# 2AX5X V2 CDCs Quiz

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Questions and Answers
• 1.

### Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

• A.

B-1

• B.

B-2

• C.

B-4

• D.

B-5

Correct Answer
B. B-2
Explanation
The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

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• 2.

### Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?Type question here

• A.

B-1

• B.

B-2

• C.

B-4

• D.

C-1

Correct Answer
C. B-4
Explanation
A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used for maintenance purposes. Among the given options, B-4 is the correct answer as it is the only one that specifically mentions being a scissor-type maintenance stand. The other options do not provide any information about their type or purpose.

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• 3.

### What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

• A.

7,000.

• B.

8,000.

• C.

9,000.

• D.

10,000.

Correct Answer
B. 8,000.
Explanation
The correct answer is 8,000. This is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support.

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• 4.

### On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is

• A.

10 mpH.

• B.

15 mpH.

• C.

20 mpH.

• D.

25 mpH.

Correct Answer
C. 20 mpH.
Explanation
The correct answer is 20 mph. This means that the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 mph.

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• 5.

### What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

• A.

Tail

• B.

Axle.

• C.

Nose.

• D.

Fixed-height.

Correct Answer
B. Axle.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Axle." When changing a tire on an aircraft, a jack is typically placed under the axle. The axle is a structural component that supports the weight of the aircraft and connects the wheels to the body. Using a jack on the axle allows for safe and efficient tire replacement without causing damage to other parts of the aircraft.

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• 6.

### Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?

• A.

AGE personnel.

• B.

Aircrew personnel.

• C.

Shift supervisor.

• D.

Everyone.

Correct Answer
D. Everyone.
Explanation
The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document that records the inspection and servicing of aerospace ground equipment (AGE). It is important for all personnel involved in the maintenance process to ensure that this form is properly documented. This includes AGE personnel who are directly responsible for the equipment, aircrew personnel who may use the equipment, and the shift supervisor who oversees the maintenance operations. Therefore, it is the responsibility of everyone involved to ensure that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented.

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• 7.

### GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted

• A.

White with a green band near the bottom.

• B.

Green with a white band near the bottom.

• C.

White with a green band near the top.

• D.

Green with a white band near the top.

Correct Answer
D. Green with a white band near the top.
Explanation
The correct answer is green with a white band near the top. This is because GOX high-pressure cylinders are typically painted in this color scheme to indicate that they contain gaseous oxygen. The green color signifies the presence of oxygen, while the white band near the top helps to easily identify the cylinder and distinguish it from other cylinders.

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• 8.

### When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

• A.

AGE personnel only.

• B.

The highest ranking person on shift.

• C.

Qualified operators only.

• D.

Any person.

Correct Answer
C. Qualified operators only.
Explanation
The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer used for servicing aircraft should only be operated by qualified operators. This ensures that the person handling the trailer has the necessary knowledge and skills to safely and efficiently perform the task. Allowing any person to operate it could lead to accidents or mishandling of the equipment, potentially causing damage to the aircraft or endangering personnel. Therefore, it is crucial to restrict the operation of the trailer to qualified operators only.

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• 9.

### What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering SGNSC?

• A.

39

• B.

49

• C.

59

• D.

69

Correct Answer
B. 49
Explanation
The correct answer is 49. This suggests that the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering SGNSC is 49.

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• 10.

### What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?

• A.

3,000 psig.

• B.

3,500 psig.

• C.

4,400 psig.

• D.

5,200 psig.

Correct Answer
C. 4,400 psig.
Explanation
The maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen is 4,400 psig.

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• 11.

### The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to

• A.

200 psi.

• B.

350 psi.

• C.

3,200 psi.

• D.

3,500 psi.

Correct Answer
C. 3,200 psi.
Explanation
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to 3,200 psi. This means that the compressor can operate within this pressure range without any issues. Pressure ranges outside of this range may cause damage to the compressor or result in inefficient performance. Therefore, 3,200 psi is the correct answer as it falls within the usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor.

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• 12.

### The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of

• A.

200 psi.

• B.

300 psi.

• C.

3,500 psi.

• D.

3,600 psi.

Correct Answer
A. 200 psi.
Explanation
The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 psi. This means that the compressor can generate a maximum air pressure of 200 pounds per square inch. This level of pressure is suitable for many applications, such as inflating tires, powering pneumatic tools, and operating air-powered machinery. It is important to note that exceeding the maximum pressure rating of the compressor can lead to equipment damage or failure, so it is essential to operate within the specified limits.

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• 13.

### The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from

• A.

100 to 230 degrees F.

• B.

115 to 250 degrees F.

