will occur, since the amount of available drug
    decreases in time. This tolerance is called pharmacokinetic because it results from a
    pharmacokinetic mechanism.
    A) Tolerance is called pharmacodynamic when the drug effect decreases in time, but the
    concentration of the drug at the site of action remains the same.
    B) Tachyphylaxis is the name for a tolerance that develops very rapidly, in a matter of hours.
    D) Tolerance is called crossed when the exposure to a drug leads to tolerance to it and also to
    other drugs with similar chemical structure and/or similar pharmacological effects.
    E) Sensitization (also called reverse tolerance) occurs when the response increases with the
    repetition of the same dose of a drug.

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  • 5. 

    17-year-old boy drank increasing amount of alcohol when attending parties. He noticed that he was able to better tolerate alcohol effects and asked his physician the reason for this. The physician said that most likely pharmacodynamic tolerance occurred. Which of the following actions most likely mediated this tolerance?

    • A.

      Decreased concentration of the drug at the site of action

    • B.

      Decreased bioavailability of the drug

    • C.

      Homeostatic adaptive changes that counteract the drug effect

    • D.

      Increased biotransformation of the drug

    • E.

      Increased number of drug receptors

    Correct Answer
    C. Homeostatic adaptive changes that counteract the drug effect
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the mechanism s of pharmacodynamic tolerance.
    Answer: C
    Tolerance can be defined as a state of decreased responsiveness to the action of a drug which
    results from a prior exposure to that drug or to a related drug. Drug tolerance can involve a
    decreased concentration of the drug at the site of action, due mainly to an increased
    biotransformation of the drug (pharmacokinetic tolerance), or it can occur even when the
    concentration of the drug at the site of action is not modified (pharmacodynamic tolerance). In
    this latter case mechanisms can be either a decreased number of receptors (the most common),
    a change in the postreceptor mechanisms, or a homeostatic adaptive changes that counteract
    the drug effect.
    A, B, D) These mechanisms can explain the pharmacokinetic, not the pharmacodynamic
    tolerance.
    E) A decreased, not increased, number of receptors can explain a pharmacodynamic tolerance.

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  • 6. 

    A 63-year-old patient with a terminal cancer has been suffering from continuous pain and started a treatment with morphine. After few days of treatment the initial dose was no longer effective and the physician gradually increased the dose, knowing that pharmacodynamic tolerance most likely occurred. Which of the following statements best explains the mechanism of tolerance in this patient?

    • A.

      Accelerated morphine metabolism

    • B.

      Increased affinity of receptors to morphine

    • C.

      Decreased binding of morphine to plasma proteins

    • D.

      Decreased morphine receptor density

    • E.

      Decreased concentration of morphine in the brain

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased morphine receptor density
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the mechanisms of pharmacodynamic tolerance.
    Answer: D
    The most common mechanism of pharmacodynamic tolerance is a receptor down-regulation,
    that is a decrease receptor density. Other mechanisms can be homeostatic adaptive changes of
    the organism that counteract the drug effect.
    A) Tolerance due to increased metabolism of the drug is called pharmacokinetic tolerance.
    B, C) These events would have increased, not decreased, the effects of morphine.
    E) By definition pharmacodynamic tolerance refers to a decrease in time of the effect of a drug
    whose concentration at the site of action remains the same

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  • 7. 

    56-year-old woman complained to her physician that the sedative effect of the drug she was taking had increased substantially. The woman was used to take a diazepam tablet daily to allay her nervousness and anxiety. Few day ago she started taking cimetidine because of an annoying heartburn. Cimetidine is an inhibitor of the cytochrome p450 system in the liver. Which of the following terms best defines this cimetidine diazepam interaction?

    • A.

      Additive effect

    • B.

      Potentiation

    • C.

      Synergism

    • D.

      Sensitization

    • E.

      Reverse tolerance

    Correct Answer
    B. Potentiation
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the term “drug potentiation”.
    Answer: B
    Potentiation occurs when a drug enhances the effect of another drug, but is devoid of that effect
    when given alone. Cimetidine is devoid of sedative effects but can increase the sedative effect
    of diazepam by inhibiting diazepam metabolism in the liver.
    A) Additive effect occurs when the response elicited by combined drugs is equal to the
    combined responses of the individual drugs.
    C) Synergism occurs when the response elicited by combined drugs is greater than the
    combined responses of the individual drugs.
    D, E) These terms refer to a drug effect which increases in time, when the drug is chronically
    given.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    A 57-year-old man, who was in the hospital after a surgical operation, complained from a severe abdominal pain and the physician decided to start an analgesic treatment with an  opioid. The drugs he was considering were morphine (10 mg IM) and buprenorphine (0.3mg IM). Morphine is a full agonist at opioid mu receptors whereas buprenorphine is a partial agonist at the same receptors. The above mentioned doses of the two drugs are equieffective doses. Which of the following pairs of statements correctly defines the potency and efficacy of morphine and buprenorphine?

