Nursing Board Review : Maternal And Child Health Nursing Part 2 (Practice Mode)

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1. Mylene Lopez, a 16 year old girl with scoliosis has recently received an invitation to a pool party. She asks the nurse how she can disguise her impairment when dressed in a bathing suit. Which nursing diagnosis can be justified by Mylene's statement?    

Explanation

Mylene is experiencing uneasiness about the curvative of her spine, which will be more evident when she wears a bathing suit. This data suggests a body image disturbance. There is no evidence of anxiety or ineffective coping. The fact that Mylene is planning to attend a pool party dispels a diagnosis of social isolation.

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2. Celine, a mother of a 2 year old tells the nurse that her child "cries and has a fit when I have to leave him with a sitter or someone else." Which of the following statements would be the nurse's most accurate analysis of the mother's comment?  

Explanation

Before coming to any conclusion, the nurse should ask the mother focused questions; however, based on initial information, the analysis of separation anxiety would be most valid. Separation anxiety is a normal toddler response. When the child senses he is being sent away from those who most provide him with love and security. Crying is one way a child expresses a physical need; however, the nurse would be hasty in drawing this as first conclusion based on what the mother has said. Nurturing overdependence or not providing structure for the toddler are inaccurate conclusions based on the information provided.

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3. Mrs. Pichie Gonzales's LMP began April 4, 2010. Her EDD should be which of the following:  

Explanation

Using the Nagel’s rule, he use this formula ( -3 calendar months + 7 days).

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4. The client asks the nurse, "When will this soft spot at the top of the head of my baby will close?" The nurse should instruct the mother that the neonate's anterior fontanel will normally close by age:  

Explanation

Anterior fontanel closes at 12-18 months while posterior fontanel closes at birth until 2 months.

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5. When a mother bleeds and the uterus is relaxed, soft and non-tender, you can account the cause to:    

Explanation

Uterine atony, or relaxation of the uterus is the most frequent cause of postpartal hemorrhage. It is the inability to maintain the uterus in contracted state.

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6. During a prenatal check-up, the nurse explains to a client who is Rh negative that RhoGAM will be given:    

Explanation

RhoGAM is given to Rh-negative mothers within 72 hours after birth of Rh-positive baby to prevent development of antibodies in the maternal blood stream, which will be fata to succeeding Rh-positive offspring.

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7. Mrs. Grace Evangelista is admitted with severe preeclampsia. What type of room should the nurse select this patient?  

Explanation

A loud noise such as a crying baby, or a dropped tray of equipment may be sufficient to trigger a seizure initiating eclampsia, a woman with severe preeclampsia should be admiotted to a private room so she can rest as undisturbed as possible. Darken the room if possible because bright light can trigger seizures.

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8. Mrs. Jovel Diaz went to the hospital to have her serum blood test for alpha-fetoprotein. The nurse informed her about the result of the elevation of serum AFP. The patient asked her what was the test for:  

Explanation

Alpha-fetoprotein is a substance produces by the fetal liver that is present in amniotic fluid and maternal serum. The level is abnormally high in the maternal serum if the fetus has an open spinal or abdominal defect because the open defect allows more AFP to appear.

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9. Which of the following would be a disadvantage of breast feeding?  

Explanation

With breast feeding, the father’s body is not capable of providing the milk for the newborn, which may interfere with feeding the newborn, providing fewer chances for bonding, or he may be jealous of the infant’s demands on his wife time and body. Breast feeding is advantageous because uterine involution occurs more rapidly, thus minimizing blood loss. The presence of maternal antibodies in breast milk helps decrease the incidence of allergies in the newborn. A greater chance for error is associated with bottle feeding. No preparation required for breast feeding.

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10. Nurse Jacob is assessing a 12 year old who has hemophilia A. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse anticipate?  

Explanation

Hemophillia A (classic hemophilia) is a deficiency in factor VIII (an alpha globulin that stabilizes fibrin clots).

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11. Nurse Bella explains to a 28 year old pregnant woman undergoing a non-stress test that the test is a way of evaluating the condition of the fetus by comparing the fetal heart rate with:  

Explanation

Non-stress test measures response of the FHR to the fetal movement. With fetal movement, FHR increase by 15 beats and remain for 15 seconds then decrease to average rate. No increase means poor oxygenation perfusion to fetus.

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12. Aling Patricia is a patient with preeclampsia. You advise her about her condition, which would tell you that she has not really understood your instructions?  

Explanation

Pregnant woman with preeclampsia should be in a complete bed rest. When body is in recumbent position, sodium tends to be excreted at a faster rate. It is the best method of aiding increased excretion of sodium and encouraging diuresis. Rest should always be in a lateral recumbent position to avoid uterine pressure on the vena cava and prevent supine hypotension.

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13. The foul-smelling, frothy characteristic of the stool in cystic fibrosis results from the presence of large amounts of which of the following:  

Explanation

The client with cystic fibrosis absorbs fat poorly because of the think secretions blocking the pancreatic duct. The lack of natural pancreatic enzyme leads to poor absorption of predominantly fats in the duodenum. Foul-smelling, frothy stool is termed steatorrhea.

