CDC Volume 1 UREs 2AX5X

1. The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature it?

2

4

6

8

The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2%.

Explanation

The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2%.

2. The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park in an isolated location ad then?

Spray with cold water

Cool with forced air from a blower

Cool with -high-pressure compressed air

Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the vehicle should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brakes should be left to cool naturally without any external intervention. This is the safest method as it allows the heat to dissipate gradually without the risk of causing further damage or injury.

Explanation

The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the vehicle should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brakes should be left to cool naturally without any external intervention. This is the safest method as it allows the heat to dissipate gradually without the risk of causing further damage or injury.

3. Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

Logistics and operations group commanders

Immediate supervisor

Wing commander

Everyone

FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific group or individual. Each person, regardless of their position or role, should actively contribute to FOD prevention efforts. This includes logistics and operations group commanders, immediate supervisors, and even the wing commander. By emphasizing that everyone is responsible, it promotes a culture of awareness and accountability to prevent FOD incidents and maintain a safe working environment.

Explanation

FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is a collective responsibility that involves everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific group or individual. Each person, regardless of their position or role, should actively contribute to FOD prevention efforts. This includes logistics and operations group commanders, immediate supervisors, and even the wing commander. By emphasizing that everyone is responsible, it promotes a culture of awareness and accountability to prevent FOD incidents and maintain a safe working environment.

4. In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

The FOD prevention office

The operations commander

The flight safety officer

QA

QA, or Quality Assurance, is responsible for investigating dropped objects in most units. Quality Assurance departments typically have protocols and procedures in place to ensure the safety and quality of operations. Investigating dropped objects falls under their purview as part of their responsibility to identify and address any potential hazards or issues that may compromise safety. They will likely conduct thorough investigations, gather evidence, and implement corrective measures to prevent future incidents.

Explanation

QA, or Quality Assurance, is responsible for investigating dropped objects in most units. Quality Assurance departments typically have protocols and procedures in place to ensure the safety and quality of operations. Investigating dropped objects falls under their purview as part of their responsibility to identify and address any potential hazards or issues that may compromise safety. They will likely conduct thorough investigations, gather evidence, and implement corrective measures to prevent future incidents.

5. The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the?

Red markings

Black markings

Green markings

Orange markings

When the gauge needle is within the green markings, it indicates that the pressure in the fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range. This means that the pressure is neither too high nor too low, ensuring that the fire extinguisher can effectively dispense the extinguishing agent when needed. The green markings serve as a visual indicator for users to easily determine if the fire extinguisher is ready for use.

Explanation

When the gauge needle is within the green markings, it indicates that the pressure in the fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range. This means that the pressure is neither too high nor too low, ensuring that the fire extinguisher can effectively dispense the extinguishing agent when needed. The green markings serve as a visual indicator for users to easily determine if the fire extinguisher is ready for use.

6. During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

Supervisor or vehicle operator

Supervisor or brake operator

Supervisor or wing walkers

Supervisor only

The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor has the authority to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This ensures that there is a single designated person responsible for ensuring the safety of the operation and coordinating the movement of the aircraft. The supervisor is responsible for assessing the situation, considering all factors, and making an informed decision before giving the order to move.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Supervisor only". This means that only the supervisor has the authority to give the "all clear to move" order during an aircraft tow. This ensures that there is a single designated person responsible for ensuring the safety of the operation and coordinating the movement of the aircraft. The supervisor is responsible for assessing the situation, considering all factors, and making an informed decision before giving the order to move.

7. What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

Unscheduled

Preventive

Corrective

Protective

Preventive maintenance refers to the proactive and planned activities carried out to ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and ready for use when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of parts to prevent breakdowns and minimize downtime. By identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems, preventive maintenance helps to extend the lifespan of equipment, improve reliability, and reduce the risk of unexpected failures. Therefore, preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need.

Explanation

Preventive maintenance refers to the proactive and planned activities carried out to ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and ready for use when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of parts to prevent breakdowns and minimize downtime. By identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems, preventive maintenance helps to extend the lifespan of equipment, improve reliability, and reduce the risk of unexpected failures. Therefore, preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need.

8. What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

Tail

Axle

Nose

Fixed-height

The correct answer is "Axle." When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. An axle jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its landing gear axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. This type of jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft during the tire-changing process.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Axle." When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. An axle jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its landing gear axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. This type of jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft during the tire-changing process.

9. When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by?

AGE personnel only

The highest ranking person on the shift

Qualified operator only

Any person

The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer should only be operated by a qualified operator. This is important because handling gaseous nitrogen can be dangerous and requires specific knowledge and training. Allowing any person to operate the trailer could lead to accidents or mishandling of the equipment, which could have serious consequences. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that only individuals who have the necessary qualifications and expertise operate the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer.

Explanation

The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer should only be operated by a qualified operator. This is important because handling gaseous nitrogen can be dangerous and requires specific knowledge and training. Allowing any person to operate the trailer could lead to accidents or mishandling of the equipment, which could have serious consequences. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that only individuals who have the necessary qualifications and expertise operate the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer.

10. Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

TOs, manuals, and CDCs

TOs, handbooks and CDCs

Maintenance procedures require the use of Manuals, TOs (Technical Orders), and handbooks. These directives provide detailed instructions and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks on various equipment and systems. Manuals contain step-by-step procedures, while TOs provide specific technical information and guidelines. Handbooks may include additional information and reference materials to support maintenance procedures. By utilizing these directives, maintenance personnel can ensure that procedures are carried out accurately and safely.

Explanation

Maintenance procedures require the use of Manuals, TOs (Technical Orders), and handbooks. These directives provide detailed instructions and guidelines for performing maintenance tasks on various equipment and systems. Manuals contain step-by-step procedures, while TOs provide specific technical information and guidelines. Handbooks may include additional information and reference materials to support maintenance procedures. By utilizing these directives, maintenance personnel can ensure that procedures are carried out accurately and safely.

11. What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen?

Initial

General

Supervisor's

Sustained job safety

Initial safety training is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen. This phase of training is conducted at the beginning of an individual's career and focuses on providing them with the fundamental knowledge and skills necessary to ensure their safety and the safety of others. It covers a wide range of topics, including hazard identification, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment. By emphasizing the importance of safety from the start, initial training sets the foundation for a strong safety culture within the organization.

Explanation

Initial safety training is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen. This phase of training is conducted at the beginning of an individual's career and focuses on providing them with the fundamental knowledge and skills necessary to ensure their safety and the safety of others. It covers a wide range of topics, including hazard identification, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment. By emphasizing the importance of safety from the start, initial training sets the foundation for a strong safety culture within the organization.

