CDC 2AX5X Volume 3

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In its natural state oxygen is?

    • A.

      Tasteless, colorless, and odorless

    • B.

      Tasteless, volumeless and odorless

    • C.

      Tasteless, colorless, and Weightless

    • D.

      Volumesless, weightless and colorless

    Correct Answer
    A. Tasteless, colorless, and odorless
    Explanation
    Oxygen in its natural state does not have a taste, color, or odor. This means that when oxygen is in its natural form, it cannot be detected by our senses of taste, sight, or smell.

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  • 2. 

    What gaseous oxygen (GOX) system valve type prevents a complete loss of oxygen?

    • A.

      Filler

    • B.

      Check

    • C.

      Shutoff

    • D.

      Pressure-reducing

    Correct Answer
    B. Check
    Explanation
    A check valve is a type of valve that allows the flow of fluid in only one direction. In the case of a gaseous oxygen (GOX) system, a check valve prevents a complete loss of oxygen by ensuring that the flow of oxygen can only go in one direction and cannot flow back. This is important to maintain the integrity and safety of the system, as it prevents oxygen from escaping or leaking out completely.

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  • 3. 

    The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by cellulose tape that is

    • A.

      Brown and orange

    • B.

      blue and yellow

    • C.

      Green and white

    • D.

      Black and red

    Correct Answer
    C. Green and white
    Explanation
    The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by green and white cellulose tape. This color combination is used to distinguish the tubing from other systems in the aircraft. It helps maintenance personnel easily identify and locate the oxygen tubing for inspection, repair, or replacement. The green and white tape serves as a visual indicator and ensures that the oxygen system is properly maintained and serviced.

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  • 4. 

    The disadvantage of a continuous-flow oxygen regulator is that it

    • A.

      Wastes oxygen

    • B.

      Is usable below 10,000 feet

    • C.

      Is usable only above 20,000 feet

    • D.

      Delivers oxygen at varying pressures

    Correct Answer
    A. Wastes oxygen
    Explanation
    A continuous-flow oxygen regulator wastes oxygen because it delivers a constant flow of oxygen regardless of whether the user is inhaling or exhaling. This means that oxygen is being continuously released even when it is not being used by the individual, resulting in wastage.

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  • 5. 

    What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel?

    • A.

      16 man-minutes of oxygen

    • B.

      93 percent oxygen-enriched gas.

    • C.

      97 percent nitrogen-enriched gas.

    • D.

      100 percent oxygen-enriched gas.

    Correct Answer
    B. 93 percent oxygen-enriched gas.
    Explanation
    The molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supplies the OXYGEN regulator control panel with 93 percent oxygen-enriched gas. This means that the gas produced by the MSOGS concentrator is 93 percent oxygen, making it suitable for use in medical and aviation applications where a higher concentration of oxygen is required.

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  • 6. 

    Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of

    • A.

      600 to 1

    • B.

      680 to 1

    • C.

      800 to 1

    • D.

      860 to 1

    Correct Answer
    D. 860 to 1
    Explanation
    Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of 860 to 1. This means that when liquid oxygen is converted to its gaseous form, it expands to 860 times its original volume. This expansion ratio is important in various applications where oxygen is used, such as rocket propulsion systems, as it allows for efficient storage and transportation of oxygen in its liquid state, which can then be easily converted to gas when needed.

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  • 7. 

    Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system’s combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the

    • A.

      Fill position

    • B.

      Vent position

    • C.

      Normal position

    • D.

      Buildup position

    Correct Answer
    D. Buildup position
    Explanation
    The liquid oxygen (LOX) system's combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the buildup position, except during servicing. This means that the valve is set to allow the buildup of pressure in the system. This position is necessary for the proper functioning of the LOX system and ensures that the required pressure is maintained during normal operation.

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  • 8. 

    On an aircraft liquid oxygen (LOX) system, the handle on a manually operated buildup and vent valve is designed to prevent

    • A.

      Slow pressure buildup

    • B.

      Rapid venting of system pressure

    • C.

      LOX system pressure loss during maintenance

    • D.

      The filler access door from closing in the vent position

    Correct Answer
    D. The filler access door from closing in the vent position
    Explanation
    The handle on a manually operated buildup and vent valve is designed to prevent the filler access door from closing in the vent position.

