Heath care Quiz: A Medical Terminologies Test!

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Heath care Quiz: A Medical Terminologies Test! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A man is brought into the ER with multiple gunshot wounds to the upper torso. He is combative and has difficulty breathing. The trauma physician orders him to the OR for an ELAP. What is this?

    • A.

      Exploratory laparostomy

    • B.

      Emergency left aortic peristalsis

    • C.

      Exploratory laparotomy

    • D.

      Emergency lung-assisted perfusion

    Correct Answer
    C. Exploratory laparotomy
    Explanation
    Exploratory laparotomy is a method of abdominal exploration, a diagnostic tool that allows physicians to examine the abdominal organs. The procedure may be recommended for a patient who has abdominal pain of unknown origin or who has sustained an injury to the abdomen. Injuries may occur as a result of blunt trauma (e.g., road traffic accident) or penetrating trauma (e.g., stab or gunshot wound). Because of the nature of the abdominal organs, there is a high risk of infection if organs rupture or are perforated. In addition, bleeding into the abdominal cavity is considered a medical emergency. Exploratory laparotomy is used to determine the source of pain or the extent of injury and perform repairs if needed.

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  • 2. 

    B12 therapy is given to patients diagnosed with:

    • A.

      DIC

    • B.

      Hemolytic anemia

    • C.

      Hodgkin disease

    • D.

      Pernicious anemia

    Correct Answer
    D. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is a type of vitamin B12 anemia. The body needs vitamin B12 to make red blood cells. You get this vitamin from eating foods such as meat, poultry, shellfish, eggs, and dairy products.

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  • 3. 

    A change in the shape, color and texture of a nevus may indicate:

    • A.

      Multiple myeloma

    • B.

      Healing of a nevus

    • C.

      Malignant melanoma

    • D.

      Actinic keratosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Malignant melanoma
    Explanation
    Although a nevus and a melanoma are often treated as independent entities, there is evidence that a nevus can be a precursor for a melanoma demonstrated by physical changes on the nevus.

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  • 4. 

    Multiple myeloma is associated with elevated levels of:

    • A.

      Dopamine

    • B.

      Serotonin

    • C.

      Histamine

    • D.

      IgG

    Correct Answer
    D. IgG
    Explanation
    In theory, multiple myeloma can produce all classes of immunoglobulin, but IgG paraproteins are most common, followed by IgA and IgM. IgD and IgE myeloma are very rare.

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  • 5. 

    Before transfusion, donor blood is mixed with the recipient's blood to test for compatibility, indicated by negative agglutination. This test is called:

    • A.

      ABO typing

    • B.

      Coombs

    • C.

      A crossmatch

    • D.

      Rh typing

    Correct Answer
    C. A crossmatch
    Explanation
    Cross-matching (or crossmatching) blood, in transfusion medicine, refers to the testing that is performed prior to a blood transfusion in order to determine if the donor's blood is compatible with the blood of an intended recipient, or to identify matches for organ transplants.

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  • 6. 

    Which laboratory test is used to determine the degree of histocompatibility between transplant recipients and donors?

    • A.

      Rh typing

    • B.

      ELISA

    • C.

      HLA typing

    • D.

      ESR

    Correct Answer
    C. HLA typing
    Explanation
    A histocompatibility antigen blood test looks at proteins called human leukocyte antigens (HLAs), which are found on the surface of nearly every cell in the human body. HLAs are found in large amounts on the surface of white blood cells. They help the immune system tell the difference between body tissue and foreign substances.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is an intradermal injection test for TB?

    • A.

      ACB

    • B.

      PPD

    • C.

      DAT

    • D.

      CAMP

    Correct Answer
    B. PPD
    Explanation
    The only test available for in vivo diagnosis of tuberculosis is the intradermal injection of tuberculin according to the Mantoux method (also named tuberculosis skin test or PPD skin test). The tuberculin skin test is based on a delayed-type hypersensitivity skin reaction However, this test needs to be performed by trained personnel, presents problem of reproducibility, and its interpretation is not well standardized (measure in millimeters of skin induration 48 to 72 hours after the PPD skin test).

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  • 8. 

    One possible sequela of mumps in males is:

    • A.

      Cystitis

    • B.

      Orchitis

    • C.

      Benign prostatic hypertrophy

    • D.

      Prostatitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Orchitis
    Explanation
    Orchitis may be caused by an infection from many different types of bacteria and viruses.

    The most common virus that causes orchitis is mumps. It most often occurs in boys after puberty. Orchitis usually develops 4 - 6 days after the mumps begins.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is an example of a BRIEF FORM?

    • A.

      Cath

    • B.

      MmHg

    • C.