12. What affects radiation hazards?

Strength of emission, time of day and input power

Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather

Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area

Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

The answer is "Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather." These factors affect radiation hazards because the strength of emission determines the intensity of the radiation, the time of exposure determines the duration of exposure to radiation, and the weather can affect the dispersion and movement of radioactive particles.

Explanation

The answer is "Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather." These factors affect radiation hazards because the strength of emission determines the intensity of the radiation, the time of exposure determines the duration of exposure to radiation, and the weather can affect the dispersion and movement of radioactive particles.

13. The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side?

15 degrees

45 degrees

65 degrees

95 degrees

The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side because the engine exhaust and turbulence cause the sound waves to propagate in a cone shape known as the "jet noise cone". This cone widens as it moves away from the engine, reaching its maximum width at approximately 45 degrees from the rear and sides of the engine. At this angle, the sound waves are spread out and have less directionality, resulting in higher noise intensity.

Explanation

The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side because the engine exhaust and turbulence cause the sound waves to propagate in a cone shape known as the "jet noise cone". This cone widens as it moves away from the engine, reaching its maximum width at approximately 45 degrees from the rear and sides of the engine. At this angle, the sound waves are spread out and have less directionality, resulting in higher noise intensity.

14. When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

Crew Chief

Flight engineer

Weapons personnel

Only senior personnel on special orders

Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm these explosives safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have other responsibilities related to the aircraft, but the specific task of removing safety devices falls under the jurisdiction of weapons personnel. Only senior personnel on special orders may have authority over weapons personnel in certain exceptional cases.

Explanation

Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm these explosives safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have other responsibilities related to the aircraft, but the specific task of removing safety devices falls under the jurisdiction of weapons personnel. Only senior personnel on special orders may have authority over weapons personnel in certain exceptional cases.

15. Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hanger you must?

Install shorting plugs and clips

Install mechanical safetying devices

Remove all ammunition and explosives

Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF

Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and the aircraft itself. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized, reducing the potential for damage or injury. It is a standard procedure followed to prevent any mishaps during the movement and storage of explosive-loaded aircraft.

Explanation

Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and the aircraft itself. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized, reducing the potential for damage or injury. It is a standard procedure followed to prevent any mishaps during the movement and storage of explosive-loaded aircraft.

16. Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

Base commander

Squadron commander

Supervision at all levels

Squadron QA section

Supervision at all levels is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that everyone in the organization, from the base commander to the squadron commander, plays a role in maintaining and enforcing proper supply procedures. Each level of supervision is responsible for overseeing and monitoring the supply activities within their jurisdiction to ensure compliance with regulations and policies. This ensures that supplies are properly managed, accounted for, and used efficiently, ultimately contributing to the overall success and effectiveness of the organization.

Explanation

Supervision at all levels is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that everyone in the organization, from the base commander to the squadron commander, plays a role in maintaining and enforcing proper supply procedures. Each level of supervision is responsible for overseeing and monitoring the supply activities within their jurisdiction to ensure compliance with regulations and policies. This ensures that supplies are properly managed, accounted for, and used efficiently, ultimately contributing to the overall success and effectiveness of the organization.

17. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X is the?

Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

Wing vice commander

Group commander

Wing commander

The correct answer is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This person is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, which indicates that a tool or equipment is missing. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher positions of authority, but they may not be directly involved in maintenance operations or have the specific knowledge to locate a lost tool. Therefore, they are not the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X.

Explanation

The correct answer is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This person is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, which indicates that a tool or equipment is missing. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher positions of authority, but they may not be directly involved in maintenance operations or have the specific knowledge to locate a lost tool. Therefore, they are not the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X.

18. The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time?

Access to Distance Learning courseware

Access to special certification roster criteria listings

Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses

The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. The TBA (Training Business Area) is a platform that allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily view and track their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for both individuals and the Air Force as a whole, as it helps in assessing the readiness and capabilities of personnel.

Explanation

The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. The TBA (Training Business Area) is a platform that allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily view and track their own progress and achievements in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for both individuals and the Air Force as a whole, as it helps in assessing the readiness and capabilities of personnel.

19. What is the percentage of accidents attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

98

50

70

90

The correct answer is 98. This means that 98% of accidents are attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards. This suggests that the majority of accidents occur due to human error or unsafe conditions in the environment. It highlights the importance of promoting safety practices and addressing physical hazards to prevent accidents and ensure a safe working environment.

Explanation

The correct answer is 98. This means that 98% of accidents are attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards. This suggests that the majority of accidents occur due to human error or unsafe conditions in the environment. It highlights the importance of promoting safety practices and addressing physical hazards to prevent accidents and ensure a safe working environment.

20. Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by?

The US Air Force

Each MAJCOM

DOD

EPA

The correct answer is EPA. The EPA, or Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. They are the federal agency in the United States that is tasked with protecting human health and the environment. The EPA sets regulations and guidelines for the management and disposal of hazardous waste to ensure that it is handled properly and does not pose a risk to public health or the environment.

Explanation

The correct answer is EPA. The EPA, or Environmental Protection Agency, is responsible for publishing the Hazardous Waste Management System rules. They are the federal agency in the United States that is tasked with protecting human health and the environment. The EPA sets regulations and guidelines for the management and disposal of hazardous waste to ensure that it is handled properly and does not pose a risk to public health or the environment.

21. Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

Dizziness

Emotional irritability

A feeling of emptiness

Impaired mental concentration

A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because it is not commonly associated with the condition. Noise fatigue typically manifests as symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. However, a feeling of emptiness is not directly related to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors or conditions.

Explanation

A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because it is not commonly associated with the condition. Noise fatigue typically manifests as symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. However, a feeling of emptiness is not directly related to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors or conditions.

22. Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

Training

Aircraft

Reference

Operational

The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because its purpose is to provide a collection of resources that can be used for research and reference purposes. Unlike the training, aircraft, and operational libraries, which require up-to-date information for their specific purposes, the reference library focuses on providing a comprehensive collection of materials that may not need frequent updates.

Explanation

The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because its purpose is to provide a collection of resources that can be used for research and reference purposes. Unlike the training, aircraft, and operational libraries, which require up-to-date information for their specific purposes, the reference library focuses on providing a comprehensive collection of materials that may not need frequent updates.

23. Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

B-1

B-2

B-4

B-5

The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

Explanation

The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

24. The MB-4 Coleman incorporates?

Two-wheel steering, two-wheel drive

Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive

Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive

Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive

The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four-wheel steering, which means that all four wheels can turn to improve maneuverability. Additionally, it also has four-wheel drive, meaning that power is delivered to all four wheels for enhanced traction and off-road capability.