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  • 9. 

    Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section?

    • A.

      Intake

    • B.

      Turbine

    • C.

      Exhaust

    • D.

      Compressor

    Correct Answer
    D. Compressor
    Explanation
    Bleed air is usually taken from the compressor section of the engine. The compressor is responsible for compressing incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber. Bleed air is extracted from the compressor at various stages and is used for various purposes such as cabin pressurization, air conditioning, anti-icing, and hydraulic system operation. Extracting air from the compressor ensures that the air is at a high pressure and temperature, making it suitable for these applications.

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  • 10. 

    Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the

    • A.

      Ambient pressure and ambient temperature.

    • B.

      Engine throttle setting and ambient altitude.

    • C.

      Ambient pressure and engine throttle setting.

    • D.

      Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature.

    Correct Answer
    D. Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature.
    Explanation
    The temperature and pressure in the aircraft engine's bleed air system are influenced by the engine throttle setting and the ambient temperature. The throttle setting determines the amount of air being taken in by the engine, which affects the temperature and pressure of the bleed air system. The ambient temperature also plays a role as it affects the temperature of the air entering the engine. Therefore, the engine throttle setting and ambient temperature are the factors that determine the temperature and pressure in the bleed air system.

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  • 11. 

    What is the purpose of the engine bleed air (EBA) check valves?

    • A.

      Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air.

    • B.

      Maintain balanced airflow from each engine.

    • C.

      Provide a primary source for compressed bleed air.

    • D.

      Reduce bleed air pressure when the pressure is too high.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the engine bleed air (EBA) check valves is to prevent the loss of compressed bleed air. These valves ensure that the air remains contained within the system and does not escape. By preventing the loss of compressed bleed air, the EBA check valves help maintain the efficiency and functionality of the aircraft's systems that rely on this air, such as the air conditioning and pressurization systems.

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  • 12. 

    What engine bleed air (EBA) component prevents loss of air through the engine when it is shutdown

    • A.

      Check valve

    • B.

      Shutoff valve.

    • C.

      Isolation valve

    • D.

      Crossover valve.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shutoff valve.
    Explanation
    The shutoff valve is the engine bleed air (EBA) component that prevents the loss of air through the engine when it is shutdown. This valve is designed to close off the flow of air, preventing any leakage or loss of pressure. By shutting off the valve, the bleed air system is effectively sealed, ensuring that no air escapes from the engine. This is important for maintaining system efficiency and preventing any potential damage or loss of functionality.

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  • 13. 

    The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of

    • A.

      Titanium.

    • B.

      Aluminum.

    • C.

      Stainless steel.

    • D.

      Aluminum/nickel alloy.

    Correct Answer
    C. Stainless steel.
    Explanation
    The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of stainless steel because it is a strong and durable material that can withstand the high pressures and temperatures involved. Stainless steel is also resistant to corrosion, which is important in air-conditioning systems where moisture and condensation can occur. Additionally, stainless steel has good thermal conductivity, allowing for efficient transfer of heat or cold air.

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  • 14. 

    What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting

    • A.

      Screwdriver

    • B.

      Center punch.

    • C.

      Rawhide mallet.

    • D.

      Ball peen hammer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Rawhide mallet.
    Explanation
    A rawhide mallet is used to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting. The rawhide material is soft and non-damaging, allowing the user to tap the clamp into place without causing any damage or distortion to the ducting or clamp. This ensures a proper seal and alignment, preventing any air leakage or misalignment in the ducting system.

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  • 15. 

    What type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting does not require a gasket?

    • A.

      Clamp flange.

    • B.

      Bolted flange.

    • C.

      Beaded flange.

    • D.

      Compressible flange

    Correct Answer
    D. Compressible flange
    Explanation
    A compressible flange is a type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting that does not require a gasket. This type of flange is designed to create a tight seal without the need for additional sealing materials like gaskets. The flange itself is made of a compressible material that can be tightened down to create a secure connection. This eliminates the need for gaskets, reducing the risk of leaks and simplifying the installation process.

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  • 16. 

    What lubricant can be used on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation?

    • A.

      Soap.

    • B.

      Water

    • C.

      Grease

    • D.

      Silicone.