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14. A newborn is brought to the nursery. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the child has short palpebral fissures, thinned upper lip. Based on this data, the nurse suspects that the newborn is MOST likely showing the effects of:  

Explanation

The newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome has a number of possible problems at birth. Characteristics that mark the syndrome include pre and postnatal growth retardation; CNS involvement such as cognitive challenge, microcephally and cerebral palsy; and a distinctive facial feature of a short palpebral fissure and thin upper lip.

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15. A 4 year old boy most likely perceives death in which way:  

Explanation

The predominant perception of death by preschool age children is that death is temporary separation. Because that child is losing someone significant and will not see that person again, it’s inaccurate to infer death is insignificant, regardless of the child’s response.

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16. A priority nursing intervention for the infant with cleft lip is which of the following:    

Explanation

The infant with cleft lip is unable to create an adequate seal for sucking. The child is at risk for inadequate nutritional intake as well as aspiration.

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17. Mrs. Ella Santoros is a 25 year old primigravida who has Rheumatic heart disease lesion. Her pregnancy has just been diagnosed. Her heart disease has not caused her to limit physical activity in the past. Her cardiac disease and functional capacity classification is:  

Explanation

Clients under class I has no physical activity limitation. There is a slight limitation of physical activity in class II, ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or angina. Class III is moderate limitation of physical activity; less than ordinary activity causes fatigue. Unable to carry on any activity without experiencing discomfort is under class IV.

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18. Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?    

Explanation

A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thus, a finding of a titer less than 1:8 is significant, indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella. A hematocrit of 33.5%, WBC of 8,000/mm3, and a 1 hour glucose challenge test of 110 g/dL are within normal parameters.

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19. Fetal heart rate can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as:  

Explanation

The FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope at about 20 weeks of gestation. FHR is usually auscultated at the midline suprapubic region with Doppler ultrasound at 10 to 12 weeks of gestation. FHR cannot be heard any earlier than 10 weeks of gestation.

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20. Catherine Diaz is a 14 year old patient on a hematology unit who is being treated for sickle cell crisis. During a crisis such as that seen in sickle cell anemia, aldosterone release is stimulated. In what way might this influence Catherine's fluid and electrolyte balance?  

Explanation

Stress stimulates the adrenal cortex to increase the release of aldosterone. Aldosterone promotes the resorption of sodium, the retention of water and the loss of potassium.

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21. Billy is a 4 year old boy who has an IQ of 140 which means:  

Explanation

IQ= mental age/chronological age x 100. Mental age refers to the typical intelligence level found for people at a give chronological age. OQ of 140 and above is considered genius.

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22. A baby boy was born at 8:50pm. At 8:55pm, the heart rate was 99 bpm. She has a weak cry, irregular respiration. She was moving all extremities and only her hands and feet were still slightly blue. The nurse should enter the APGAR score as:  

Explanation

Heart rate of 99 bpm-1; weak cry-1; irregular respiration-1; moving all extremities-2; extremities are slightly blue-1; with a total score of 6.

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23. Mrs. Bendivin states that she is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins. The nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following:  

Explanation

Pressure of the growing fetus on blood vessels results in an increase risk for venous stasis in the lower extremities. Subsequently, edema and varicose vein formation may occur.

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24. A client is noted to have lymphedema, webbed neck and low posterior hairline. Which of the following diagnoses is most appropriate?  

Explanation

Lymphedema, webbed neck and low posterior hairline, these are the 3 key assessment features in Turner’s syndrome. If the child is diagnosed early in age, proper treatment can be offered to the family. All newborns should be screened for possible congenital defects.

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25. During a 2 hour childbirth focusing on labor and delivery process for primigravida. The nurse describes the second maneuver that the fetus goes through during labor progress when the head is the presenting part as which of the following:    

Explanation

The 6 cardinal movements of labor are descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation and expulsion.

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Mylene Lopez, a 16 year old girl with scoliosis has recently received...
Celine, a mother of a 2 year old tells the nurse that her child "cries...
Mrs. Pichie Gonzales's LMP began April 4, 2010. Her EDD should be...
The client asks the nurse, "When will this soft spot at the top of the...
When a mother bleeds and the uterus is relaxed, soft and non-tender,...
During a prenatal check-up, the nurse explains to a client who is Rh...
Mrs. Grace Evangelista is admitted with severe preeclampsia. What type...
Mrs. Jovel Diaz went to the hospital to have her serum blood test for...
Which of the following would be a disadvantage of breast feeding?...
Nurse Jacob is assessing a 12 year old who has hemophilia A. Which of...
Nurse Bella explains to a 28 year old pregnant woman undergoing a...
Aling Patricia is a patient with preeclampsia. You advise her about...
The foul-smelling, frothy characteristic of the stool in cystic...
A newborn is brought to the nursery. Upon assessment, the nurse finds...
A 4 year old boy most likely perceives death in which way:  
A priority nursing intervention for the infant with cleft lip is which...
Mrs. Ella Santoros is a 25 year old primigravida who has Rheumatic...
Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse...
Fetal heart rate can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as:...
Catherine Diaz is a 14 year old patient on a hematology unit who is...
Billy is a 4 year old boy who has an IQ of 140 which means:  
A baby boy was born at 8:50pm. At 8:55pm, the heart rate was 99 bpm....
Mrs. Bendivin states that she is experiencing aching swollen, leg...
A client is noted to have lymphedema, webbed neck and low posterior...
During a 2 hour childbirth focusing on labor and delivery process for...
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