Explanation

The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four-wheel steering, which means that all four wheels can turn to improve maneuverability. Additionally, it also has four-wheel drive, meaning that power is delivered to all four wheels for enhanced traction and off-road capability.

25. Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

Soft Rubber

Phenolic mix

Non-magnetic

Thermosetting plastic

Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. This material is preferred because it provides a tight and secure seal, preventing any leakage or loss of pressure. Soft rubber is flexible and can easily conform to irregular surfaces, ensuring a proper seal. It also has good resistance to chemicals, temperature variations, and wear, making it suitable for various applications where pressure sealing is required.

Explanation

Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. This material is preferred because it provides a tight and secure seal, preventing any leakage or loss of pressure. Soft rubber is flexible and can easily conform to irregular surfaces, ensuring a proper seal. It also has good resistance to chemicals, temperature variations, and wear, making it suitable for various applications where pressure sealing is required.

26. Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when the predetermined torque value is reached?

Indicating type

Breakaway type

Screwdriver type

Internal wrenching type

A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when the predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench has a mechanism that allows the handle to break away or disengage from the drive when the desired torque is achieved. This prevents over-tightening and ensures that the correct torque is applied to the fastener.

Explanation

A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when the predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench has a mechanism that allows the handle to break away or disengage from the drive when the desired torque is achieved. This prevents over-tightening and ensures that the correct torque is applied to the fastener.

27. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

Exposed to the moist air

Exposed to a chemical

Connected to another part

Fabricated or manufactured

The correct answer is "fabricated or manufactured". This means that the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part starts as soon as it is made or produced. This suggests that the process of fabrication or manufacturing may introduce certain factors or conditions that make the metal part more susceptible to corrosion or deterioration.

Explanation

The correct answer is "fabricated or manufactured". This means that the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part starts as soon as it is made or produced. This suggests that the process of fabrication or manufacturing may introduce certain factors or conditions that make the metal part more susceptible to corrosion or deterioration.

28. Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

Operations

The aircrew

Supervision

The ground crew

The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the responsibility of the flight crew to conduct the necessary checks and inspections before takeoff. This includes ensuring that all systems are functioning properly, the aircraft is properly loaded, and all necessary documentation is in order. By conducting this preflight check, the aircrew ensures the safety and readiness of the aircraft before it takes off.

Explanation

The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that it is the responsibility of the flight crew to conduct the necessary checks and inspections before takeoff. This includes ensuring that all systems are functioning properly, the aircraft is properly loaded, and all necessary documentation is in order. By conducting this preflight check, the aircrew ensures the safety and readiness of the aircraft before it takes off.

29. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

Painted

Heat treated

Chemically treated

Exhausted or salvaged

The corrosion or deterioration of a metal part will continue until the part is either exhausted or salvaged. This means that the deterioration process will persist until the metal part is completely worn out or until it is saved or repaired through salvage operations. Painting, heat treating, or chemically treating the part may help slow down or prevent corrosion, but it will not completely stop it. The only way to fully address the issue is by either using the part until it is no longer functional or salvaging it through repair or restoration.

Explanation

The corrosion or deterioration of a metal part will continue until the part is either exhausted or salvaged. This means that the deterioration process will persist until the metal part is completely worn out or until it is saved or repaired through salvage operations. Painting, heat treating, or chemically treating the part may help slow down or prevent corrosion, but it will not completely stop it. The only way to fully address the issue is by either using the part until it is no longer functional or salvaging it through repair or restoration.

30. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

Maximum setting at least four times

Maximum setting at least six times

Lowest setting at least four times

Lowest setting at least six times

It is important to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting multiple times before using it. This helps to ensure that the wrench is properly calibrated and that any initial resistance or stiffness is overcome. By doing this at least six times, it further ensures that any inconsistencies or variations in the wrench's performance are accounted for, resulting in more accurate torque readings during actual use.

Explanation

It is important to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting multiple times before using it. This helps to ensure that the wrench is properly calibrated and that any initial resistance or stiffness is overcome. By doing this at least six times, it further ensures that any inconsistencies or variations in the wrench's performance are accounted for, resulting in more accurate torque readings during actual use.

31. What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

Pitting

Galvanic

Exfoliation

Crevice/concentration cell

Exfoliation is a type of corrosion that can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains. It occurs when a metal's protective oxide layer is disrupted, leading to the formation of corrosion products that expand and separate the metal grains. This results in a blister-like appearance on the metal surface. Exfoliation corrosion is commonly seen in aluminum alloys, particularly in humid or marine environments, and can significantly weaken the affected material.

Explanation

Exfoliation is a type of corrosion that can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains. It occurs when a metal's protective oxide layer is disrupted, leading to the formation of corrosion products that expand and separate the metal grains. This results in a blister-like appearance on the metal surface. Exfoliation corrosion is commonly seen in aluminum alloys, particularly in humid or marine environments, and can significantly weaken the affected material.

32. Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO?

781G

781J

781M

781P

The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO Form 781J is used to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed for recording engine-related information and abnormalities, including temperature exceedances. The other options, 781G, 781M, and 781P, are not specifically used for recording engine over-temperature conditions.

Explanation

The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO Form 781J is used to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed for recording engine-related information and abnormalities, including temperature exceedances. The other options, 781G, 781M, and 781P, are not specifically used for recording engine over-temperature conditions.

33. What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

1

2

3

4

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

34. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented?

AGE personnel

Aircrew personnel

Shift supervisor

Everyone

The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document used in the United States Air Force to record and track aircraft engine runs. It is a critical form that ensures proper documentation of engine performance and maintenance activities. Given its importance, it is the responsibility of everyone involved in the maintenance process, including AGE personnel (Aerospace Ground Equipment), aircrew personnel, and shift supervisors, to ensure that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented. This ensures accuracy, accountability, and compliance with maintenance protocols.

Explanation

The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document used in the United States Air Force to record and track aircraft engine runs. It is a critical form that ensures proper documentation of engine performance and maintenance activities. Given its importance, it is the responsibility of everyone involved in the maintenance process, including AGE personnel (Aerospace Ground Equipment), aircrew personnel, and shift supervisors, to ensure that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented. This ensures accuracy, accountability, and compliance with maintenance protocols.

35. How are special bolts identified?

By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering

By a galvanized-plated steel covering

The bolt head is marked with a triangle

The blot head is marked with the letter S

Special bolts are identified by a marking on the bolt head, specifically the letter S. This marking helps to distinguish special bolts from regular bolts and indicates that they have unique specifications or properties. The zinc-plated nickel steel covering and galvanized-plated steel covering options mentioned in the other choices are not accurate ways to identify special bolts.