• C.

125 to 270 degrees F.

• D.

150 to 280 degrees F.

Correct Answer
D. 150 to 280 degrees F.
Explanation
The correct answer is 150 to 280 degrees F. This is because the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that can be set within this temperature range.

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• 14.

### What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?

• A.

5 mpH.

• B.

10 mpH.

• C.

15 mpH.

• D.

20 mpH.

Correct Answer
D. 20 mpH.
Explanation
The maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner is 20 mph. This means that the air conditioner can be safely towed at speeds up to 20 mph without causing any damage or issues. It is important to adhere to this maximum tow speed to ensure the safety of the air conditioner and to prevent any potential accidents or damage.

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• 15.

### The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from

• A.

47 to 150 degrees F.

• B.

47 to 200 degrees F.

• C.

57 to 150 degrees F.

• D.

57 to 200 degrees F.

Correct Answer
B. 47 to 200 degrees F.
Explanation
The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from 47 to 200 degrees F. This means that the air conditioner can provide air at temperatures as low as 47 degrees Fahrenheit and as high as 200 degrees Fahrenheit. This wide range of temperature control allows for flexibility in meeting different cooling or heating needs in various environments.

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• 16.

### The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces

• A.

25.5 VDC.

• B.

27.5 VDC.

• C.

28.5 VDC.

• D.

30.5 VDC.

Correct Answer
C. 28.5 VDC.
Explanation
The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces a voltage of 28.5 VDC.

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• 17.

### What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?

• A.

A/M32A-95.

• B.

A/M32A-86

• C.

A/M32A-60

• D.

AF/M-32R-3

Correct Answer
C. A/M32A-60
Explanation
The A/M32A-60 unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, as well as pneumatic power, for ground maintenance.

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• 18.

### Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?

• A.

1-1A-8.

• B.

25C2-3-372-11.

• C.

32A1-4.219-45

• D.

35C2-3-372-11.

Correct Answer
D. 35C2-3-372-11.
Explanation
The correct answer is 35C2-3-372-11. This technical order contains the operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60.

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• 19.

### The FL-1D floodlight consists of two

• A.

100 watt lamp fixtures.

• B.

1,000 watt lamp fixtures.

• C.

10,000 watt lamp fixtures.

• D.

100,000 watt lamp fixtures.

Correct Answer
B. 1,000 watt lamp fixtures.
Explanation
The FL-1D floodlight consists of two 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. This means that each lamp fixture has a power rating of 1,000 watts. The total power consumption of the floodlight is the sum of the power ratings of the two lamp fixtures, which is 2,000 watts. Therefore, the correct answer is 1,000 watt lamp fixtures.

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• 20.

### What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smotth surfaces?

• A.

5 mpH.

• B.

10 mpH.

• C.

15 mpH.

• D.

20 mpH.

Correct Answer
D. 20 mpH.
Explanation
The maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces is 20 mph.

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• 21.

### What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?

• A.

A diesel engine.

• B.

An electric motor.

• C.

A gasoline engine.

• D.

A hydraulic motor.

Correct Answer
B. An electric motor.
Explanation
The MK-3A-1 is driven by an electric motor. This means that the vehicle is powered by electricity rather than diesel, gasoline, or hydraulic power. An electric motor is a common choice for many vehicles as it offers a quiet and efficient operation, while also reducing emissions compared to traditional combustion engines.

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• 22.

### How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?

• A.

Primary and Secondary.

• B.

Primary and Alternate.

• C.

Number 1 and Number 2.

• D.

Left and right.

Correct Answer
C. Number 1 and Number 2.
Explanation
The hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand are designated as Number 1 and Number 2.

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• 23.

### The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?

• A.

19 gallons.

• B.

27 gallons.

• C.

30 gallons.

• D.

60 gallons.

Correct Answer
B. 27 gallons.
Explanation
The correct answer is 27 gallons. This means that the MJ-2A reservoir is designed to hold a total of 27 gallons of fluid.

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• 24.

### The MB-4 Coleman incorporates

• A.

Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive.

• B.

Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.

• C.

Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive.

• D.

Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.

Correct Answer
D. Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.
Explanation
The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four-wheel steering, which means that all four wheels can turn in the same direction, allowing for improved maneuverability and tight turning radius. Additionally, it also has four-wheel drive, which means that power is delivered to all four wheels simultaneously, providing better traction and off-road capabilities. This combination of features makes the MB-4 Coleman a highly versatile and capable vehicle for various terrains and driving conditions.

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• 25.

### What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?

• A.

15 mpH.

• B.

20 mpH.

• C.

25 mpH.