    Correct Answer
    B. Water
    Explanation
    Water can be used as a lubricant on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation. Water acts as a temporary lubricant that reduces friction between the sleeve and the channel, making it easier to slide the sleeve into place. It is a common and easily accessible lubricant for this purpose.

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  • 17. 

    The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of

    • A.

      Fiber and fiberglass

    • B.

      Fiberglass and neoprene, or rubber

    • C.

      A soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh.

    • D.

      A soft aluminum, and fiber reinforced rubber or plastic.

    Correct Answer
    C. A soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh.
    Explanation
    The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of a soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh. This type of gasket is designed to provide a seal in areas where there is a need for compression and flexibility. The soft aluminum provides a pliable surface that can conform to irregularities in the ducting, while the fiber and metal mesh provide strength and durability. This combination of materials allows the gasket to effectively seal the ducting and prevent leaks.

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  • 18. 

    Expansion joints in bleed air systems are best used for

    • A.

      Ram air ducting.

    • B.

      A long run of ducting.

    • C.

      A short run of ducting.

    • D.

      Low-temperature/low-pressure ducting.

    Correct Answer
    C. A short run of ducting.
    Explanation
    Expansion joints in bleed air systems are best used for a short run of ducting. Expansion joints are designed to absorb the thermal expansion and contraction that occurs in ducting systems due to temperature changes. They allow for the movement and flexibility of the ducting, preventing stress and damage. In a short run of ducting, the expansion and contraction are more pronounced, making expansion joints particularly necessary to accommodate these movements. In longer runs of ducting, the expansion and contraction are spread out over a larger area, reducing the need for expansion joints.

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  • 19. 

    What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes?

    • A.

      Thermal compensators.

    • B.

      Expansion bellows

    • C.

      Puckered flaps.

    • D.

      Vent holes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Vent holes.
    Explanation
    Vent holes prevent fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes. As the aircraft ascends, the air pressure decreases, causing a potential for the ducts to expand. However, the presence of vent holes allows the air to escape, preventing the swelling of the ducts. This ensures that the ducts maintain their shape and functionality even at high altitudes.

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  • 20. 

    What is defined as “a depression in the duct wall, where the surface of the material isn’t cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material?”

    • A.

      Minor dent.

    • B.

      Major dent.

    • C.

      Scratch.

    • D.

      Gouge.

    Correct Answer
    B. Major dent.
    Explanation
    A major dent is defined as a depression in the duct wall that causes sharp bends or creases in the material, without cutting or removing the surface of the material. This suggests that the dent is significant and has caused noticeable damage to the material.

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  • 21. 

    “The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space” is the definition of

    • A.

      Engine bleed air.

    • B.

      Air conditioning.

    • C.

      Pressurization.

    • D.

      Air control.

    Correct Answer
    B. Air conditioning.
    Explanation
    Air conditioning refers to the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space. This system is responsible for maintaining a comfortable and controlled environment by regulating the temperature and humidity levels, as well as ensuring proper air circulation. Engine bleed air refers to the extraction of compressed air from the engine for various purposes, pressurization refers to the process of maintaining a higher pressure inside a space compared to the surrounding environment, and air control is a vague term that does not specifically encompass all the aspects mentioned in the definition.

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  • 22. 

    What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)?

    • A.

      Primary heat exchanger.

    • B.

      Air cycle machine.

    • C.

      Water separator.

    • D.

      Air cooler.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary heat exchanger.
    Explanation
    The primary heat exchanger is a component in the aircraft air conditioning system that cools the hot bleed air from the engine(s) by passing cold ram air through it. This process helps to regulate the temperature inside the aircraft and maintain a comfortable environment for passengers and crew. The primary heat exchanger acts as a radiator, dissipating the heat from the bleed air and cooling it down before it is circulated throughout the cabin.

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  • 23. 

    What aircraft air conditioning system component controls the flow of ram air through the primary heat exchangers?

    • A.

      Air cycle machine.

    • B.

      Refrigeration bypass valve.

    • C.

      Movable inlet and exit doors

    • D.

      Primary ram air controller assemblies.

    Correct Answer
    C. Movable inlet and exit doors
    Explanation
    Movable inlet and exit doors control the flow of ram air through the primary heat exchangers in an aircraft air conditioning system. These doors can be adjusted to regulate the amount of air entering and exiting the system, thereby controlling the temperature and pressure of the air flowing through the heat exchangers. By adjusting the position of these doors, the aircraft can maintain the desired temperature in the cabin and ensure efficient cooling of the air.