Explanation

Special bolts are identified by a marking on the bolt head, specifically the letter S. This marking helps to distinguish special bolts from regular bolts and indicates that they have unique specifications or properties. The zinc-plated nickel steel covering and galvanized-plated steel covering options mentioned in the other choices are not accurate ways to identify special bolts.

36. What part of the cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?

Metal shells

Connector halves

Dielectric contacts

Pin-and-socket contacts

Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that connect and transmit electrical signals between two connector halves. When the cannon plug is fully inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity and completing the circuit. The metal shells of the cannon plug provide mechanical support and protection for the contacts, but they do not directly complete the electrical circuit. The dielectric contacts serve as insulators and prevent the flow of electricity between adjacent pins and sockets.

Explanation

Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that connect and transmit electrical signals between two connector halves. When the cannon plug is fully inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electricity and completing the circuit. The metal shells of the cannon plug provide mechanical support and protection for the contacts, but they do not directly complete the electrical circuit. The dielectric contacts serve as insulators and prevent the flow of electricity between adjacent pins and sockets.

37. Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

Simple caliper

Transfer caliper

Spring-joint caliper

Odd-leg caliper

A spring-joint caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This type of caliper is designed to have a spring mechanism that allows for easy and precise measurement adjustments. The strong spring hinge provides the necessary tension to hold the caliper in place, while the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the measurements. This design ensures that the caliper remains stable and accurate during use.

Explanation

A spring-joint caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This type of caliper is designed to have a spring mechanism that allows for easy and precise measurement adjustments. The strong spring hinge provides the necessary tension to hold the caliper in place, while the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the measurements. This design ensures that the caliper remains stable and accurate during use.

38. The TH inspection is normally performed

Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

Immediately prior to a BPO

After the last flight of a specified flying period

The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection is conducted after the aircraft has completed a flight and is preparing for another flight without significant downtime. This ensures that any potential issues or damages from the previous flight are identified and addressed before the aircraft takes off again.

Explanation

The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection is conducted after the aircraft has completed a flight and is preparing for another flight without significant downtime. This ensures that any potential issues or damages from the previous flight are identified and addressed before the aircraft takes off again.

39. A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than?

-2.0 percent

-1.0 percent

0.1 percent

1.0 percent

Chemicals must be identified as carcinogens in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) if their concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if a chemical is present in a product or substance at a concentration higher than 0.1 percent, it must be labeled and identified as a carcinogen. This information is important for individuals who handle or come into contact with these chemicals, as it alerts them to the potential health risks associated with exposure to carcinogens.

Explanation

Chemicals must be identified as carcinogens in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) if their concentrations are greater than 0.1 percent. This means that if a chemical is present in a product or substance at a concentration higher than 0.1 percent, it must be labeled and identified as a carcinogen. This information is important for individuals who handle or come into contact with these chemicals, as it alerts them to the potential health risks associated with exposure to carcinogens.

40. The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to?

Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly

Follow MAJCOM guidelines

Identify all possible sources of FOD

Educated all personnel

In order to develop an effective FOD prevention program, it is crucial to first identify all possible sources of FOD. This step enables the organization to have a comprehensive understanding of where FOD may originate from, such as loose objects, debris, or equipment, and allows them to take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. By identifying all possible sources, the organization can then implement targeted strategies and procedures to minimize the risk of FOD, ensuring a safer and more efficient working environment.

Explanation

In order to develop an effective FOD prevention program, it is crucial to first identify all possible sources of FOD. This step enables the organization to have a comprehensive understanding of where FOD may originate from, such as loose objects, debris, or equipment, and allows them to take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. By identifying all possible sources, the organization can then implement targeted strategies and procedures to minimize the risk of FOD, ensuring a safer and more efficient working environment.

41. The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by?

Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

Helping evaluate the training for new personnel

Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the number of personnel needed for training, as well as determining the appropriate timing and scheduling of training sessions. This ensures that the training needs of the organization are met efficiently and effectively, and that the right personnel are available for training at the right time.

Explanation

The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the number of personnel needed for training, as well as determining the appropriate timing and scheduling of training sessions. This ensures that the training needs of the organization are met efficiently and effectively, and that the right personnel are available for training at the right time.

42. Which of these is a scissor type maintenance stand?

B-1

B-2

B-4

C-1

The correct answer is B-4. A scissor type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance that can be raised or lowered using a scissor-like mechanism. This type of stand is commonly used for accessing the underbelly or lower parts of an aircraft during maintenance or inspections. Option B-4 is the only option that indicates a scissor type maintenance stand.

Explanation

The correct answer is B-4. A scissor type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance that can be raised or lowered using a scissor-like mechanism. This type of stand is commonly used for accessing the underbelly or lower parts of an aircraft during maintenance or inspections. Option B-4 is the only option that indicates a scissor type maintenance stand.

43. Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts low-torque applications?

Reduce shearing

Prevent corrosion

Prevent vibration

Reduce shimming

Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two dissimilar metals, such as aluminum and steel, come into contact, a chemical reaction called galvanic corrosion can occur. This can lead to the deterioration of the metals over time. By using aluminum alloy washers, it creates a barrier between the aluminum alloy parts and the steel bolts, preventing direct contact and reducing the risk of corrosion.

Explanation

Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two dissimilar metals, such as aluminum and steel, come into contact, a chemical reaction called galvanic corrosion can occur. This can lead to the deterioration of the metals over time. By using aluminum alloy washers, it creates a barrier between the aluminum alloy parts and the steel bolts, preventing direct contact and reducing the risk of corrosion.

44. When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself even with the?

Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This positioning allows the fireguard to have a clear view of the engine being started and be in a position to quickly respond to any potential fire or safety hazards. Being at the nose of the aircraft also ensures that the fireguard is not in the way of any moving parts or exhaust from the engine.

Explanation

When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started. This positioning allows the fireguard to have a clear view of the engine being started and be in a position to quickly respond to any potential fire or safety hazards. Being at the nose of the aircraft also ensures that the fireguard is not in the way of any moving parts or exhaust from the engine.

45. What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

Departmental, intermediate, and field

Organizational, field, and intermediate

Organizational, intermediate, and depot

Departmental, organizational, and dept

The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This order represents the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in increasing capability. Organizational maintenance refers to basic repairs and routine maintenance performed at the unit level. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that are typically done at centralized facilities. Depot maintenance is the highest level of capability and involves major overhauls, repairs, and modifications performed at specialized depots. This order reflects the increasing level of expertise and resources required for each level of maintenance capability.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Organizational, intermediate, and depot." This order represents the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in increasing capability. Organizational maintenance refers to basic repairs and routine maintenance performed at the unit level. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and maintenance tasks that are typically done at centralized facilities. Depot maintenance is the highest level of capability and involves major overhauls, repairs, and modifications performed at specialized depots. This order reflects the increasing level of expertise and resources required for each level of maintenance capability.

