CDC Volume 1 UREs 2AX5X

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  • 1/117 Questions

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature it?

    • 2
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    • 6
    • 8
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CDC Volume 1 UREs 2AX5X - Quiz
About This Quiz

CDC Volume 1 UREs 2AX5X quiz assesses knowledge on safety, compliance, and environmental issues in maintenance procedures. It covers accident causation, safety training, hazardous material handling, and waste management, essential for new Airmen and seasoned professionals.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park in an isolated location ad then?

    • Spray with cold water

    • Cool with forced air from a blower

    • Cool with -high-pressure compressed air

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the vehicle should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brakes should be left to cool naturally without any external intervention. This is the safest method as it allows the heat to dissipate gradually without the risk of causing further damage or injury.

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  • 3. 

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Logistics and operations group commanders

    • Immediate supervisor

    • Wing commander

    • Everyone

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific group or individual. Each person, regardless of their position or role, should actively contribute to FOD prevention efforts. This includes logistics and operations group commanders, immediate supervisors, and even the wing commander. By emphasizing that everyone is responsible, it promotes a culture of awareness and accountability to prevent FOD incidents and maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 4. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office

    • The operations commander

    • The flight safety officer

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA, or Quality Assurance, is responsible for investigating dropped objects in most units. Quality Assurance departments typically have protocols and procedures in place to ensure the safety and quality of operations. Investigating dropped objects falls under their purview as part of their responsibility to identify and address any potential hazards or issues that may compromise safety. They will likely conduct thorough investigations, gather evidence, and implement corrective measures to prevent future incidents.

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  • 5. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the?

    • Red markings

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    When the gauge needle is within the green markings, it indicates that the pressure in the fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range. This means that the pressure is neither too high nor too low, ensuring that the fire extinguisher can effectively dispense the extinguishing agent when needed. The green markings serve as a visual indicator for users to easily determine if the fire extinguisher is ready for use.

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  • 6. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or vehicle operator

    • Supervisor or brake operator

    • Supervisor or wing walkers

    • Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor has the authority to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This ensures that there is a single designated person responsible for ensuring the safety of the operation and coordinating the movement of the aircraft. The supervisor is responsible for assessing the situation, considering all factors, and making an informed decision before giving the order to move.

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  • 7. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Unscheduled

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    • Protective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance refers to the proactive and planned activities carried out to ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and ready for use when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of parts to prevent breakdowns and minimize downtime. By identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems, preventive maintenance helps to extend the lifespan of equipment, improve reliability, and reduce the risk of unexpected failures. Therefore, preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need.

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  • 8. 

    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

    • Tail

    • Axle

    • Nose

    • Fixed-height

    Correct Answer
    A. Axle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Axle." When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. An axle jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its landing gear axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. This type of jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft during the tire-changing process.

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  • 9. 

    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by?

    • AGE personnel only

    • The highest ranking person on the shift

    • Qualified operator only

    • Any person

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified operator only
    Explanation
    The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer should only be operated by a qualified operator. This is important because handling gaseous nitrogen can be dangerous and requires specific knowledge and training. Allowing any person to operate the trailer could lead to accidents or mishandling of the equipment, which could have serious consequences. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that only individuals who have the necessary qualifications and expertise operate the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer.

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  • 10. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs, manuals, and CDCs

    • TOs, handbooks and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
    Explanation
    Maintenance procedures require the use of Manuals, TOs (Technical Orders), and handbooks. These directives provide detailed instructions and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks on various equipment and systems. Manuals contain step-by-step procedures, while TOs provide specific technical information and guidelines. Handbooks may include additional information and reference materials to support maintenance procedures. By utilizing these directives, maintenance personnel can ensure that procedures are carried out accurately and safely.

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  • 11. 

    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    Initial safety training is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen. This phase of training is conducted at the beginning of an individual's career and focuses on providing them with the fundamental knowledge and skills necessary to ensure their safety and the safety of others. It covers a wide range of topics, including hazard identification, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment. By emphasizing the importance of safety from the start, initial training sets the foundation for a strong safety culture within the organization.

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  • 12. 

    What affects radiation hazards?

    • Strength of emission, time of day and input power

    • Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather

    • Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area

    • Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather
    Explanation
    The answer is "Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather." These factors affect radiation hazards because the strength of emission determines the intensity of the radiation, the time of exposure determines the duration of exposure to radiation, and the weather can affect the dispersion and movement of radioactive particles.

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  • 13. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side?

    • 15 degrees

    • 45 degrees

    • 65 degrees

    • 95 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side because the engine exhaust and turbulence cause the sound waves to propagate in a cone shape known as the "jet noise cone". This cone widens as it moves away from the engine, reaching its maximum width at approximately 45 degrees from the rear and sides of the engine. At this angle, the sound waves are spread out and have less directionality, resulting in higher noise intensity.

