Engineer's Day Quiz

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Engineers Day Quiz - Quiz

Are you an engineer? On the occasion of Engineer's day, take this quiz to find out how well do you know about engineering-related terms and instruments. There is a lot of information related to engineering, their study, and their profession. So, let's find out how much basic knowledge do you have? Take the quiz and answers the questions correctly to get a perfect score. If you miss out somewhere, we will help you know the answer. All the best! Share it with other engineers also.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the below Force do Flanges take?

    • A.

      • Fatigue

    • B.

      • Shear forces

    • C.

      • Compression

    • D.

      • Tensile

    Correct Answer
    B. • Shear forces
    Explanation
    Flanges are used to connect two pipes or components together. They are designed to withstand various forces and loads that can act on the joint. Shear forces are one of the main forces that flanges are designed to take. Shear forces occur when two forces act parallel to each other but in opposite directions, causing the material to slide or deform. In the case of flanges, shear forces can occur due to the pressure or movement of fluids or gases within the pipes. Therefore, the correct answer is shear forces.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the below drive transmits the power without a slip?

    • A.

      • Belt drive

    • B.

      • Cone drive

    • C.

      • Rope

    • D.

      • Chain drive

    Correct Answer
    D. • Chain drive
    Explanation
    A chain drive transmits power without slip because it uses a chain to connect two or more sprockets, ensuring a positive engagement between the driver and driven components. This allows for efficient power transfer without any slippage, making it a reliable method for transmitting power in various applications.

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  • 3. 

    In Simple Harmonic Motion, the product of time period and frequency is 

    • A.

      • Zero

    • B.

      • One

    • C.

      • n/2

    • D.

      • n

    Correct Answer
    B. • One
    Explanation
    In Simple Harmonic Motion, the product of time period and frequency is always equal to one. This is because the time period represents the time taken for one complete cycle of motion, while the frequency represents the number of cycles per unit time. Since the product of these two quantities gives the total number of cycles in a given time, it must always be equal to one. This relationship holds true for all simple harmonic oscillators, regardless of their specific characteristics or parameters.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is an open pair?

    • A.

      • Ball and socket

    • B.

      • Journal bearing

    • C.

      • Lead screw and nut

    • D.

      • Cam and follower

    Correct Answer
    A. • Ball and socket
    Explanation
    A ball and socket is an open pair because it consists of a ball-shaped end fitting into a socket, allowing for a wide range of movement and rotation. This type of joint is commonly found in the human body, such as the hip and shoulder joints, as well as in mechanical systems like certain types of hinges. The other options, journal bearing, lead screw and nut, and cam and follower, are all closed pairs as they involve contact between two surfaces without the ability for free rotation.

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  • 5. 

    On which day the Engineers Day will be Celebrated in India?

    • A.

      • Sept 15

    • B.

      • Sept 16

    • C.

      • Sept 14

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. • Sept 15
    Explanation
    Engineers Day is celebrated in India on September 15th each year. This day is dedicated to honoring the contributions and achievements of engineers in the country. The date was chosen to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, a renowned engineer and statesman in India. Sir Visvesvaraya played a significant role in the development of infrastructure and industrialization in India. Thus, September 15th is the correct answer for the day on which Engineers Day is celebrated in India.

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  • 6. 

    When heated, the toughness of the material.

    • A.

      • Increases

    • B.

      • Decreases

    • C.

      • Remains unchanged

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. • Decreases
    Explanation
    When a material is heated, the energy supplied to the atoms or molecules causes them to vibrate more vigorously. This increased vibration disrupts the regular arrangement of the particles, leading to a decrease in the material's toughness. As a result, the material becomes more brittle and less resistant to deformation or fracture. Therefore, the correct answer is that the toughness of the material decreases when heated.

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  • 7. 

    Soderberg’s relation is based on 

    • A.

      • Elastic strength

    • B.

      • Yield strength

    • C.

      • Shear strength

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. • Yield strength
    Explanation
    Soderberg's relation is a design criterion used in engineering to determine the maximum allowable stress on a material. It is based on the yield strength of the material, which is the point at which it begins to deform plastically. By using the yield strength in Soderberg's relation, engineers can ensure that the material will not undergo permanent deformation or failure under the applied load. Therefore, the correct answer is yield strength.