• D.

55 mpH.

Correct Answer
B. 20 mpH.
Explanation
The maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman is 20 mph. This means that the vehicle is designed to operate at a maximum speed of 20 mph, and it is likely limited by the vehicle's engine power or other factors. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to ensure safe and proper operation of the MB-4 Coleman.

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• 26.

### What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer?

• A.

Mechanical.

• B.

Pneumatic.

• C.

Hydraulic.

• D.

Electrical.

Correct Answer
D. Electrical.
Explanation
The MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle utilizes an electrical steering system that allows for various steering modes. This system enables two-wheel steer, where only the front or rear wheels are steered, four-wheel coordinated steer, where all wheels move together in the same direction, and four-wheel oblique steer, where the wheels move independently to achieve a desired angle. The electrical steering system provides the necessary control and flexibility to achieve these different steering modes efficiently.

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• 27.

### Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications?

• A.

Reduce shearing.

• B.

Prevent vibration.

• C.

Prevent corrosion.

• D.

Reduce shimming.

Correct Answer
C. Prevent corrosion.
Explanation
Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two dissimilar metals come into contact, such as aluminum and steel, a galvanic reaction can occur, leading to corrosion. By placing an aluminum alloy washer between the steel bolt and the aluminum alloy part, it acts as a barrier and prevents direct contact between the two metals, reducing the likelihood of corrosion.

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• 28.

### How are special bolts identified?

• A.

By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering.

• B.

By a galvanized-plated steel covering.

• C.

The bolt head is marked with a triangle.

• D.

The bolt head is marked with the letter S.

Correct Answer
D. The bolt head is marked with the letter S.
Explanation
Special bolts are identified by a marking on the bolt head. In this case, the marking is the letter S. This marking serves as a visual indicator that the bolt is special and may have specific properties or uses. The other options, such as a zinc-plated nickel steel covering or a galvanized-plated steel covering, do not necessarily indicate that the bolt is special, as these coverings can be applied to regular bolts as well. Therefore, the correct answer is that special bolts are identified by the letter S marked on the bolt head.

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• 29.

### Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?

• A.

Stud.

• B.

Clevis.

• C.

Eyebolt.

• D.

Hexhead.

Correct Answer
B. Clevis.
Explanation
The clevis bolt is never used in areas where tension is present because it has a pin and cotter arrangement that allows for rotation and movement. However, it is often used as pins in control systems because it provides a secure and adjustable connection. The stud bolt, eyebolt, and hexhead bolt are all commonly used in areas where tension is present due to their design and ability to withstand high levels of force.

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• 30.

### Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?

• A.

A stud.

• B.

An eyebolt.

• C.

A hexhead.

• D.

An internal wrenching type.

Correct Answer
D. An internal wrenching type.
Explanation
The internal wrenching type bolt has a recessed head and is commonly used in high-tension applications. This type of bolt is designed with a hexagonal or square socket on its head, allowing for the use of an Allen wrench or other similar tools to tighten or loosen it. The recessed head provides a more secure and flush fit compared to other bolt types, making it ideal for applications where high tension and reliability are crucial.

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• 31.

### Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

• A.

Knurl beside the fork.

• B.

Groove by the cable eye.

• C.

Knurl beside the pin eye.

• D.

Groove on the end of the barrel.

Correct Answer
D. Groove on the end of the barrel.
Explanation
Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. The groove serves as a visual indicator that the turnbuckle has left-hand threads. This is important because left-hand threads are designed to be tightened in the opposite direction of right-hand threads. By having a groove on the end of the barrel, it allows users to easily identify and differentiate turnbuckles with left-hand threads from those with right-hand threads.

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• 32.

### Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

• A.

Soft rubber.

• B.

pHenolic mix.

• C.

Non-magnetic.

• D.

Thermosetting plastic.

Correct Answer
A. Soft rubber.
Explanation
Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. This material is preferred because it is flexible and can create a tight seal when compressed. Soft rubber is also resistant to chemicals and can withstand high pressure and temperature conditions. It is an ideal choice for applications where a reliable and durable seal is required, such as in plumbing, automotive, and industrial equipment.

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• 33.

### A permanent magnet is produced from a material with

• A.

Low reluctance and low permeability.

• B.

High reluctance and low permeability.

• C.

High reluctance and high permeability.

• D.

High permeability and low retentivity.

Correct Answer
B. High reluctance and low permeability.
Explanation
A permanent magnet is produced from a material with high reluctance and low permeability because high reluctance means that the material resists the flow of magnetic flux, allowing it to retain its magnetism for a longer period of time. Low permeability means that the material does not easily allow magnetic flux to pass through it. This combination of high reluctance and low permeability allows the material to maintain its magnetism for a longer duration, making it suitable for use as a permanent magnet.