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  • 14. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

    • Crew Chief

    • Flight engineer

    • Weapons personnel

    • Only senior personnel on special orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons personnel
    Explanation
    Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm these explosives safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have other responsibilities related to the aircraft, but the specific task of removing safety devices falls under the jurisdiction of weapons personnel. Only senior personnel on special orders may have authority over weapons personnel in certain exceptional cases.

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  • 15. 

    Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hanger you must?

    • Install shorting plugs and clips

    • Install mechanical safetying devices

    • Remove all ammunition and explosives

    • Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove all ammunition and explosives
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and the aircraft itself. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized, reducing the potential for damage or injury. It is a standard procedure followed to prevent any mishaps during the movement and storage of explosive-loaded aircraft.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

    • Base commander

    • Squadron commander

    • Supervision at all levels

    • Squadron QA section

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervision at all levels
    Explanation
    Supervision at all levels is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that everyone in the organization, from the base commander to the squadron commander, plays a role in maintaining and enforcing proper supply procedures. Each level of supervision is responsible for overseeing and monitoring the supply activities within their jurisdiction to ensure compliance with regulations and policies. This ensures that supplies are properly managed, accounted for, and used efficiently, ultimately contributing to the overall success and effectiveness of the organization.

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  • 17. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X is the?

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • Wing vice commander

    • Group commander

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This person is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, which indicates that a tool or equipment is missing. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher positions of authority, but they may not be directly involved in maintenance operations or have the specific knowledge to locate a lost tool. Therefore, they are not the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X.

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  • 18. 

    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time?

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses
    Explanation
    The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. The TBA (Training Business Area) is a platform that allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily view and track their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for both individuals and the Air Force as a whole, as it helps in assessing the readiness and capabilities of personnel.

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  • 19. 

    What is the percentage of accidents attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

    • 98

    • 50

    • 70

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98. This means that 98% of accidents are attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards. This suggests that the majority of accidents occur due to human error or unsafe conditions in the environment. It highlights the importance of promoting safety practices and addressing physical hazards to prevent accidents and ensure a safe working environment.

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  • 20. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by?

    • The US Air Force

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA. The EPA, or Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. They are the federal agency in the United States that is tasked with protecting human health and the environment. The EPA sets regulations and guidelines for the management and disposal of hazardous waste to ensure that it is handled properly and does not pose a risk to public health or the environment.

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  • 21. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • Dizziness

    • Emotional irritability

    • A feeling of emptiness

    • Impaired mental concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because it is not commonly associated with the condition. Noise fatigue typically manifests as symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. However, a feeling of emptiness is not directly related to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors or conditions.

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  • 22. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because its purpose is to provide a collection of resources that can be used for research and reference purposes. Unlike the training, aircraft, and operational libraries, which require up-to-date information for their specific purposes, the reference library focuses on providing a comprehensive collection of materials that may not need frequent updates.

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  • 23. 

    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • B-5

    Correct Answer
    A. B-2
    Explanation
    The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

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  • 24. 

    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates?

    • Two-wheel steering, two-wheel drive

    • Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive

    • Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive

    • Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive

    Correct Answer
    A. Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive
    Explanation
    The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four-wheel steering, which means that all four wheels can turn to improve maneuverability. Additionally, it also has four-wheel drive, meaning that power is delivered to all four wheels for enhanced traction and off-road capability.

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  • 25. 

    Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

    • Soft Rubber

    • Phenolic mix

    • Non-magnetic

    • Thermosetting plastic

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft Rubber
    Explanation
    Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. This material is preferred because it provides a tight and secure seal, preventing any leakage or loss of pressure. Soft rubber is flexible and can easily conform to irregular surfaces, ensuring a proper seal. It also has good resistance to chemicals, temperature variations, and wear, making it suitable for various applications where pressure sealing is required.

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  • 26. 

    Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when the predetermined torque value is reached?

    • Indicating type

    • Breakaway type

    • Screwdriver type

    • Internal wrenching type

    Correct Answer
    A. Breakaway type
    Explanation
    A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when the predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench has a mechanism that allows the handle to break away or disengage from the drive when the desired torque is achieved. This prevents over-tightening and ensures that the correct torque is applied to the fastener.

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  • 27. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

    • Exposed to the moist air

    • Exposed to a chemical

    • Connected to another part

    • Fabricated or manufactured

    Correct Answer
    A. Fabricated or manufactured
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "fabricated or manufactured". This means that the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part starts as soon as it is made or produced. This suggests that the process of fabrication or manufacturing may introduce certain factors or conditions that make the metal part more susceptible to corrosion or deterioration.