46. What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

Extension and flexion

Tension and torsion

Torque and friction

Push and pull

When a fastener is tightened, it experiences two primary stresses: tension and torsion. Tension refers to the stretching or elongation of the fastener due to the applied force, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force that the fastener undergoes. These stresses are important to consider in order to ensure that the fastener can withstand the applied forces and maintain its integrity. Extension and flexion, torque and friction, and push and pull are not the correct stresses experienced by a fastener when tightened.

Explanation

When a fastener is tightened, it experiences two primary stresses: tension and torsion. Tension refers to the stretching or elongation of the fastener due to the applied force, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force that the fastener undergoes. These stresses are important to consider in order to ensure that the fastener can withstand the applied forces and maintain its integrity. Extension and flexion, torque and friction, and push and pull are not the correct stresses experienced by a fastener when tightened.

47. What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

781A

781F

781H

781J

The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

Explanation

The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

48. Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the?

Knurl beside the fork

Groove by the cable eye

Knurl beside the pin eye

Groove on the end of the barrel

Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove is specific to left-hand threads and helps differentiate them from right-hand threads. By observing the presence of this groove, one can determine whether the turnbuckle has left-hand or right-hand threads.

Explanation

Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove is specific to left-hand threads and helps differentiate them from right-hand threads. By observing the presence of this groove, one can determine whether the turnbuckle has left-hand or right-hand threads.

49. When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the?

Manual range mode is indicated

Touch-hold mode is in use

Ohms function is selected

Meter is zeroing itself

The H symbol on the Fluke multimeter display indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the meter will capture and hold the reading on the display, allowing the user to view it even after removing the probes from the circuit. This feature is useful when working in tight spaces or when it is difficult to read the display while taking a measurement.

Explanation

The H symbol on the Fluke multimeter display indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the meter will capture and hold the reading on the display, allowing the user to view it even after removing the probes from the circuit. This feature is useful when working in tight spaces or when it is difficult to read the display while taking a measurement.

50. Objectives of the MDD system include?

Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data

Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

Collecting, storing and retrieving base-level data

The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and make it accessible for future use. By collecting data, the system can gather information from various sources. Storing the data ensures that it is securely saved and organized in a structured manner. Lastly, retrieving the data allows users to access and use the stored information as needed. Overall, these objectives highlight the importance of efficiently managing and utilizing base-level data within the MDD system.

Explanation

The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and make it accessible for future use. By collecting data, the system can gather information from various sources. Storing the data ensures that it is securely saved and organized in a structured manner. Lastly, retrieving the data allows users to access and use the stored information as needed. Overall, these objectives highlight the importance of efficiently managing and utilizing base-level data within the MDD system.

51. The AFTO 781 must be removed from the form binder?

Before the first flight of the day

Before each thruflight inspection

After the event number is entered into the maintenance debriefing

After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number

The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to record and track maintenance actions on an aircraft. It is important to remove the form from the form binder after the event number is entered into the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly documented and accounted for, and prevents any confusion or duplication of maintenance actions. Removing the form after this step also allows for easy access and reference to the form during future inspections or maintenance actions.

Explanation

The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to record and track maintenance actions on an aircraft. It is important to remove the form from the form binder after the event number is entered into the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly documented and accounted for, and prevents any confusion or duplication of maintenance actions. Removing the form after this step also allows for easy access and reference to the form during future inspections or maintenance actions.

52. What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the Model 4000 engine trailer can support?

7,000

8.000

9,000

10,000

The maximum load that the Model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

Explanation

The maximum load that the Model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

53. Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?

Indicating type

Breakaway type

Screwdriver type

Internal wrenching type

The indicating type torque wrench is the one that indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. This type of torque wrench usually has a gauge or display that shows the torque value, allowing the user to see the exact amount of torque being applied. This feature is especially useful when precision and accuracy are required in torque applications.

Explanation

The indicating type torque wrench is the one that indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. This type of torque wrench usually has a gauge or display that shows the torque value, allowing the user to see the exact amount of torque being applied. This feature is especially useful when precision and accuracy are required in torque applications.

54. Who determines which items in the MDS specific -5 TO need historical reporting?

Base supply coordinator

Critical item liaison

Equipment liaison

Item managers

Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -5 TO need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the importance and relevance of each item and decide whether historical reporting is necessary. They understand the specific requirements and considerations for each item and can make informed decisions based on those factors. Item managers play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and comprehensive reporting for the MDS specific -5 TO.

Explanation

Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -5 TO need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the importance and relevance of each item and decide whether historical reporting is necessary. They understand the specific requirements and considerations for each item and can make informed decisions based on those factors. Item managers play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and comprehensive reporting for the MDS specific -5 TO.

55. The FL-1D floodlight consists of two?

100 watt lamp fixtures

1,000 watt lamp fixtures

10,000 watt lamp fixtures

100,000 watt lamp fixtures

The FL-1D floodlight consists of two 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. This means that the floodlight has a total power consumption of 2,000 watts, with each lamp fixture consuming 1,000 watts. This high wattage indicates that the floodlight is capable of providing a bright and intense illumination, making it suitable for large outdoor areas or events that require strong lighting.

Explanation

The FL-1D floodlight consists of two 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. This means that the floodlight has a total power consumption of 2,000 watts, with each lamp fixture consuming 1,000 watts. This high wattage indicates that the floodlight is capable of providing a bright and intense illumination, making it suitable for large outdoor areas or events that require strong lighting.

56. What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?

15 mph

20 mph

25 mph

55 mph

The maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman is 20 mph. This means that the vehicle is designed to operate at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour. It is likely that the vehicle has a speed governor or limiter in place to ensure that it does not exceed this speed, possibly for safety reasons or to comply with regulations.

Explanation

The maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman is 20 mph. This means that the vehicle is designed to operate at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour. It is likely that the vehicle has a speed governor or limiter in place to ensure that it does not exceed this speed, possibly for safety reasons or to comply with regulations.

57. Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but if often used as pins in control systems?

Stud

Clevis

Eyebolt

Hexhead

Clevis bolts are commonly used as pins in control systems because of their ability to rotate and pivot. They are ideal for applications where tension is not present, as they are not designed to withstand high levels of force. In contrast, stud bolts are used in areas where tension is present, as they provide a secure and stable connection. Eyebolts are typically used for lifting and securing objects, while hexhead bolts are a type of fastener that can be used in various applications.

