Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodydamics W/Exp Part 2

15 Questions | Total Attempts: 275

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Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodydamics W/Exp Part 2

Did you just tackle it, the Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodynamics W/exp Part 1 quiz the other day and feel like you are ready for part two? I hope that you have been studying as this Block 9 Pharm Pharmacodydamics W/exp Part 2 exam will not be that easy for you. Are you ready? Have at it then and good luck in the exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is the most likely post receptor mechanism of G-protein coupled receptors?
    • A. 

      Regulation of the synthesis of second messengers

    • B. 

      Regulation of gene transcription

    • C. 

      Opening of ligand-gated chloride channels

    • D. 

      Opening of ligand-gated Na+ channels

    • E. 

      Inactivation of G-protein

  • 2. 
    Acetylcholine is able to bind to nicotinic or muscarinic receptors. Which of the following pairs of statements correctly defines the nature of these receptors?
    • A. 

      Nicotinic: ionotropic. Muscarinic: ionotropic

    • B. 

      Nicotinic: ionotropic. Muscarinic: metabotropic

    • C. 

      Nicotinic: metabotropic: Muscarinic: ionotropic

    • D. 

      Nicotinic: metabotropic: Muscarinic: metabotropic

  • 3. 
    A 45-year-old woman recently diagnosed with urinary tract infection, started a therapy with Bactrim (a trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination). Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are bacteriostatic drugs, when given alone. However a bactericidal effect is obtained when the two drugs are given in combination. Which of the following terms best defines this drug interaction?
    • A. 

      Additive effect

    • B. 

      Potentiation

    • C. 

      Synergism

    • D. 

      Reverse tolerance

    • E. 

      Sensitization

  • 4. 
    Barbiturates are able to induce many CYP isozymes, included those involved in barbiturate metabolism. During chronic treatment with barbiturates the initial response to a fixed dose may decrease with time. Which of the following terms best explains this decrease?
    • A. 

      Pharmacodynamic tolerance

    • B. 

      Tachyphylaxis

    • C. 

      Pharmacokinetic tolerance

    • D. 

      Crossed tolerance

    • E. 

      Sensitization

  • 5. 
    17-year-old boy drank increasing amount of alcohol when attending parties. He noticed that he was able to better tolerate alcohol effects and asked his physician the reason for this. The physician said that most likely pharmacodynamic tolerance occurred. Which of the following actions most likely mediated this tolerance?
    • A. 

      Decreased concentration of the drug at the site of action

    • B. 

      Decreased bioavailability of the drug

    • C. 

      Homeostatic adaptive changes that counteract the drug effect

    • D. 

      Increased biotransformation of the drug

    • E. 

      Increased number of drug receptors

  • 6. 
    A 63-year-old patient with a terminal cancer has been suffering from continuous pain and started a treatment with morphine. After few days of treatment the initial dose was no longer effective and the physician gradually increased the dose, knowing that pharmacodynamic tolerance most likely occurred. Which of the following statements best explains the mechanism of tolerance in this patient?
    • A. 

      Accelerated morphine metabolism

    • B. 

      Increased affinity of receptors to morphine

    • C. 

      Decreased binding of morphine to plasma proteins

    • D. 

      Decreased morphine receptor density

    • E. 

      Decreased concentration of morphine in the brain

  • 7. 
    56-year-old woman complained to her physician that the sedative effect of the drug she was taking had increased substantially. The woman was used to take a diazepam tablet daily to allay her nervousness and anxiety. Few day ago she started taking cimetidine because of an annoying heartburn. Cimetidine is an inhibitor of the cytochrome p450 system in the liver. Which of the following terms best defines this cimetidine diazepam interaction?
    • A. 

      Additive effect

    • B. 

      Potentiation

    • C. 

      Synergism

    • D. 

      Sensitization

    • E. 

      Reverse tolerance

  • 8. 
    A 57-year-old man, who was in the hospital after a surgical operation, complained from a severe abdominal pain and the physician decided to start an analgesic treatment with an  opioid. The drugs he was considering were morphine (10 mg IM) and buprenorphine (0.3mg IM). Morphine is a full agonist at opioid mu receptors whereas buprenorphine is a partial agonist at the same receptors. The above mentioned doses of the two drugs are equieffective doses. Which of the following pairs of statements correctly defines the potency and efficacy of morphine and buprenorphine?
    • A. 

      Morphine most potent. Buprenorphine most effective

    • B. 

      Morphine most potent. Buprenorphine least effective

    • C. 

      Morphine least potent. Buprenorphine most effective

    • D. 

      Morphine least potent. Buprenorphine least effective

  • 9. 
    65 year-old woman took 500 mg of acetaminophen to relieve an annoying headache. This dose is therapeutically effective for about 4 hours, and the half-life of acetaminophen is about 2 hours. How many hours would the medication be effective if the woman doubled the dose?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      12

    • E. 

      16

    • F. 

      18

  • 10. 
    A clinical trial was conducted by administering PO a new analgesic drug to a group of patients suffering from arthritic pain. One hour after administration, the patients were questioned about pain relief and a sample of blood was collected from each patient to measure drug plasma levels. Pain relief generally correlated well with plasma levels but 3 patients, whose plasma levels were equal to zero, reported good pain relief. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the analgesic effect in those patients?
    • A. 

      High bioavailability of the drug

    • B. 

      Small volume of distribution of the drug

    • C. 

      Very low clearance of the drug

    • D. 

      Poor patient compliance

    • E. 

      Placebo effect

  • 11. 
    A 55-year-old man has been recently diagnosed with a gastric ulcer and an appropriate therapy has been prescribed. The therapy includes antacids ‘as needed’, in order to antagonize the effects of the hydrochloric acid secreted by gastric parietal cells. Which of the following terms best defines this acid-antacid antagonism?
    • A. 

      Competitive

    • B. 

      Irreversible

    • C. 

      Functional

    • D. 

      Chemical

    • E. 

      Pharmacokinetic

  • 12. 
    A 60-year-old man recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation started a therapy with atenolol, a beta-receptor blocker. Which of the following changes most likely occurred in cardiac beta receptors after 1-2 weeks of therapy?
    • A. 

      Spare beta-receptors become activated

    • B. 

      G-protein concentration decreased in time

    • C. 

      Beta-receptor number increased in time

    • D. 

      Beta-receptor intrinsic activity decreased in time

    • E. 

      Intracellular concentration of second messenger was decreased

  • 13. 
    The development of tolerance to a drug is accompanied by an increase in which of the following parameters of that drug?
    • A. 

      Maximal efficacy

    • B. 

      Median effective dose

    • C. 

      Therapeutic index

    • D. 

      Potency

    • E. 

      Half-life

  • 14. 
    A 65-year-old man suffering from osteoarthritis has been taking naproxen 500 mg twice a day for one month. The drug was effective, but the patient suffered from nausea and heartburn. The physician decided to try another NSAID and prescribed celecoxib, a drug about 5 times more potent than naproxen, with negligible gastrointestinal side effects. Which of the following was most likely the dose of celecoxib prescribed to the patient?
    • A. 

      50 mg

    • B. 

      1000 mg

    • C. 

      10 mg

    • D. 

      100 mg

    • E. 

      5 mg

  • 15. 
    The graph below represents the relationship between increasing doses of a drug and effect. Which of the following phrases correctly defines the depicted curve?
    • A. 

      Frequency distribution of responses

    • B. 

      Cumulative frequency distribution of responses

    • C. 

      Quantal log dose-response curve

    • D. 

      Graded log dose-response curve

    • E. 

      Quantal dose-response curve

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