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  • 28. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • Operations

    • The aircrew

    • Supervision

    • The ground crew

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircrew
    Explanation
    The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the responsibility of the flight crew to conduct the necessary checks and inspections before takeoff. This includes ensuring that all systems are functioning properly, the aircraft is properly loaded, and all necessary documentation is in order. By conducting this preflight check, the aircrew ensures the safety and readiness of the aircraft before it takes off.

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  • 29. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

    • Painted

    • Heat treated

    • Chemically treated

    • Exhausted or salvaged

    Correct Answer
    A. Exhausted or salvaged
    Explanation
    The corrosion or deterioration of a metal part will continue until the part is either exhausted or salvaged. This means that the deterioration process will persist until the metal part is completely worn out or until it is saved or repaired through salvage operations. Painting, heat treating, or chemically treating the part may help slow down or prevent corrosion, but it will not completely stop it. The only way to fully address the issue is by either using the part until it is no longer functional or salvaging it through repair or restoration.

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  • 30. 

    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

    • Maximum setting at least four times

    • Maximum setting at least six times

    • Lowest setting at least four times

    • Lowest setting at least six times

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximum setting at least six times
    Explanation
    It is important to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting multiple times before using it. This helps to ensure that the wrench is properly calibrated and that any initial resistance or stiffness is overcome. By doing this at least six times, it further ensures that any inconsistencies or variations in the wrench's performance are accounted for, resulting in more accurate torque readings during actual use.

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  • 31. 

    What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

    • Pitting

    • Galvanic

    • Exfoliation

    • Crevice/concentration cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Exfoliation
    Explanation
    Exfoliation is a type of corrosion that can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains. It occurs when a metal's protective oxide layer is disrupted, leading to the formation of corrosion products that expand and separate the metal grains. This results in a blister-like appearance on the metal surface. Exfoliation corrosion is commonly seen in aluminum alloys, particularly in humid or marine environments, and can significantly weaken the affected material.

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  • 32. 

    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO?

    • 781G

    • 781J

    • 781M

    • 781P

    Correct Answer
    A. 781J
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO Form 781J is used to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed for recording engine-related information and abnormalities, including temperature exceedances. The other options, 781G, 781M, and 781P, are not specifically used for recording engine over-temperature conditions.

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  • 33. 

    What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented?

    • AGE personnel

    • Aircrew personnel

    • Shift supervisor

    • Everyone

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document used in the United States Air Force to record and track aircraft engine runs. It is a critical form that ensures proper documentation of engine performance and maintenance activities. Given its importance, it is the responsibility of everyone involved in the maintenance process, including AGE personnel (Aerospace Ground Equipment), aircrew personnel, and shift supervisors, to ensure that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented. This ensures accuracy, accountability, and compliance with maintenance protocols.

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  • 35. 

    How are special bolts identified?

    • By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

    • By a galvanized-plated steel covering

    • The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • The blot head is marked with the letter S

    Correct Answer
    A. The blot head is marked with the letter S
    Explanation
    Special bolts are identified by a marking on the bolt head, specifically the letter S. This marking helps to distinguish special bolts from regular bolts and indicates that they have unique specifications or properties. The zinc-plated nickel steel covering and galvanized-plated steel covering options mentioned in the other choices are not accurate ways to identify special bolts.

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  • 36. 

    What part of the cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?

    • Metal shells

    • Connector halves

    • Dielectric contacts

    • Pin-and-socket contacts

    Correct Answer
    A. Pin-and-socket contacts
    Explanation
    Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that connect and transmit electrical signals between two connector halves. When the cannon plug is fully inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity and completing the circuit. The metal shells of the cannon plug provide mechanical support and protection for the contacts, but they do not directly complete the electrical circuit. The dielectric contacts serve as insulators and prevent the flow of electricity between adjacent pins and sockets.

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  • 37. 

    Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

    • Simple caliper

    • Transfer caliper

    • Spring-joint caliper

    • Odd-leg caliper

    Correct Answer
    A. Spring-joint caliper
    Explanation
    A spring-joint caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This type of caliper is designed to have a spring mechanism that allows for easy and precise measurement adjustments. The strong spring hinge provides the necessary tension to hold the caliper in place, while the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the measurements. This design ensures that the caliper remains stable and accurate during use.

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  • 38. 

    The TH inspection is normally performed

    • Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

    • After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

    • Immediately prior to a BPO

    • After the last flight of a specified flying period

    Correct Answer
    A. After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
    Explanation
    The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection is conducted after the aircraft has completed a flight and is preparing for another flight without significant downtime. This ensures that any potential issues or damages from the previous flight are identified and addressed before the aircraft takes off again.