Explanation

Clevis bolts are commonly used as pins in control systems because of their ability to rotate and pivot. They are ideal for applications where tension is not present, as they are not designed to withstand high levels of force. In contrast, stud bolts are used in areas where tension is present, as they provide a secure and stable connection. Eyebolts are typically used for lifting and securing objects, while hexhead bolts are a type of fastener that can be used in various applications.

58. A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by?

Using a depth gauge to check end play

Ensuring that no lateral movement exists

Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing

Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal

To check the push-pull rod end engagement, safety wire is inserted in the hole in the end of the terminal. This method ensures that the rod end is securely fastened and prevents any unintended disengagement or movement. Using a depth gauge to check end play, ensuring no lateral movement, or using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing are not suitable methods for checking the engagement of a push-pull rod end.

Explanation

To check the push-pull rod end engagement, safety wire is inserted in the hole in the end of the terminal. This method ensures that the rod end is securely fastened and prevents any unintended disengagement or movement. Using a depth gauge to check end play, ensuring no lateral movement, or using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing are not suitable methods for checking the engagement of a push-pull rod end.

59. When securing widely spaced bolts by double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series?

3

4

5

6

When securing bolts by double-twist safetying method, the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series is 3. This means that you can connect up to 3 bolts in a row using the double-twist safetying method. Connecting more than 3 bolts in a series may compromise the effectiveness of the safetying method and increase the risk of bolts coming loose. Therefore, it is recommended to limit the number of bolts wired in a series to 3.

Explanation

When securing bolts by double-twist safetying method, the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series is 3. This means that you can connect up to 3 bolts in a row using the double-twist safetying method. Connecting more than 3 bolts in a series may compromise the effectiveness of the safetying method and increase the risk of bolts coming loose. Therefore, it is recommended to limit the number of bolts wired in a series to 3.

60. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

Multimeter

Depth gauge

Feeler gauge

Torque wrench

A feeler gauge is a tool that is specifically designed to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a set of thin metal blades of different thicknesses that can be inserted into the gap to determine the precise measurement. This tool is commonly used in various industries, such as automotive and engineering, to ensure that the correct clearances are maintained between components. Unlike the other options listed, a feeler gauge is specifically designed for this purpose, making it the correct choice for measuring gaps between parts.

Explanation

A feeler gauge is a tool that is specifically designed to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a set of thin metal blades of different thicknesses that can be inserted into the gap to determine the precise measurement. This tool is commonly used in various industries, such as automotive and engineering, to ensure that the correct clearances are maintained between components. Unlike the other options listed, a feeler gauge is specifically designed for this purpose, making it the correct choice for measuring gaps between parts.

61. Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?

Slide caliper

Simple caliper

Transfer caliper

Spring-joint caliper

The slide caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame. This is because the slide caliper is used to measure the inside and outside dimensions of an object. By sliding the caliper's jaws, the user can easily determine the measurements by aligning the "IN" or "OUT" markings with the corresponding edges of the object being measured. This feature makes the slide caliper a versatile tool for precise measurements in various applications.

Explanation

The slide caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame. This is because the slide caliper is used to measure the inside and outside dimensions of an object. By sliding the caliper's jaws, the user can easily determine the measurements by aligning the "IN" or "OUT" markings with the corresponding edges of the object being measured. This feature makes the slide caliper a versatile tool for precise measurements in various applications.

62. All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

PDC

AAC

PACC

ERRC

The given question asks about the type of code assigned to all items that come through supply channels. The correct answer is ERRC. However, without further context or information, it is not possible to provide a specific explanation for why ERRC is the correct answer. It could be a specific code used in the supply chain management system or a general industry standard.

Explanation

The given question asks about the type of code assigned to all items that come through supply channels. The correct answer is ERRC. However, without further context or information, it is not possible to provide a specific explanation for why ERRC is the correct answer. It could be a specific code used in the supply chain management system or a general industry standard.

63. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?

In progress

PR

TH

EOR

EOR stands for Engine Out Run. This inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and involves conducting operational checks of some systems, specifically focusing on the engines. It ensures that the engines are functioning properly and ready for takeoff.

Explanation

EOR stands for Engine Out Run. This inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and involves conducting operational checks of some systems, specifically focusing on the engines. It ensures that the engines are functioning properly and ready for takeoff.

64. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

"EMERGENCY"

"DIAGNOSE"

"TRIAGE"

"STAT"

The correct answer is "TRIAGE." Triage is a medical concept that forms the basis of ABDR (Assessment, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure) assessment philosophy. Triage involves prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition and the available resources. This allows medical professionals to quickly identify and treat the most critical cases first, ensuring that limited resources are allocated effectively in emergency situations.

Explanation

The correct answer is "TRIAGE." Triage is a medical concept that forms the basis of ABDR (Assessment, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure) assessment philosophy. Triage involves prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition and the available resources. This allows medical professionals to quickly identify and treat the most critical cases first, ensuring that limited resources are allocated effectively in emergency situations.

65. Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

Trouble

Remedy

Section 2

Probable Cause

The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses. This column is specifically designed to guide users on how to address and resolve issues or problems that may arise. It offers step-by-step instructions and provides options for potential solutions, allowing users to choose the most appropriate response based on their specific situation.

Explanation

The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses. This column is specifically designed to guide users on how to address and resolve issues or problems that may arise. It offers step-by-step instructions and provides options for potential solutions, allowing users to choose the most appropriate response based on their specific situation.

66. On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is?

10 mph

15 mph

20 mph

25 mph

The maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 mph. This means that the trailer should not exceed this speed when being towed on a straight road. Going faster than this speed could potentially be dangerous and increase the risk of accidents or damage to the trailer. It is important to adhere to the specified maximum towing speed to ensure safety and proper functioning of the trailer.

Explanation

The maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 mph. This means that the trailer should not exceed this speed when being towed on a straight road. Going faster than this speed could potentially be dangerous and increase the risk of accidents or damage to the trailer. It is important to adhere to the specified maximum towing speed to ensure safety and proper functioning of the trailer.

67. What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?

A/M32A-95

A/M32A-86

A/M32A-60

AF/M-32R-3

The A/M32A-60 unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, as well as pneumatic power, for ground maintenance.

Explanation

The A/M32A-60 unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, as well as pneumatic power, for ground maintenance.

68. Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?

A stud

An eyebolt

A hexhead

An internal wrenching type

An internal wrenching type bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications. This type of bolt is designed with a hexagonal socket on the head, allowing it to be tightened or loosened using an Allen wrench or hex key. The recessed head provides a flush surface when fully tightened, reducing the risk of snagging or interference in high-tension applications.