    • A.

      Morphine most potent. Buprenorphine most effective

    • B.

      Morphine most potent. Buprenorphine least effective

    • C.

      Morphine least potent. Buprenorphine most effective

    • D.

      Morphine least potent. Buprenorphine least effective

    Correct Answer
    D. Morphine least potent. Buprenorphine least effective
    Explanation
    Learning objective: identify the more potent between two drugs, given sufficient data.
    Answer: D
    Potency of a drug refers to the dose of that drug needed to obtain a given effect. Since 10 mg of
    morphine are needed to get an analgesic effect equal to that given by 0.3 mg of buprenorphine,
    morphine is less potent than buprenorphine.
    Efficacy refer to the maximal effect produced by a drug. By definition partial agonists have a
    maximal efficacy lower than that of full agonists. Since morphine is a full agonist and
    buprenorphine a partial agonist at the same receptor, buprenorphine is less effective than
    morphine.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    65 year-old woman took 500 mg of acetaminophen to relieve an annoying headache. This dose is therapeutically effective for about 4 hours, and the half-life of acetaminophen is about 2 hours. How many hours would the medication be effective if the woman doubled the dose?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      12

    • E.

      16

    • F.

      18

    Correct Answer
    B. 6
    Explanation
    Learning objective: calculate the duration of action of a drug, given sufficient data.
    Answer: B
    The given dose of acetaminophen is effective after 2 half-lives. Knowing that the plasma
    concentration (Cp) of the drug becomes one half after each t½, it can be concluded that a Cp
    corresponding to 125 mg of the drug is the minimum effective concentration. If a 1000 mg dose
    is given, this minimum effective concentration will be reached after 3 t½ (Cp corresponding to
    500 mg after 1 t½, corresponding to 250 after 2 t½, corresponding to 125 mg after 3 t½.). Since
    every medication is effective in the body as long as the Cp is higher than, or equal to, the
    minimum effective concentration, it can be concluded that a dose of 1000 mg will be effective
    for approximately 6 hours.
    A, C, D, E, F) (see explanation above)

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  • 10. 

    A clinical trial was conducted by administering PO a new analgesic drug to a group of patients suffering from arthritic pain. One hour after administration, the patients were questioned about pain relief and a sample of blood was collected from each patient to measure drug plasma levels. Pain relief generally correlated well with plasma levels but 3 patients, whose plasma levels were equal to zero, reported good pain relief. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the analgesic effect in those patients?

    • A.

      High bioavailability of the drug

    • B.

      Small volume of distribution of the drug

    • C.

      Very low clearance of the drug

    • D.

      Poor patient compliance

    • E.

      Placebo effect

    Correct Answer
    E. Placebo effect
    Explanation
    Learning objective: describe the placebo effect of a drug.
    Answer: E
    When a plasma level of a drug administered one hour previously is equal to zero, a
    pharmacological effect of the drug is exceedingly unlikely. Therefore the pain relief must be due
    to an effect which is independent from the pharmacological action of the drug and operates
    through psychological mechanisms, i.e. a placebo effect. Placebo effects are in fact quite
    common in therapy and
    A, B, C) All these factors would have caused significant plasma levels of the drug.
    D) A poor patient compliance cannot explain a good pharmacological effect.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    A 55-year-old man has been recently diagnosed with a gastric ulcer and an appropriate therapy has been prescribed. The therapy includes antacids ‘as needed’, in order to antagonize the effects of the hydrochloric acid secreted by gastric parietal cells. Which of the following terms best defines this acid-antacid antagonism?

    • A.

      Competitive

    • B.

      Irreversible

    • C.

      Functional

    • D.

      Chemical

    • E.