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  • 24. 

    The rapid cooling of bleed air causes

    • A.

      The air pressure to increase.

    • B.

      Moisture to condense in the form of fog.

    • C.

      Ice to form in the secondary heat exchanger.

    • D.

      A loss of pressure as it exits the air cycle machine compressor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Moisture to condense in the form of fog.
    Explanation
    When bleed air is rapidly cooled, the temperature of the air decreases, causing the moisture present in the air to condense. This condensation occurs in the form of fog, as the water vapor in the air turns into tiny water droplets. Therefore, the correct answer is that the rapid cooling of bleed air causes moisture to condense in the form of fog.

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  • 25. 

    As bleed air enters the compressor of the air cycle machine, its pressure is increased. With the increase in pressure, there is also an increase in temperature. Which component removes most of this increased temperature?

    • A.

      Primary heat exchanger.

    • B.

      Secondary heat exchanger

    • C.

      Air cycle machine bypass valve.

    • D.

      Air cycle machine expansion turbine.

    Correct Answer
    B. Secondary heat exchanger
    Explanation
    The secondary heat exchanger removes most of the increased temperature. As the bleed air enters the compressor of the air cycle machine, its pressure is increased, which also leads to an increase in temperature. The primary heat exchanger may remove some heat, but it is the secondary heat exchanger that is primarily responsible for removing most of the increased temperature. It is designed to transfer heat from the bleed air to the outside air, cooling it down before it goes back into the system.

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  • 26. 

    The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person’s blood vessels to

    • A.

      Shrink.

    • B.

      Rupture.

    • C.

      Contract.

    • D.

      Collapse.

    Correct Answer
    B. Rupture.
    Explanation
    The low atmospheric pressure at extremely high altitudes can cause a person's blood vessels to rupture. When the atmospheric pressure decreases, the pressure inside the blood vessels becomes higher than the surrounding pressure. This pressure difference can lead to the rupture of blood vessels, especially the smaller ones. This can result in internal bleeding and other health complications.

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  • 27. 

    What controls the action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system?

    • A.

      A jet pump.

    • B.

      Filtering cabin air.

    • C.

      The unpressurized range.

    • D.

      Regulating control chamber pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Regulating control chamber pressure.
    Explanation
    The action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system is controlled by regulating control chamber pressure. This means that the pressure in the control chamber is adjusted to control the opening and closing of the outflow valve, which regulates the cabin pressure. The other options, such as a jet pump, filtering cabin air, or the unpressurized range, do not directly control the action of the outflow valve in this type of pressurization system.

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  • 28. 

    What are the components of the differential section of the cabin pressure regulator?

    • A.

      A spring, metering valve, aneroid.

    • B.

      An aneroid, rocker arm, and fulcrum.

    • C.

      A rocker arm, fulcrum, and diaphragm.

    • D.

      A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve.

    Correct Answer
    D. A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve.
    Explanation
    The components of the differential section of the cabin pressure regulator are a diaphragm, spring, and metering valve. These components work together to regulate the cabin pressure. The diaphragm responds to changes in pressure, the spring provides the necessary force for the diaphragm to function, and the metering valve controls the flow of air to maintain the desired pressure in the cabin.

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  • 29. 

    What are the parts of the isobaric section of the cabin pressure regulator?What are the parts of the isobaric section of the cabin pressure regulator?

    • A.

      A diaphragm, fulcrum, and aneroid.

    • B.

      A rocker arm, diaphragm, and fulcrum.

    • C.

      An aneroid, spring, and metering valve.

    • D.

      A spring, metering valve, and rocker arm.

    Correct Answer
    C. An aneroid, spring, and metering valve.
    Explanation
    The isobaric section of the cabin pressure regulator consists of an aneroid, spring, and metering valve. The aneroid is a device that measures the pressure and adjusts the valve accordingly. The spring provides the necessary force to maintain the desired pressure level. The metering valve controls the flow of air to maintain a constant pressure inside the cabin. Together, these three components work together to regulate the cabin pressure and ensure a comfortable and safe environment for the passengers.

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  • 30. 