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  • 8. 

    What happens to the Velocity ratio, If the center distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is varied within the limits

    • A.

      • Increases

    • B.

      • Decreases

    • C.

      • Remains unchanged

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. • Remains unchanged
    Explanation
    The velocity ratio refers to the ratio of the angular velocity of the driving gear to the angular velocity of the driven gear in a gear system. If the center distance of the mating gears with involute teeth is varied within the limits, it does not affect the angular velocities of the gears. Therefore, the velocity ratio remains unchanged.

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  • 9. 

    A strut is subjected to which of the below force.

    • A.

      • Axial compressive

    • B.

      • Axial tensile

    • C.

      • Tangential

    • D.

      • Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. • Axial compressive
    Explanation
    A strut is a structural member that is primarily designed to resist compressive forces. Therefore, it is subjected to axial compressive forces. Axial compressive forces act along the axis of the strut, causing it to shorten or buckle under the applied load. Axial tensile forces, tangential forces, or any other types of forces are not typically applied to a strut.

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  • 10. 

    The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called.

    • A.

      • Centre of pressure

    • B.

      • Metacentre

    • C.

      • Centre of buoyancy

    • D.

      • Any of these

    Correct Answer
    C. • Centre of buoyancy
    Explanation
    The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called the center of buoyancy. This point represents the average position of the buoyant force acting on an object submerged in a fluid. It is the point where the upward buoyant force is considered to act, and it helps determine the stability and equilibrium of floating or submerged objects. The center of buoyancy is an important concept in fluid mechanics and is used in the analysis of floating vessels and other submerged structures.

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  • 11. 

    Who invented windshield wipers?

    • A.

      • Mary Anderson

    • B.

      • Charles Lindbergh

    • C.

      • Amelia Earhart

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. • Mary Anderson
    Explanation
    Mary Anderson is credited with inventing the windshield wipers. In 1903, she came up with the idea of a manually operated device that could clear snow, rain, and debris from a windshield, improving visibility while driving. She was granted a patent for her invention in 1905, but it took several years for windshield wipers to become widely adopted in the automotive industry. Mary Anderson's invention revolutionized driving safety and has since become a standard feature in all automobiles.

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  • 12. 

    In an irreversible cyclic process, the entropy.

    • A.

      • Remains constant

    • B.

      • Decreases

    • C.

      • Increases

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. • Increases
    Explanation
    In an irreversible cyclic process, the entropy increases. This is because irreversible processes tend to generate more disorder or randomness in the system, leading to an increase in entropy. The second law of thermodynamics states that in any spontaneous process, the total entropy of a closed system always increases. Therefore, in an irreversible cyclic process, where the system undergoes a series of irreversible changes and returns to its initial state, the overall entropy of the system will increase.

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  • 13. 

    When the cut-off ratio is __________, the efficiency of the Diesel cycle approaches Otto cycle efficiency.

    • A.

      • Zero

    • B.

      • 1/5

    • C.

      • 4/5

    • D.

      • One

    Correct Answer
    A. • Zero
    Explanation
    When the cut-off ratio is zero, it means that no heat is rejected during the expansion process in the Diesel cycle. This is equivalent to the Otto cycle, where all the heat is added at constant volume. Therefore, when the cut-off ratio is zero, the efficiency of the Diesel cycle approaches the efficiency of the Otto cycle.

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  • 14. 

    What is the escape velocity on the earth?

    • A.

      • 10.2km/s

    • B.

      • 11.2km/s

    • C.

      • 12.2km/s

    • D.

      • 14.2km/s

    Correct Answer
    B. • 11.2km/s
    Explanation
    The escape velocity on Earth is the minimum velocity an object needs to escape the gravitational pull of the Earth and enter into space. It is calculated using the formula v = √(2GM/r), where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, and r is the radius of the Earth. The correct answer of 11.2km/s indicates that an object would need to reach this velocity to escape Earth's gravitational pull.

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  • 15. 

    The Boeing 787 is more fuel-efficient than its predecessor 767 by,

    • A.

      • 15%

    • B.

      • 25%

    • C.

      • 35%

    • D.