      Pharmacokinetic

    Correct Answer
    D. Chemical
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explains the chemical antagonism between two drugs.
    Answer: D
    Antacid drugs are weak bases that react chemically with gastric hydrochloric acid to form
    a salt and water. In this way gastric acidity is reduced. This acid-antacid antagonism does not
    involve pharmacokinetic action or receptor occupancy but only a chemical combination between
    two molecules. It is therefore defined chemical antagonism.
    A, B, C) All these antagonism involve receptor occupancy.
    E) Pharmacokinetic antagonism occurs when a drug prevents the absorption or stimulates the
    elimination of the drug to be antagonized, so reducing its concentration at the site of action

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    A 60-year-old man recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation started a therapy with atenolol, a beta-receptor blocker. Which of the following changes most likely occurred in cardiac beta receptors after 1-2 weeks of therapy?

    • A.

      Spare beta-receptors become activated

    • B.

      G-protein concentration decreased in time

    • C.

      Beta-receptor number increased in time

    • D.

      Beta-receptor intrinsic activity decreased in time

    • E.

      Intracellular concentration of second messenger was decreased

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta-receptor number increased in time
    Explanation
    Learning objective: explain the most likely consequence of chronic blockade of drug
    receptors
    Answer: C
    When receptors are blocked chronically the number of those receptors may increase in time, a
    process called up-regulation of receptors or sensitization or supersensitivity, since the effector
    response will be greater than usual, if the blockade is abruptly removed.
    A) By definition spare receptors are not involved in receptor activation or blockade.
    B, E) Since the number of receptors increases in time, G-protein and second messengers , if
    something, would increase, not decrease.
    D) Receptor intrinsic activity refers to the amount of activation each receptor is able to produce
    when bound by an agonist drug. If something, this amount would increase, not decrease.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    The development of tolerance to a drug is accompanied by an increase in which of the following parameters of that drug?

    • A.

      Maximal efficacy

    • B.

      Median effective dose

    • C.

      Therapeutic index

    • D.

      Potency

    • E.

      Half-life

    Correct Answer
    B. Median effective dose
    Explanation
    Learning objective: identify the drug parameter that is increased when a drug effect
    undergoes tolerance.
    Answer: B
    Since by definition tolerance is a decreased responsiveness to the action of a drug, a higher
    dose of that drug will be necessary to obtain the given effect in 50% of the population (median
    effective dose) when tolerance has occurred..
    A) The maximal efficacy refers to the maximum effect achievable, if the dose is taken to very
    high levels. In tolerant subjects maximal efficacy may still be achieved, even if higher doses are
    needed to obtain it.
    C) The therapeutic index is the ratio between a toxic dose and an effective dose. Since the
    effective dose is increased because of tolerance, the therapeutic index is expected to decrease
    or to remain the same (if the toxic dose is also increased).
    D) Actually potency (the dose of the drug needed to produce a given effect) is decreased when
    tolerance has occurred.
    E) Tolerance can be due to an increase metabolism of the drug. In this case however the half
    life would be decreased, not increased.

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  • 14. 

    A 65-year-old man suffering from osteoarthritis has been taking naproxen 500 mg twice a day for one month. The drug was effective, but the patient suffered from nausea and heartburn. The physician decided to try another NSAID and prescribed celecoxib, a drug about 5 times more potent than naproxen, with negligible gastrointestinal side effects. Which of the following was most likely the dose of celecoxib prescribed to the patient?

    • A.

      50 mg

    • B.

      1000 mg

    • C.

      10 mg

    • D.

      100 mg

    • E.

      5 mg

    Correct Answer
    D. 100 mg
    Explanation
    Learning objective: calculate the equieffective dose of a new drug given to a patient, when
    the old drug must be suspended because of adverse effects..
    Answer: D
    Since naproxen was therapeutically effective, the rationale is to start the therapy with an
    equieffective dose of the new drug. Celecoxib is about 5 time more potent than naproxen so a
    dose 5 time lower should be equieffective.
    A, B, C, E) (see explanation above)

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  • 15. 

    The graph below represents the relationship between increasing doses of a drug and effect. Which of the following phrases correctly defines the depicted curve?

    • A.

      Frequency distribution of responses

    • B.

      Cumulative frequency distribution of responses

    • C.

      Quantal log dose-response curve

    • D.

      Graded log dose-response curve

    • E.

      Quantal dose-response curve

    Correct Answer
    D. Graded log dose-response curve
    Explanation
    Learning objective: identify the graded log dose-response curve from a graph..
    Answer: D
    A curve that reports the log of the dose on the x-axis (see the geometric scale) and the percent
    of maximum effect on the y-axis is defined as a graded log dose-response curve.
    A, B, C, E) All these curves report the percent of individuals responding on the y-axis.

    Rate this question:

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  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 30, 2012
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