    What maintains pressure if the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight?

    • A.

      The outflow valves.

    • B.

      A manual controller

    • C.

      The cabin altitude selector.

    • D.

      A positive pressure relief valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. The outflow valves.
    Explanation
    If the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight, the outflow valves will maintain the pressure. The outflow valves are responsible for controlling the flow of air out of the cabin, and they can be manually adjusted to maintain the desired cabin pressure. Therefore, even if the pressure regulator fails, the outflow valves can still be used to regulate the cabin pressure and ensure the safety and comfort of the passengers and crew.

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  • 31. 

    What is the purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system?

    • A.

      Control the venting of cabin pressure.

    • B.

      Control the reference chamber pressure

    • C.

      Ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time.

    • D.

      Ensure that the aneroid and diaphragm inlet ports remain open.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system is to ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time. This is important for maintaining the desired cabin pressure and preventing any imbalances between the two valves. The pneumatic relay helps to synchronize the operation of the valves, ensuring that they open and close simultaneously to regulate the flow of air in and out of the cabin. This helps to maintain a stable and controlled pressurized environment inside the cabin for the comfort and safety of the occupants.

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  • 32. 

    N the variable isobaric pressurization system. the manual control valve is used as an alternate when the

    • A.

      Safety valve fails.

    • B.

      Outflow valve fails.

    • C.

      Pneumatic relay fails.

    • D.

      Cabin pressure controller fails.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cabin pressure controller fails.
    Explanation
    In the isobaric pressurization system, the cabin pressure controller is responsible for maintaining the desired cabin pressure. If the cabin pressure controller fails, it means that it is unable to regulate the cabin pressure effectively. In such a situation, the manual control valve is used as an alternate to manually control the cabin pressure. This allows the crew to maintain a safe and comfortable cabin environment in case of a failure in the cabin pressure controller.

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  • 33. 

    The normal connection for thermal switches in a fire warning system is in series with

    • A.

      Each other only.

    • B.

      The power source and with the warning light.

    • C.

      Each other and in parallel with the power source.

    • D.

      The warning light and parallel with each other.

    Correct Answer
    D. The warning light and parallel with each other.
    Explanation
    In a fire warning system, the normal connection for thermal switches is in parallel with each other and with the warning light. This means that all the thermal switches are connected together in a parallel circuit, and this entire parallel circuit is connected in parallel with the warning light. When any of the thermal switches detect a rise in temperature, it will close its circuit and activate the warning light. This configuration ensures that even if one of the thermal switches fails or is triggered, the warning light will still be activated.

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  • 34. 

    The fire detector, frequently used in fire warning systems, that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called

    • A.

      An electroconductive sensor

    • B.

      An Iron Fireman switch.

    • C.

      A photoconductive cell.

    • D.

      A FENWAL® switch.

    Correct Answer
    B. An Iron Fireman switch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "an Iron Fireman switch." This is because an Iron Fireman switch is a type of fire detector commonly used in fire warning systems. It consists of a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly, which allows it to detect the presence of fire and trigger the necessary response.

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  • 35. 

    The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of

    • A.

      10 Hz.

    • B.

      100 Hz.

    • C.

      200 Hz.

    • D.

      400 Hz.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 Hz.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 Hz because in a photoelectric circuit, the direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights is pulsed at a rate of 10 Hz. This means that the voltage is being turned on and off 10 times per second. Pulsing the voltage at a specific frequency allows for precise control of the lights and can be used for various applications such as dimming or flashing.

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  • 36. 

    A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by

    • A.

      Releasing a fine mist vapor.

    • B.

      Excluding oxygen from the area.

    • C.

      Removing nitrogen from the area.

    • D.

      Dispersing a large amount of liquid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Excluding oxygen from the area.
    Explanation
    A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by excluding oxygen from the area. Oxygen is necessary for combustion to occur, so by removing or reducing the presence of oxygen, the fire is deprived of the fuel it needs to sustain itself. This effectively extinguishes the fire.

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  • 37. 

    A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguishing agent in order to

    • A.

      Convert the liquid to a gas upon discharge.

    • B.

      Expel the agent from the bottle.

    • C.

      Assist in extinguishing the fire.

    • D.

      Stabilize the temperature.