Explanation

An internal wrenching type bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications. This type of bolt is designed with a hexagonal socket on the head, allowing it to be tightened or loosened using an Allen wrench or hex key. The recessed head provides a flush surface when fully tightened, reducing the risk of snagging or interference in high-tension applications.

69. In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates?

Plain

Primary

Pratt and Whitney

In the given cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates "pin". This is because in electrical connectors, the letter P is commonly used to represent the pin contacts. Therefore, in this code, the letter P signifies that the connector has pin contacts.

Explanation

In the given cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates "pin". This is because in electrical connectors, the letter P is commonly used to represent the pin contacts. Therefore, in this code, the letter P signifies that the connector has pin contacts.

70. Bench stock levels are established to provide a

15-day usage

30-day usage

60-day usage

90-day usage

Bench stock levels are established to provide a buffer of inventory that can be readily available for immediate use. A 30-day usage level allows for a sufficient amount of stock to be maintained, ensuring that there is an adequate supply of materials or products to meet demand for a longer period of time. This helps to minimize the risk of stockouts and disruptions in production or service delivery.

Explanation

Bench stock levels are established to provide a buffer of inventory that can be readily available for immediate use. A 30-day usage level allows for a sufficient amount of stock to be maintained, ensuring that there is an adequate supply of materials or products to meet demand for a longer period of time. This helps to minimize the risk of stockouts and disruptions in production or service delivery.

71. What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?

5 mph

10 mph

15 mph

20 mph

The maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces is 20 mph. This means that the floodlight can be towed at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour on smooth surfaces without any issues or concerns. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the FL-1D floodlight while it is being towed.

Explanation

The maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces is 20 mph. This means that the floodlight can be towed at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour on smooth surfaces without any issues or concerns. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the FL-1D floodlight while it is being towed.

72. Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to

Check the AC voltages only

Check the DC voltages only

Initiate the touch-hold mode

Move the decimal point

The range button on the Fluke multimeter is used to adjust the measurement range of the device. By pressing the range button, the user can move the decimal point on the display to change the scale of the measurement. This allows for more accurate readings of different voltage levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "move the decimal point."

Explanation

The range button on the Fluke multimeter is used to adjust the measurement range of the device. By pressing the range button, the user can move the decimal point on the display to change the scale of the measurement. This allows for more accurate readings of different voltage levels. Therefore, the correct answer is "move the decimal point."

73. Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and

DD Form 1348-6

AFTO Form 349

AFTO Form 350

DD Form 1131

AFTO Form 350 is used within maintenance to accomplish the internal control of reparable items. This form is specifically designed for tracking and documenting reparable items throughout the maintenance process. It allows for better management and control of these items, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and repaired as needed. By using AFTO Form 350, maintenance personnel can easily track the status and location of reparable items, ensuring efficient and effective maintenance operations.

Explanation

AFTO Form 350 is used within maintenance to accomplish the internal control of reparable items. This form is specifically designed for tracking and documenting reparable items throughout the maintenance process. It allows for better management and control of these items, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and repaired as needed. By using AFTO Form 350, maintenance personnel can easily track the status and location of reparable items, ensuring efficient and effective maintenance operations.

74. Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed?

30 days

60 days

90 days

120 days

Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit is established to ensure that the hazardous materials are properly managed and disposed of in a timely manner to minimize the risk of accidents, spills, or other hazards. Exceeding this limit could lead to increased danger to the environment, human health, and safety. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to the 90-day limit for temporary storage of hazardous materials.

Explanation

Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This time limit is established to ensure that the hazardous materials are properly managed and disposed of in a timely manner to minimize the risk of accidents, spills, or other hazards. Exceeding this limit could lead to increased danger to the environment, human health, and safety. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to the 90-day limit for temporary storage of hazardous materials.

75. What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?

AFI 23-106

AFI 11-218

TO 00-25-172

TO 00-25-212

AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is a reference that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This document provides guidance on the use of hand signals in various situations, such as aviation operations. It outlines the standard hand signals that are recognized and used internationally, ensuring clear and effective communication between individuals in different countries or organizations.

Explanation

AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is a reference that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This document provides guidance on the use of hand signals in various situations, such as aviation operations. It outlines the standard hand signals that are recognized and used internationally, ensuring clear and effective communication between individuals in different countries or organizations.

76. Where can you find a list of training courses available for your AFSC?

CFETP, Part 1

AFJQS

Command JQS

CFETP, Part 2

CFETP, Part 2 is the correct answer because the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements for each Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). CFETP, Part 2 specifically provides a list of training courses available for a particular AFSC, making it the most appropriate source to find a list of training courses available for your AFSC.

Explanation

CFETP, Part 2 is the correct answer because the CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements for each Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). CFETP, Part 2 specifically provides a list of training courses available for a particular AFSC, making it the most appropriate source to find a list of training courses available for your AFSC.

77. GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted?

White with a green band near the bottom

Green with a white band near the bottom

White with a green band near the top

Green with a white band near the top

The correct answer is green with a white band near the top. This color scheme is used to indicate that the cylinder contains oxygen. The green color signifies that the cylinder contains a medical or breathing gas, while the white band near the top indicates that the oxygen is present in the cylinder. This color coding system helps to easily identify the contents of the cylinder and ensure proper handling and usage.

Explanation

The correct answer is green with a white band near the top. This color scheme is used to indicate that the cylinder contains oxygen. The green color signifies that the cylinder contains a medical or breathing gas, while the white band near the top indicates that the oxygen is present in the cylinder. This color coding system helps to easily identify the contents of the cylinder and ensure proper handling and usage.

78. What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer?

Mechanical

Pneumatic

Hydraulic

Electrical

The correct answer is Hydraulic. A hydraulic steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle allows for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer. Hydraulic systems use fluid pressure to transmit force, allowing for precise control and coordination of steering movements. This type of system is commonly used in heavy-duty vehicles like tow vehicles due to its durability and ability to handle high loads.

Explanation

The correct answer is Hydraulic. A hydraulic steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle allows for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer. Hydraulic systems use fluid pressure to transmit force, allowing for precise control and coordination of steering movements. This type of system is commonly used in heavy-duty vehicles like tow vehicles due to its durability and ability to handle high loads.

79. What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?

15 to 20 inches

20 to 25 inches

25 to 30 inches

30 to 35 inches

The interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing is 15 to 20 inches.

Explanation

The interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing is 15 to 20 inches.

80. Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?

Phase

Special

Calendar

Acceptance

When an aircraft is idle for an extended period of time, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is necessary to ensure that the aircraft remains in compliance with all scheduled maintenance tasks and inspections. It involves checking various components and systems of the aircraft based on a predetermined calendar schedule. This inspection is important to maintain the airworthiness of the aircraft and ensure its safe operation after a prolonged period of inactivity.