      • 20%

    Correct Answer
    D. • 20%
    Explanation
    The Boeing 787 is more fuel-efficient than its predecessor 767 by 20%. This means that the 787 requires 20% less fuel to operate compared to the 767. This improvement in fuel efficiency can be attributed to several factors such as the use of advanced materials, improved aerodynamics, and more efficient engines. Ultimately, this allows the 787 to offer cost savings and reduced environmental impact compared to the 767.

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  • 16. 

    What is the range of power produced in gas turbine engines?

    • A.

      • 1000HP

    • B.

      • 15000HP

    • C.

      • 145000HP

    • D.

      • 10000HP

    Correct Answer
    C. • 145000HP
    Explanation
    Gas turbine engines are known for their high power output, making them suitable for a variety of applications. The range of power produced in gas turbine engines can vary, but the given answer of 145000HP represents a realistic and commonly seen value. This level of power output allows gas turbine engines to be used in various industries such as aviation, power generation, and marine propulsion.

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  • 17. 

    The range of temperatures measured by a turbine gas temperature sensor?

    • A.

      • -10 to 1000 F

    • B.

      • -45 to 2300 F

    • C.

      • -100 to 1000 F

    • D.

      • -100 to 2000 F

    Correct Answer
    B. • -45 to 2300 F
    Explanation
    The range of temperatures measured by a turbine gas temperature sensor is -45 to 2300 F. This means that the sensor is capable of measuring temperatures as low as -45 F and as high as 2300 F.

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  • 18. 

    Which is the Launch Center for the Indian Space Research Organization?

    • A.

      • Satish Dhawan Space Centre

    • B.

      • Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

    • C.

      None

    • D.

      AIIMS

    Correct Answer
    A. • Satish Dhawan Space Centre
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Satish Dhawan Space Centre. This is the launch center for the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). It is located in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh and is responsible for the launch of various satellites and space missions conducted by ISRO. The center was renamed in 2002 in honor of Satish Dhawan, who was a renowned Indian scientist and served as the chairman of ISRO from 1972 to 1984.

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  • 19. 

    Fatigue failure occurs when:

    • A.

      • Repeatedly or cyclically loaded above its yield point

    • B.

      • Repeatedly or cyclically loaded below its yield point

    • C.

      • Constant stress over a period of time

    • D.

      • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. • Repeatedly or cyclically loaded below its yield point
    Explanation
    Fatigue failure occurs when a material is repeatedly or cyclically loaded below its yield point. This means that even though the stress applied to the material is below its yield point, the repeated or cyclic loading over a period of time can still cause the material to fail. This type of failure is common in materials that are subjected to constant stress over a long period, leading to the weakening and eventual failure of the material.

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  • 20. 

    Most of the sun's energy is transferred by what mode of heat transfer?

    • A.

      • Radiation

    • B.

      • Convection

    • C.

      • Conduction

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. • Radiation
    Explanation
    Radiation is the mode of heat transfer through which most of the sun's energy is transferred. Radiation is the process by which energy is emitted in the form of electromagnetic waves, such as light and heat, and travels through space or a medium. In the case of the sun, it emits a tremendous amount of energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation, which is then transferred to Earth. This energy is responsible for heating the Earth's surface and atmosphere, and is the primary source of heat for our planet. Convection and conduction also play a role in heat transfer, but radiation is the dominant mode for the sun's energy transfer.

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  • 21. 

    Which of these was the first aerospace product of legacy Goodrich Corporation?

    • A.

      • Landing gears

    • B.

      • Sensors

    • C.

      • Tyres

    • D.

      • Actuators

    Correct Answer
    C. • Tyres
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Tyres". Goodrich Corporation's first aerospace product was tyres. This suggests that Goodrich Corporation initially focused on manufacturing tyres for aerospace applications before expanding into other aerospace products.

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  • 22. 

    An adiabatic process is one in which:

    • A.

      O no heat enters or leaves the gas

    • B.

      O the temperature of the gas changes

    • C.

      O the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work done

    • D.

      O all of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. O all of the above
    Explanation
    An adiabatic process is a thermodynamic process in which no heat is exchanged between the system and its surroundings. This means that no heat enters or leaves the gas. Additionally, during an adiabatic process, the temperature of the gas can change due to the compression or expansion of the gas. Finally, the change in internal energy during an adiabatic process is equal to the mechanical work done on or by the gas. Therefore, all of the given options are correct and describe an adiabatic process.

