1.
Nurse Bella explains to a 28 year old pregnant woman undergoing a non-stress test that the test is a way of evaluating the condition of the fetus by comparing the fetal heart rate with:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
Maternal uterine contractions
2.
During a 2 hour childbirth focusing on labor and delivery process for primigravida. The nurse describes the second maneuver that the fetus goes through during labor progress when the head is the presenting part as which of the following:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
3.
Mrs. Jovel Diaz went to the hospital to have her serum blood test for alpha-fetoprotein. The nurse informed her about the result of the elevation of serum AFP. The patient asked her what was the test for:
A. 
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
B. 
C. 
D. 
4.
Fetal heart rate can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
5.
Mrs. Bendivin states that she is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins. The nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following:
A. 
B. 
C. 
Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
D. 
The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
6.
Mrs. Ella Santoros is a 25 year old primigravida who has Rheumatic heart disease lesion. Her pregnancy has just been diagnosed. Her heart disease has not caused her to limit physical activity in the past. Her cardiac disease and functional capacity classification is:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
7.
The client asks the nurse, “When will this soft spot at the top of the head of my baby will close?” The nurse should instruct the mother that the neonate’s anterior fontanel will normally close by age:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
8.
When a mother bleeds and the uterus is relaxed, soft and non-tender, you can account the cause to:
A. 
B. 
C. 
Laceration of the birth canal
D. 
Presence of retained placenta fragments
9.
Mrs. Pichie Gonzales’s LMP began April 4, 2010. Her EDD should be which of the following:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
10.
Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?
A. 
B. 
C. 
Rubella titer less than 1:8
D. 
One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
11.
Aling Patricia is a patient with preeclampsia. You advise her about her condition, which would tell you that she has not really understood your instructions?
A. 
“I will restrict my fat in my diet.”
B. 
“I will limit my activities and rest more frequently throughout the day.”
C. 
“I will avoid salty foods in my diet.”
D. 
“I will come more regularly for check-up.”
12.
Mrs. Grace Evangelista is admitted with severe preeclampsia. What type of room should the nurse select this patient?
A. 
A room next to the elevator.
B. 
The room farthest from the nursing station.
C. 
The quietest room on the floor.
D. 
13.
During a prenatal check-up, the nurse explains to a client who is Rh negative that RhoGAM will be given:
A. 
Weekly during the 8th month because this is her third pregnancy.
B. 
During the second trimester, if amniocentesis indicates a problem.
C. 
To her infant immediately after delivery if the Coomb’s test is positive.
D. 
Within 72 hours after delivery if infant is found to be Rh positive.
14.
A baby boy was born at 8:50pm. At 8:55pm, the heart rate was 99 bpm. She has a weak cry, irregular respiration. She was moving all extremities and only her hands and feet were still slightly blue. The nurse should enter the APGAR score as:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
15.
Billy is a 4 year old boy who has an IQ of 140 which means:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
16.
A newborn is brought to the nursery. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the child has short palpebral fissures, thinned upper lip. Based on this data, the nurse suspects that the newborn is MOST likely showing the effects of:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
17.
A priority nursing intervention for the infant with cleft lip is which of the following:
A. 
Monitoring for adequate nutritional intake
B. 
Teaching high-risk newborn care
C. 
Assessing for respiratory distress
D. 
18.
Nurse Jacob is assessing a 12 year old who has hemophilia A. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse anticipate?
A. 
B. 
C. 
A deficiency of clotting factor VIII
D. 
A deficiency of clotting factor IX
19.
Celine, a mother of a 2 year old tells the nurse that her child “cries and has a fit when I have to leave him with a sitter or someone else.” Which of the following statements would be the nurse’s most accurate analysis of the mother’s comment?
A. 
The child has not experienced limit-setting or structure.
B. 
The child is expressing a physical need, such as hunger.
C. 
The mother has nurtured overdependence in the child.
D. 
The mother is describing her child’s separation anxiety.
20.
Mylene Lopez, a 16 year old girl with scoliosis has recently received an invitation to a pool party. She asks the nurse how she can disguise her impairment when dressed in a bathing suit. Which nursing diagnosis can be justified by Mylene’s statement?
A. 
B. 
C. 
Ineffective individual coping
D. 
21.
The foul-smelling, frothy characteristic of the stool in cystic fibrosis results from the presence of large amounts of which of the following:
A. 
B. 
C. 
Semi-digested carbohydrates
D. 
Lipase, trypsin and amylase
22.
Which of the following would be a disadvantage of breast feeding?
A. 
Involution occurs rapidly
B. 
The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal antibodies
C. 
The father may resent the infant’s demands on the mother’s body
D. 
There is a greater chance of error during preparation
23.
A client is noted to have lymphedema, webbed neck and low posterior hairline. Which of the following diagnoses is most appropriate?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
24.
A 4 year old boy most likely perceives death in which way:
A. 
An insignificant event unless taught otherwise
B. 
Punishment for something the individual did
C. 
Something that just happens to older people
D. 
Temporary separation from the loved one.
25.
Catherine Diaz is a 14 year old patient on a hematology unit who is being treated for sickle cell crisis. During a crisis such as that seen in sickle cell anemia, aldosterone release is stimulated. In what way might this influence Catherine’s fluid and electrolyte balance?
A. 
Sodium loss, water loss and potassium retention
B. 
Sodium loss, water los and potassium loss
C. 
Sodium retention, water loss and potassium retention
D. 
Sodium retention, water retention and potassium loss