    Correct Answer
    B. Expel the agent from the bottle.
    Explanation
    A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguishing agent in order to expel the agent from the bottle. This is because the pressure from the nitrogen gas builds up inside the bottle, causing the liquid agent to be forced out when the extinguisher is discharged. The expelled agent then acts to suppress the fire by smothering it or cooling it down, depending on the type of extinguishing agent used. The nitrogen charge is essential for propelling the agent out of the bottle effectively and efficiently.

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  • 38. 

    What liquid-agent fire extinguisher container component holds in both the liquid agent and the nitrogen charge?

    • A.

      Squib.

    • B.

      Frangible disc.

    • C.

      Bonnet assembly.

    • D.

      Rubber O-ring packing.

    Correct Answer
    B. Frangible disc.
    Explanation
    The frangible disc is the component of a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container that holds both the liquid agent and the nitrogen charge. A frangible disc is a thin, easily breakable disc that is designed to rupture when the pressure inside the container exceeds a certain level. This allows the liquid agent and nitrogen charge to be released, effectively extinguishing the fire. The other options, such as squib, bonnet assembly, and rubber O-ring packing, do not perform the same function as the frangible disc in holding both the liquid agent and the nitrogen charge.

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  • 39. 

    In a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container, why is the frangible disc undercut into pie-shaped sections?

    • A.

      Break cleanly into small pieces.

    • B.

      Allow undisturbed fluid flow through the system.

    • C.

      Enable the pieces to pass easily through the strainer

    • D.

      Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer.
    Explanation
    The frangible disc in a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container is undercut into pie-shaped sections in order to prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer. By dividing the disc into sections, it ensures that even if the disc breaks, the pieces will be large enough to be caught by the strainer, preventing any small fragments from entering the system. This helps maintain the functionality and effectiveness of the fire extinguisher by ensuring that only the desired liquid agent flows through the system without any obstruction or contamination.

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  • 40. 

    What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank?

    • A.

      Sump and drain.

    • B.

      Pump and drain.

    • C.

      Pressure relief valve.

    • D.

      Fuel-level control valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Sump and drain.
    Explanation
    The sump and drain are usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank. The sump is a reservoir that collects any sediment or water that may have accumulated in the tank. The drain is used to remove this accumulated sediment or water from the tank. This design ensures that any impurities or contaminants in the fuel settle at the bottom of the tank and can be easily drained out, preventing them from entering the fuel system and causing damage.

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  • 41. 

    A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of

    • A.

      Soft, malleable plastic.

    • B.

      Rubber or nylon material.

    • C.

      Hardened, pre-formed plastic.

    • D.

      Lightweight, pre-formed aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    B. Rubber or nylon material.
    Explanation
    A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of rubber or nylon material. Rubber and nylon are both soft and malleable materials that can easily adapt to the shape of the cavity. These materials can be molded and stretched to fit the available space, ensuring a tight and secure fit. Additionally, rubber and nylon are also flexible, which allows the tank to expand and contract as needed during changes in pressure or temperature.

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  • 42. 

    Wing tanks are

    • A.

      Bladder-type tanks that conform to the vacant cavity within the wing.

    • B.

      Lightweight, aluminum tanks inserted into empty wing cavities

    • C.

      Sealed-off parts of the wing structure

    • D.

      Soft, malleable plastic tanks.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sealed-off parts of the wing structure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sealed-off parts of the wing structure." Wing tanks are compartments within the wings of an aircraft that are sealed off from the rest of the wing structure. They are used to store fuel and are designed to be airtight and secure. This ensures that the fuel remains contained within the wing and does not leak or pose a safety hazard.

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  • 43. 

    A centrifugal-type aircraft fuel pump may be used

    • A.

      For boost, transfer, or air refueling operations

    • B.

      In any area requiring a pump with no moving parts.

    • C.

      To scavenge the remaining fuel in low areas of a fuel tank.

    • D.

      When the output volume of the pump must be in direct proportion to its speed.

    Correct Answer
    A. For boost, transfer, or air refueling operations
    Explanation
    A centrifugal-type aircraft fuel pump may be used for boost, transfer, or air refueling operations because it is capable of providing the necessary fuel pressure and flow rate required for these operations. This type of pump is designed to handle high volumes of fuel efficiently and is often used in situations where a pump with no moving parts is desired for reliability and durability. It is not used to scavenge remaining fuel in low areas of a fuel tank, as that is typically the function of a different type of pump. Additionally, while the output volume of the pump may vary with its speed, this is not the primary reason for its use in boost, transfer, or air refueling operations.