      BKA

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cath
    Explanation
    Brief forms are shortened forms of legitimate words that can be documented in a reputable dictionary or have come into acceptance through usage (i.e. cath for catheterization.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is correctly pluralized?

    • A.

      Serial K’s

    • B.

      EKG’s

    • C.

      Lymph’s

    • D.

      Rbcs

    Correct Answer
    A. Serial K’s
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Serial K's" because when pluralizing a word that ends in a consonant followed by a vowel and then a consonant, we add an apostrophe followed by an "s". In this case, "K" is the consonant, followed by a vowel "s" and then a consonant "s".

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  • 11. 

    Petechiae are:

    • A.

      Bruises

    • B.

      Moles

    • C.

      Freckles

    • D.

      Small pinpoint hemorrhages

    Correct Answer
    D. Small pinpoint hemorrhages
    Explanation
    Petechiae (pinpoint hemorrhages) represent bleeding from small vessels and are classically found when a coagulopathy is due to a low platelet count. They can also appear following sudden hypoxia.

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  • 12. 

    Surgical fusion of a joint is termed:

    • A.

      Osteotomy

    • B.

      Chiroplasty

    • C.

      Arthrodesis

    • D.

      Arthroplasty

    Correct Answer
    C. Arthrodesis
    Explanation
    Bone or joint fusion surgery, called arthrodesis, is performed to relieve arthritis pain in the ankles, wrists, fingers, thumbs, or spine.

    In arthrodesis, two bones on each end of a joint are fused, eliminating the joint itself.

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  • 13. 

    How would you transcribe "3 and 4 oh silk suture"?

    • A.

      3o and 4o silk suture

    • B.

      3 and 40 silk suture

    • C.

      3-0 and 4-0 silk suture

    • D.

      30 and 40 silk suture

    Correct Answer
    C. 3-0 and 4-0 silk suture
    Explanation
    As per BOS3:

    10.3.12 Sutures, Catheters, Needles, and Wires
    Sutures: The United States Pharmacopeia (USP) system sizes, among other things, steel sutures and sutures of other materials. The sizes range from 11-0 (smallest) to 7 (largest). Thus, a size 7 suture is different from and larger than a size 7-0 suture. Use 0 or 1-0 for single-aught sutures; use the "digit hyphen zero" style to express sizes 2-0 through 11-0. Express sizes 1 through 7 with whole numbers. Place the # symbol before the size if "number" is dictated.

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  • 14. 

    Marked wasting away of the body resulting from chronic disease is called:

    • A.

      Cholestasis

    • B.

      Anorexia

    • C.

      Cachexia

    • D.

      Asthenia

    Correct Answer
    C. Cachexia
    Explanation
    Cachexia (/kəˈkɛksiə/; from Greek κακός kakos "bad" and ἕξις hexis "condition")[1] or wasting syndrome is loss of weight, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness, and significant loss of appetite in someone who is not actively trying to lose weight. The formal definition of cachexia is the loss of body mass that cannot be reversed nutritionally: Even if the affected patient eats more calories, lean body mass will be lost, indicating a primary pathology is in place.

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  • 15. 

    A sudden and intense need to void, as commonly seen in the elderly, is called:

    • A.

      Stress incontinence

    • B.

      Total incontinence

    • C.

      Urge incontinence

    • D.

      Overflow incontinence

    Correct Answer
    C. Urge incontinence
    Explanation
    With urge incontinence, you leak urine because the bladder muscles contract at the wrong times. Often these contractions occur no matter how much urine is in the bladder.
    Urge incontinence may result from:
    Bladder cancer
    Bladder inflammation
    Bladder outlet obstruction
    Bladder stones
    Infection
    Nervous system diseases (such as multiple sclerosis)
    Nervous system injuries (such as spinal cord injury or stroke)

    In men, urge incontinence also may be due to:
    Bladder changes caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
    Bladder outlet obstruction from an enlarged prostate

    In most cases of urge incontinence, no cause can be found. Although urge incontinence may occur in anyone at any age, it is more common in women and the elderly.

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  • 16. 

    An accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is termed:

    • A.

      Ileus

    • B.

      Crohn disease

    • C.

      Ascites

    • D.

      Flatulence

    Correct Answer
    C. Ascites
    Explanation
    Ascites is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen. Rapidly developing (acute) ascites can occur as a complication of trauma, perforated ulcer, appendicitis, or inflammation of the colon or other tube-shaped organ (diverticulitis). This condition can also develop when intestinal fluids, bile, pancreatic juices, or bacteria invade or inflame the smooth, transparent membrane that lines the inside of the abdomen (peritoneum). However, ascites is more often associated with liver disease and other long-lasting (chronic) conditions.