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  • 39. 

    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than?

    • -2.0 percent

    • -1.0 percent

    • 0.1 percent

    • 1.0 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.1 percent
    Explanation
    Chemicals must be identified as carcinogens in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) if their concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if a chemical is present in a product or substance at a concentration higher than 0.1 percent, it must be labeled and identified as a carcinogen. This information is important for individuals who handle or come into contact with these chemicals, as it alerts them to the potential health risks associated with exposure to carcinogens.

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  • 40. 

    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to?

    • Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly

    • Follow MAJCOM guidelines

    • Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • Educated all personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify all possible sources of FOD
    Explanation
    In order to develop an effective FOD prevention program, it is crucial to first identify all possible sources of FOD. This step enables the organization to have a comprehensive understanding of where FOD may originate from, such as loose objects, debris, or equipment, and allows them to take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. By identifying all possible sources, the organization can then implement targeted strategies and procedures to minimize the risk of FOD, ensuring a safer and more efficient working environment.

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  • 41. 

    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by?

    • Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • Helping evaluate the training for new personnel

    • Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

    Correct Answer
    A. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
    Explanation
    The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the number of personnel needed for training, as well as determining the appropriate timing and scheduling of training sessions. This ensures that the training needs of the organization are met efficiently and effectively, and that the right personnel are available for training at the right time.

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  • 42. 

    Which of these is a scissor type maintenance stand?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • C-1

    Correct Answer
    A. B-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-4. A scissor type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance that can be raised or lowered using a scissor-like mechanism. This type of stand is commonly used for accessing the underbelly or lower parts of an aircraft during maintenance or inspections. Option B-4 is the only option that indicates a scissor type maintenance stand.

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  • 43. 

    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts low-torque applications? 

    • Reduce shearing

    • Prevent corrosion

    • Prevent vibration

    • Reduce shimming

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent corrosion
    Explanation
    Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two dissimilar metals, such as aluminum and steel, come into contact, a chemical reaction called galvanic corrosion can occur. This can lead to the deterioration of the metals over time. By using aluminum alloy washers, it creates a barrier between the aluminum alloy parts and the steel bolts, preventing direct contact and reducing the risk of corrosion.

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  • 44. 

    When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself even with the?

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

    Correct Answer
    A. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
    Explanation
    When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This positioning allows the fireguard to have a clear view of the engine being started and be in a position to quickly respond to any potential fire or safety hazards. Being at the nose of the aircraft also ensures that the fireguard is not in the way of any moving parts or exhaust from the engine.

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  • 45. 

    What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

    • Departmental, intermediate, and field

    • Organizational, field, and intermediate

    • Organizational, intermediate, and depot

    • Departmental, organizational, and dept

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational, intermediate, and depot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This order represents the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in increasing capability. Organizational maintenance refers to basic repairs and routine maintenance performed at the unit level. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that are typically done at centralized facilities. Depot maintenance is the highest level of capability and involves major overhauls, repairs, and modifications performed at specialized depots. This order reflects the increasing level of expertise and resources required for each level of maintenance capability.

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  • 46. 

    What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

    • Extension and flexion

    • Tension and torsion

    • Torque and friction

    • Push and pull

    Correct Answer
    A. Tension and torsion
    Explanation
    When a fastener is tightened, it experiences two primary stresses: tension and torsion. Tension refers to the stretching or elongation of the fastener due to the applied force, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force that the fastener undergoes. These stresses are important to consider in order to ensure that the fastener can withstand the applied forces and maintain its integrity. Extension and flexion, torque and friction, and push and pull are not the correct stresses experienced by a fastener when tightened.

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  • 47. 

    What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

    • 781A

    • 781F

    • 781H

    • 781J

    Correct Answer
    A. 781F
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

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  • 48. 

    Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the?

    • Knurl beside the fork

    • Groove by the cable eye

    • Knurl beside the pin eye

    • Groove on the end of the barrel

    Correct Answer
    A. Groove on the end of the barrel
    Explanation
    Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove is specific to left-hand threads and helps differentiate them from right-hand threads. By observing the presence of this groove, one can determine whether the turnbuckle has left-hand or right-hand threads.

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  • 49. 

    When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the?

    • Manual range mode is indicated

    • Touch-hold mode is in use

    • Ohms function is selected

    • Meter is zeroing itself

    Correct Answer
    A. Touch-hold mode is in use
    Explanation
    The H symbol on the Fluke multimeter display indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the meter will capture and hold the reading on the display, allowing the user to view it even after removing the probes from the circuit. This feature is useful when working in tight spaces or when it is difficult to read the display while taking a measurement.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 06, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Teenaduhon
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