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  • 23. 

    Which of these was the first manned mission by NASA?

    • A.

      • Freedom 5

    • B.

      • Freedom 6

    • C.

      • Freedom 9

    • D.

      • Freedom 7

    Correct Answer
    D. • Freedom 7
    Explanation
    Freedom 7 was the first manned mission by NASA. This mission took place on May 5, 1961, and was piloted by Alan Shepard. Shepard became the first American to travel into space aboard the Freedom 7 spacecraft. The mission lasted only 15 minutes but was a significant milestone in the early days of space exploration.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is correct?

    • A.

       Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure.

    • B.

       Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure.

    • C.

       Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure.

    • D.

       Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A.  Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure.
    Explanation
    The correct statement is "Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure." This equation represents the relationship between the absolute pressure, which is the total pressure exerted by a fluid, the gauge pressure, which is the pressure measured relative to atmospheric pressure, and the atmospheric pressure itself. By adding the gauge pressure to the atmospheric pressure, we can calculate the absolute pressure.

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  • 25. 

    In order to measure the flow, Venturimeter, it is installed in

    • A.

      • horizontal line

    • B.

      • inclined line with flow upwards

    • C.

      • inclined line with flow downwards

    • D.

      • any direction and in any location

    Correct Answer
    D. • any direction and in any location
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "any direction and in any location". This means that a Venturimeter can be installed in any direction (horizontal, inclined with flow upwards, inclined with flow downwards) and in any location. This flexibility allows for accurate measurement of flow regardless of the specific installation conditions.

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  • 26. 

    Which was the first aircraft from Airbus to have both Fuselage and Wings made from CFRP?

    • A.

      • A320

    • B.

      • A380

    • C.

      • A350

    • D.

      • A340

    Correct Answer
    C. • A350
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A350. The A350 was the first aircraft from Airbus to have both the fuselage and wings made from CFRP (carbon fiber reinforced polymer). CFRP is a lightweight and strong material that helps improve fuel efficiency and reduce the overall weight of the aircraft. This technological advancement in construction materials allows for better performance and increased range for the A350.

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  • 27. 

    In jet propulsion:

    • A.

      • the propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body

    • B.

      • the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body

    • C.

      • its functioning does not depend upon the presence of air

    • D.

      • none of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. • the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
    Explanation
    Jet propulsion involves causing the propulsive matter to flow around the propelled body. This means that instead of being ejected from within the propelled body or depending on the presence of air, the propulsive matter is directed to flow around the body, creating a force that propels it forward. This method of propulsion is commonly used in jet engines, where the combustion gases are directed to flow around the engine and out the back, creating thrust.

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  • 28. 

    Segmental chips are formed during machining:

    • A.

      • mild steel

    • B.

      • cast iron

    • C.

      • high-speed steel

    • D.

      • high carbon steel

    Correct Answer
    B. • cast iron
    Explanation
    Segmental chips are formed during machining of cast iron. This is because cast iron has a brittle nature and low ductility, which causes the material to break into small segments or chips during the machining process. In contrast, mild steel, high-speed steel, and high carbon steel are more ductile and tend to form continuous chips during machining.

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  • 29. 

    Accuracy of Micrometers, Callipers, Dial gauges can be checked by

    • A.

      • Foeler gauge

    • B.

      • Ring gauge

    • C.

      • Plug gauge

    • D.

      • Slip gauge

    Correct Answer
    D. • Slip gauge
    Explanation
    Slip gauges are used to check the accuracy of micrometers, callipers, and dial gauges. Slip gauges are precision ground blocks of known thickness that can be stacked together to create a precise measurement standard. By comparing the measurement taken by the instrument being tested with the known thickness of the slip gauges, the accuracy of the instrument can be determined. Therefore, slip gauges are an effective tool for checking the accuracy of micrometers, callipers, and dial gauges.

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  • 30. 

    Specify the sequence correctly.

    • A.

      • Grain growth, recrystallization, stress relief

    • B.

      • Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallization

    • C.

      • Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth

    • D.

      • Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallization

    Correct Answer
    C. • Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth

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  • Current Version
  • Jun 07, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 13, 2013
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