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  • 17. 

    A chronic inflammation of the ileum is called:

    • A.

      Hirschsprung disease

    • B.

      Irritable bowel syndrome

    • C.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • D.

      Crohn disease

    Correct Answer
    D. Crohn disease
    Explanation
    Crohn's disease (also spelled Crohn disease) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the intestines. It primarily causes ulcerations (breaks in the lining) of the small and large intestines, but can affect the digestive system anywhere from the mouth to the anus. It is named after the physician who described the disease in 1932. It also is called granulomatous enteritis or colitis, regional enteritis, ileitis, or terminal ileitis.

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  • 18. 

    Intussusception, volvulus and ileus are all:

    • A.

      Helicobacter infections

    • B.

      Causes of portal hypertension

    • C.

      Stages of cirrhosis

    • D.

      Types of obstruction

    Correct Answer
    D. Types of obstruction
    Explanation
    Intestinal obstruction refers to the partial or complete mechanical or nonmechanical blockage of the small or large intestine.

    Mechanical obstructions occur because the bowel is physically blocked and its contents cannot get past the obstruction. Mechanical obstructions can occur for several reasons. Sometimes the bowel twists on itself (volvulus) or telescopes into itself (intussusception). Mechanical obstruction can also result from hernias, impacted feces, abnormal tissue growth, the presence of foreign bodies in the intestines (including gallstones), or inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease). Nonmechanical obstruction, called ileus, occurs because the wavelike muscular contractions of the intestine (peristalsis) that ordinarily move food through the digestive tract stop.

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  • 19. 

    Bell's palsy is a disease of which facial nerve:

    • A.

      V

    • B.

      VII

    • C.

      II

    • D.

      VI

    Correct Answer
    B. VII
    Explanation
    Bell's palsy is a form of facial paralysis resulting from a dysfunction of the cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve) causing an inability to control facial muscles on the affected side. Several conditions can cause facial paralysis, e.g., brain tumor, stroke, myasthenia gravis, and Lyme disease. However, if no specific cause can be identified, the condition is known as Bell's palsy. Named after Scottish anatomist Charles Bell, who first described it, Bell's palsy is the most common acute mononeuropathy (disease involving only one nerve) and is the most common cause of acute facial nerve paralysis (>80%).

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  • 20. 

    One common physical sign of Down syndrome is:

    • A.

      Round eyes

    • B.

      Large ears

    • C.

      Large skull

    • D.

      Single transverse palmar crease

    Correct Answer
    D. Single transverse palmar crease
    Explanation
    Single transverse palmar crease of SPTC (“Simian crease” its outdated term): The skin of a normal palm has three large creases. The distal transverse palmar crease runs near the top of palm and begins close to the little finger. The thenar transverse crease is the lowest on the palm and appears to run almost vertically. The proximal transverse palmar crease lies between the other two creases.

    In cases of SPTC, the distal and proximal creases are not present. Instead, they combine to form one transverse palmar crease. The thenar transverse crease remains the same.

    STPC is a symptom of disorders such as Down syndrome.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following represents the correct style for transcribing a vertebral disk?

    • A.

      S-1

    • B.

      C1-2

    • C.

      C2-4

    • D.

      L5/S1

    Correct Answer
    B. C1-2
    Explanation
    As per BOS3:

    18.2.2 Vertebrae, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Levels
    Sharing a common nomenclature, these entities are derived from spinal anatomic regions:
    region vertebrae spinal nerves

    Portions of a vertebra may be referred to as follows, i.e., without the term vertebra:
    EXAMPLE
    C3 spinous process
    L4 lamina
    transverse process of T10

    Use a hyphen to express the space between two vertebrae (the intervertebral space). It is not necessary to repeat

    the same letter before the second vertebra, but it may be transcribed if dictated.
    EXAMPLE
    C1-2 or C1-C2
    L5-S1

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  • 22. 

    Don and doff means:

    • A.

      Move to and fro

    • B.

      Go up and down stairs

    • C.

      Put on and take off

    • D.

      Stand up and sit down

    Correct Answer
    C. Put on and take off
    Explanation
    Don and doff are archaic words, contractions to be precise. Don meaning "do on" and doff meaning "do off." Both were popular during the 14th century, but eventually lost popularity. Doff fell into disuse sometime before the 1750's, while don didn't even make it beyond the 1650's.

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  • 23. 

    One outward manifestation of Cushing syndrome is:

    • A.

      Exophthalmos

    • B.

      A goiter

    • C.

      Purple striae

    • D.