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• 34.

### When soft iron is brought close to a permanent magnet it is

• A.

Charged.

• B.

Repelled.

• C.

Energized.

• D.

Magnetized.

Correct Answer
D. Magnetized.
Explanation
When soft iron is brought close to a permanent magnet, the magnetic domains in the soft iron align themselves with the magnetic field of the permanent magnet. This alignment causes the soft iron to become magnetized, meaning it acquires its own magnetic field and becomes a temporary magnet. This magnetization occurs due to the interaction between the magnetic fields of the soft iron and the permanent magnet.

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• 35.

### The greater the current flow through an electromagnet, the

• A.

Less the strength.

• B.

Greater the strength.

• C.

Greater the retentivity.

• D.

Higher the reluctance of the core.

Correct Answer
B. Greater the strength.
Explanation
The greater the current flow through an electromagnet, the greater the strength. This is because the strength of an electromagnet is directly proportional to the amount of current flowing through it. As the current increases, more magnetic field lines are generated, resulting in a stronger magnetic field. Therefore, the correct answer is that the greater the current flow, the greater the strength of the electromagnet.

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• 36.

### Current flow in the most aircraft circuits is controlled by

• A.

Fuses.

• B.

Signals.

• C.

Batteries.

• D.

Switches.

Correct Answer
D. Switches.
Explanation
In aircraft circuits, the current flow is controlled by switches. Switches are used to open or close the circuit, allowing or preventing the flow of electricity. They provide a means of controlling the electrical systems in the aircraft, such as turning on or off lights, engines, or other components. Fuses protect the circuit from overcurrent, but they do not control the current flow. Signals are used for communication, and batteries provide power, but they do not directly control the current flow in the circuits.

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• 37.

### The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located

• A.

In the aircraft cabin.

• B.

In the nose wheel well.

• C.

In the utility compartments.

• D.

As far as possible from the unit being protected.

Correct Answer
A. In the aircraft cabin.
Explanation
The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located in the aircraft cabin because it allows for easy access and maintenance. Placing them in the cabin ensures that they can be easily monitored and serviced by the crew during flight. Additionally, locating them in the cabin helps to protect the devices from external factors such as extreme temperatures, moisture, and vibrations that may be present in other areas of the aircraft.

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• 38.

### What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals?

• A.

Direct.

• B.

Inductive.

• C.

Reversing.

• D.

Alternating.

Correct Answer
D. Alternating.
Explanation
The term that describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals is "alternating." This type of current flows in one direction for a certain period of time and then switches direction, creating a pattern of back-and-forth movement. This is in contrast to direct current, which flows in only one direction continuously. Inductive and reversing do not accurately describe this type of current.

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• 39.

### The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are

• A.

Blast air and ram air.

• B.

Engine oil and blast air.

• C.

Blast air and generator oil.

• D.

Generator oil and engine oil.

Correct Answer
B. Engine oil and blast air.
Explanation
The correct answer is engine oil and blast air. Brushless AC generators require cooling methods to prevent overheating. Engine oil is used to lubricate the generator's internal components and dissipate heat. It helps to maintain the generator's temperature within a safe range. Blast air is also used to cool the generator by blowing air over its surface, carrying away excess heat. This combination of engine oil and blast air provides an effective cooling system for brushless AC generators.

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• 40.

### The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approcimately

• A.

4,000 RPM.

• B.

6,000 RPM.

• C.

8,000 RPM.

• D.

10,000 RPM.

Correct Answer
C. 8,000 RPM.
Explanation
The correct answer is 8,000 RPM. The constant speed drive (CSD) is used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator. The RPM (revolutions per minute) refers to the speed at which the CSD operates. Since the question states that the CSD is used to drive the generator, the appropriate RPM would be the one that matches the generator's requirements. In this case, the correct RPM is 8,000, as it is the only option that falls within the given range.

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• 41.

### The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator constant speed drive (CSD) actuates at

• A.

325 Hz.

• B.

345 Hz.

• C.

365 Hz.

• D.

395 Hz.

Correct Answer
C. 365 Hz.
Explanation
The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator constant speed drive (CSD) actuates at 365 Hz. This means that when the generator's speed drops below 365 Hz, the underspeed switch is triggered and activates a safety mechanism. This mechanism could include shutting down the generator or initiating a corrective action to prevent damage or failure.

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• 42.

### What supplies rotary power to the input gear of the constant speed drive (CSD)?

• A.

Accessory gearbox.