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  • 44. 

    What type of fuel pump must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing?

    • A.

      Jet.

    • B.

      Ejector.

    • C.

      Top-mounted centrifugal pump with variable-speed hydraulic drive.

    • D.

      Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor.

    Correct Answer
    D. Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor.
    Explanation
    A centrifugal pump with an electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing because it is used to pump fuel. This type of pump is commonly used in automotive and industrial applications where fuel needs to be transferred. The fuel- and vapor-proof housing ensures that there is no leakage or escape of fuel or vapor, which is important for safety reasons and to prevent any damage to the pump or surrounding equipment.

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  • 45. 

    What kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions?

    • A.

      Rotary-vane.

    • B.

      Top-mounted.

    • C.

      Dual-impeller.

    • D.

      In-line ejector.

    Correct Answer
    C. Dual-impeller.
    Explanation
    A dual-impeller centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions. This type of pump is designed with two impellers that rotate in opposite directions, allowing it to handle fluids in both directions of flow. This feature makes it suitable for situations where the pump needs to operate effectively in conditions where gravity is not assisting the flow of fuel.

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  • 46. 

    In a dual-impeller fuel pump what prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open?

    • A.

      An inlet screen.

    • B.

      An impeller screen.

    • C.

      A one-way check valve

    • D.

      A two-way check valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. An inlet screen.
    Explanation
    In a dual-impeller fuel pump, an inlet screen prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open. The inlet screen acts as a filter, preventing any debris or foreign objects from entering the pump and potentially interfering with the bypass valve. By blocking these objects, the inlet screen ensures that the bypass valve can function properly and prevents any unwanted interference or obstruction.

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  • 47. 

    What air refueling pump components depend on fuel for lubrication?

    • A.

      Rotors

    • B.

      Stators.

    • C.

      Bearings.

    • D.

      Impellers.

    Correct Answer
    C. Bearings.
    Explanation
    Bearings in an air refueling pump depend on fuel for lubrication. Bearings are mechanical components that support the rotating shafts and reduce friction between moving parts. In this case, the bearings rely on fuel to provide lubrication, ensuring smooth operation and preventing excessive wear and heat generation. Without proper lubrication, the bearings could fail, leading to pump malfunction or damage.

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  • 48. 

    What air refueling pump component removes fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impellers?

    • A.

      Rotor.

    • B.

      Stator.

    • C.

      Accumulator.

    • D.

      Vapor relief valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotor.
    Explanation
    The rotor is the air refueling pump component that removes fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impellers. The impellers generate centrifugal force, which creates fuel vapors. The rotor is responsible for removing these vapors from the pump, ensuring the smooth operation of the refueling process. The stator, accumulator, and vapor relief valve do not have this specific function.

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  • 49. 

    The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the

    • A.

      Direction of free flow.

    • B.

      Direction of restricted flow.

    • C.

      Location of the drilled hole in the valve.

    • D.

      Location of the manufacturer’s data block.

    Correct Answer
    A. Direction of free flow.
    Explanation
    The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the direction of free flow. This means that the fuel will flow in the direction that the arrow is pointing, allowing for proper functioning of the check valve. It is important to follow the direction of flow indicated by the arrow to ensure that the fuel system operates correctly and efficiently.

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  • 50. 

    A pressure-loaded fuel system check valve is used

    • A.

      When a reverse flow of fuel is desired.

    • B.

      To prevent the pump from overspeeding

    • C.

      When gravity flow through the valve is undesirable.

    • D.

      To prevent excessive pressures when the pump overspeeds

    Correct Answer
    C. When gravity flow through the valve is undesirable.
    Explanation
    A pressure-loaded fuel system check valve is used when gravity flow through the valve is undesirable. This means that the valve is designed to prevent fuel from flowing back due to gravity, which can cause issues such as fuel leakage or improper fuel distribution. By using a pressure-loaded check valve, the flow of fuel can be controlled and regulated in a way that ensures proper functioning of the fuel system.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 17, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Shalewis22
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