      Polyphagia

    Correct Answer
    C. Purple striae
    Explanation
    Purple marks (1/2 inch or more wide), called striae, on the skin of the abdomen, thighs, and breasts are symptoms of Cushing syndrome.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following describes patients with a grandiose sense of self-importance and fantasies of success and power?

    • A.

      Histrionic

    • B.

      Narcissistic

    • C.

      Exhibitionist

    • D.

      Antisocial

    Correct Answer
    B. Narcissistic
    Explanation
    Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance and fantasies of success and power. Individuals with this disorder have an excessive need for admiration and lack empathy for others. They often believe that they are special and unique, and may exploit others for their own gain. This behavior is different from histrionic personality disorder, which is characterized by attention-seeking and dramatic behavior, and exhibitionist personality disorder, which is not a recognized disorder. Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others and a lack of remorse for harmful actions.

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  • 25. 

    The pulmonologist might order an AFB if he/she suspects tuberculosis.  What is an AFB?

    • A.

      Aortofemoral bypass

    • B.

      Aspirated foreign body

    • C.

      Aflatoxin B

    • D.

      Acid-fast bacillus smear and culture

    Correct Answer
    D. Acid-fast bacillus smear and culture
    Explanation
    Acid- Fast Bacilli (AFB) smear and culture are two separate tests always performed together for diagnosis of tuberculosis. AFB smear refers to the microscopic examination of a fluorochrome stain of a clinical specimen. The AFB culture is the inoculation of a clinical specimen onto culture media Becton-Dickinson Mycobacteria Growth Indicator Tube (B-D MGIT broth) and Lowenstein-Jensen (L-J) media slant, incubation at 37°C for up to six (6) weeks and detection of growth or no growth during this incubation period.

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  • 26. 

    An abnormal opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the penis is called:

    • A.

      Cryptorchidism

    • B.

      Peyronie disease

    • C.

      Balanitis

    • D.

      Hypospadias

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypospadias
    Explanation
    Hypospadias /haɪpoʊˈspeɪdɪəs/[1][2] is a birth defect of the urethra in the male that involves an abnormally placed urinary meatus (the opening, or male external urethral orifice). Instead of opening at the tip of the glans of the penis, a hypospadic urethra opens anywhere along a line (the urethral groove) running from the tip along the underside (ventral aspect) of the shaft to the junction of the penis and scrotum or perineum. A distal hypospadias may be suspected in an uncircumcised boy from an abnormally formed foreskin and downward tilt of the glans.

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  • 27. 

    A scan which uses a radioactive tracer to examine heart function is a:

    • A.

      IVP

    • B.

      VQ scan

    • C.

      SPECT scan

    • D.

      MUGA scan

    Correct Answer
    D. MUGA scan
    Explanation
    A multigated acquisition (MUGA) scan creates video images of the ventricles (lower chambers of the heart that hold blood) to check whether they are pumping blood properly. It shows any abnormalities in the size of the ventricles and in the movement of the blood through the heart. Other names for this test include cardiac blood pooling imaging, nuclear heart scan, nuclear ventriculography, and radionuclide ventriculography.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following contains a formatting error?

    • A.

      Bipolar leads: lead I, lead II, lead III

    • B.

      Limb leads: aVR, aVL, aVF

    • C.

      Grade I/IV systolic ejection murmur

    • D.

      ST-T elevation

    Correct Answer
    C. Grade I/IV systolic ejection murmur
    Explanation
    Per BOS3:
    14.1.2 Murmurs
    Murmurs are graded from soft to loud and are written in Arabic numerals. Systolic murmurs are graded on a scale of 1 to 6, and diastolic murmurs are graded on a scale of 1 to 4.

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  • 29. 

    A mother brings her child into the ER and the PA dictates, "This is an 18-month-old child with FUO." The abbreviation FUO means:

    • A.

      Full undescended orchitis

    • B.

      Fever with urinary obstruction

    • C.

      Followup orders

    • D.

      Fever of unknown origin

    Correct Answer
    D. Fever of unknown origin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fever of unknown origin." In medical terminology, FUO stands for Fever of Unknown Origin. This term is used to describe a persistent fever that cannot be explained by a specific diagnosis after a thorough medical evaluation. It is commonly used when a patient has a fever for more than three weeks with no clear cause.

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  • 30. 

    A benign pigmented lesion of the skin, commonly called a mole is a/an:

    • A.

      Telangiectasia

    • B.

      Eschar

    • C.

      Nevus

    • D.

      Verruca

    Correct Answer
    C. Nevus
    Explanation
    Moles are common skin lesions. They are correctly called melanocytic naevi (American spelling ‘nevi’), as they are due to a proliferation of the pigment cells, melanocytes. If they are brown or black in colour, they may also be called pigmented naevi.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 09, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    HGH_HIM
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