• B.

Transmission shaft.

• C.

Torque converter.

• D.

Hydraulic gear.

Correct Answer
A. Accessory gearbox.
Explanation
The accessory gearbox supplies rotary power to the input gear of the constant speed drive (CSD). This means that the accessory gearbox transfers power to the CSD, allowing it to function properly. The other options, such as the transmission shaft, torque converter, and hydraulic gear, do not perform this specific function and are therefore not the correct answer.

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• 43.

### A battery's internal component that is a grid or framework which supports the active chemical materials is called the

• A.

Plate.

• B.

Separator.

• C.

Electrolyte.

• D.

Chemical solution.

Correct Answer
A. Plate.
Explanation
A battery's internal component that is a grid or framework which supports the active chemical materials is called the plate. The plate provides a structure for the active materials to adhere to and allows the chemical reactions to occur, which generates the electrical energy in the battery. The plate is typically made of a conductive material such as lead or lead dioxide, depending on the type of battery.

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• 44.

### A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has

• A.

12 cells.

• B.

19 cells.

• C.

20 cells.

• D.

24 cells.

Correct Answer
B. 19 cells.
Explanation
A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery typically consists of 12 cells connected in series. Each cell produces around 2 volts, so when they are connected in series, the total voltage adds up to 24 volts. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 cells.

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• 45.

### The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by

• A.

Pulsating current.

• B.

Constant current.

• C.

Varying current.

• D.

Eddy current.

Correct Answer
B. Constant current.
Explanation
The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by constant current because this type of battery requires a controlled and steady flow of current to ensure a complete and efficient charging process. Pulsating current, varying current, and eddy current may not provide the necessary consistency and stability for the battery to reach its maximum charge capacity.

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• 46.

### What type of motor can operate on alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)?

• A.

Shunt.

• B.

Circuit.

• C.

Universal.

• D.

Compound.

Correct Answer
C. Universal.
Explanation
A universal motor is capable of operating on both alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC). This type of motor is designed with a field winding and an armature winding connected in series, allowing it to adapt to both AC and DC power sources. The field winding provides the necessary magnetic field, while the armature winding generates the mechanical power. This versatility makes universal motors suitable for a wide range of applications, including household appliances, power tools, and small machines.

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• 47.

### A shunt-type motor has

• A.

Less speed regulation than a universal motor.

• B.

A field winding in a series with the armature.

• C.

Low starting torque and good speed regulation.

• D.

High starting torque and poor speed regulation.

Correct Answer
C. Low starting torque and good speed regulation.
Explanation
A shunt-type motor has low starting torque and good speed regulation. This means that it may not have the ability to produce a high amount of torque when starting up, but it can maintain a consistent speed even under varying load conditions. The field winding in a shunt-type motor is connected in parallel (shunt) with the armature, allowing for independent control of the field current. This configuration enables the motor to have good speed regulation, meaning it can maintain a relatively constant speed even when the load changes.

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• 48.

### The three stages of matter are

• A.

Liquids, gases, and minerals.

• B.

Gases, solids, and minerals.

• C.

Gases, solids, and organics.

• D.

Liquids, gases, and solids.

Correct Answer
D. Liquids, gases, and solids.
Explanation
The correct answer is liquids, gases, and solids. This is because these three states of matter are commonly known and observed in everyday life. Liquids have a definite volume but no definite shape, gases have no definite shape or volume, and solids have both a definite shape and volume. Minerals and organics are not considered as separate states of matter, but rather substances that can exist in any of the three states.

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• 49.

### When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have

• A.

Passed the elastic limit.

• B.

Lost the ability to expand.

• C.

Failed to meet elastic limit.

• D.

Passed the compression limit.

Correct Answer
A. Passed the elastic limit.
Explanation
When a force is applied to a solid and it undergoes a permanent change, such as deformation or breaking, it means that the solid has passed its elastic limit. The elastic limit is the maximum amount of stress or force that a material can withstand without undergoing permanent deformation. Therefore, the correct answer is "passed the elastic limit."

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• 50.

### The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its

• A.

Rigidity.

• B.

Usability.

• C.

Ability to compress within its container.

• D.

Ability to conform to the shape of its container.

Correct Answer
D. Ability to conform to the shape of its container.
Explanation
The correct answer is "ability to conform to the shape of its container." This is because liquids do not have a fixed shape and can take the shape of the container they are in. Unlike solids, liquids are not rigid and can flow and change shape easily. They have the ability to adapt and fill the space available to them, making them highly conformable to the shape of their container.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

• Current Version
• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Oct 21, 2013
Quiz Created by
Bigdawg

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