Explanation

When an aircraft is idle for an extended period of time, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is necessary to ensure that the aircraft remains in compliance with all scheduled maintenance tasks and inspections. It involves checking various components and systems of the aircraft based on a predetermined calendar schedule. This inspection is important to maintain the airworthiness of the aircraft and ensure its safe operation after a prolonged period of inactivity.

81. What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?

Damage and spare items

Expires and outdated items

Recurring and repeat replacement items

Select serially controlled and time change items

The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information system database. This means that the subsystem is responsible for accurately tracking and managing items that are controlled by serial numbers or require regular time-based changes. It ensures that these items are properly recorded and updated in the database, allowing for effective maintenance and tracking of these specific items.

Explanation

The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information system database. This means that the subsystem is responsible for accurately tracking and managing items that are controlled by serial numbers or require regular time-based changes. It ensures that these items are properly recorded and updated in the database, allowing for effective maintenance and tracking of these specific items.

82. Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?

1-21-101

1-1-691

1-1B-50

1-1-5

The correct answer is 1-1B-50. This document provides detailed information about weight and balance, including procedures, calculations, and limitations. It is a technical order (TO) specifically dedicated to weight and balance and is the most appropriate reference for obtaining comprehensive information on this topic.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1-1B-50. This document provides detailed information about weight and balance, including procedures, calculations, and limitations. It is a technical order (TO) specifically dedicated to weight and balance and is the most appropriate reference for obtaining comprehensive information on this topic.

83. All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT?

55

457

623

1297

The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the specific form used for documenting composite material-related safety training. This form ensures that all relevant information regarding the training is recorded and can be easily referenced and tracked. By documenting the training on AF IMT 55, it helps to ensure compliance with safety regulations and provides a record of the training for future reference and auditing purposes.

Explanation

The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the specific form used for documenting composite material-related safety training. This form ensures that all relevant information regarding the training is recorded and can be easily referenced and tracked. By documenting the training on AF IMT 55, it helps to ensure compliance with safety regulations and provides a record of the training for future reference and auditing purposes.

84. Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major and minor inspections?

Phased

Periodic

Isochronal

Hourly postflight

Isochronal inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major and minor inspections. This means that the inspections are conducted at regular time intervals, regardless of the actual flight hours or usage of the aircraft. The purpose of isochronal inspections is to ensure that the aircraft is maintained and checked thoroughly to detect any potential issues or problems that may arise over time.

Explanation

Isochronal inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major and minor inspections. This means that the inspections are conducted at regular time intervals, regardless of the actual flight hours or usage of the aircraft. The purpose of isochronal inspections is to ensure that the aircraft is maintained and checked thoroughly to detect any potential issues or problems that may arise over time.

85. What is used in determining design criteria such as requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?

Mission requirements

Aircraft dimensions

Structure strength

Aircraft weight

Aircraft weight is used in determining design criteria such as requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity. The weight of the aircraft directly affects its performance, fuel consumption, and structural integrity. It is crucial to consider the weight of various components and systems while designing an aircraft to ensure that it meets the mission requirements and can safely carry the desired payload. By analyzing the weight of the aircraft, engineers can make informed decisions about the size and strength of the structure, as well as the dimensions of the aircraft.

Explanation

Aircraft weight is used in determining design criteria such as requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity. The weight of the aircraft directly affects its performance, fuel consumption, and structural integrity. It is crucial to consider the weight of various components and systems while designing an aircraft to ensure that it meets the mission requirements and can safely carry the desired payload. By analyzing the weight of the aircraft, engineers can make informed decisions about the size and strength of the structure, as well as the dimensions of the aircraft.

86. The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the?

MAJCOM level

Wing level

Base level

Unit level

The IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources. It allows them to efficiently manage maintenance activities, track and allocate resources, and monitor the performance of units. Therefore, the correct answer is "Unit level" as the IMDS is designed to provide visibility and control at the individual unit level.

Explanation

The IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources. It allows them to efficiently manage maintenance activities, track and allocate resources, and monitor the performance of units. Therefore, the correct answer is "Unit level" as the IMDS is designed to provide visibility and control at the individual unit level.

87. What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?

39

49

59

69

The correct answer is 49. This means that the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC is 49.

Explanation

The correct answer is 49. This means that the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC is 49.

88. What is the maximum pressure that SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?

3,000 PSI

3,500 PSI

4,400 PSI

5,200 PSI

The correct answer is 4,400 PSI. This means that the SGNSC (presumably a type of equipment or system) is capable of delivering high-pressure nitrogen at a maximum pressure of 4,400 PSI.

Explanation

The correct answer is 4,400 PSI. This means that the SGNSC (presumably a type of equipment or system) is capable of delivering high-pressure nitrogen at a maximum pressure of 4,400 PSI.

89. The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from?

100-230 F

115-250 F

125-270 F

150-280 F

The correct answer is 150-280 F. This is because the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that can be set within this temperature range.

Explanation

The correct answer is 150-280 F. This is because the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that can be set within this temperature range.

90. The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces?

25.5 VDC

27.5 VDC

28.5 VDC

30.5 VDC

The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces a voltage of 28.5 VDC.

Explanation

The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces a voltage of 28.5 VDC.

91. Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for

200 hours of operation or one year from the date of the receipt

100 hours of operation or one year from the date of the receipt

200 hours of operation or six months from the date of the receipt

100 hours of operation or six months from the date of the receipt

Engines overhauled by the depot are covered against defects in workmanship for 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt. This means that within the first 100 hours of operation or within the first year after receiving the overhauled engine, any defects in the workmanship will be covered and repaired by the depot. After this time period, the responsibility for any defects will no longer be held by the depot.

Explanation

Engines overhauled by the depot are covered against defects in workmanship for 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt. This means that within the first 100 hours of operation or within the first year after receiving the overhauled engine, any defects in the workmanship will be covered and repaired by the depot. After this time period, the responsibility for any defects will no longer be held by the depot.

92. Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?

1577-2 and 1577-3

1576 and 1576-1

1574 and 1574-1

1575 and 1575-1

DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 are easily identified by their green margins and letters.

Explanation

DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 are easily identified by their green margins and letters.

93. Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in

Sequence charts

Inspection workcards

-06 work unit code manuals

-6 technical order inspection manuals

The correct answer is inspection workcards because they are specifically mentioned as one of the options for outlining the minimum aircraft inspection requirements. The other options mentioned in the question (sequence charts, -06 work unit code manuals, and -6 technical order inspection manuals) are not stated as the correct answer, indicating that inspection workcards are the most appropriate choice.

Explanation

The correct answer is inspection workcards because they are specifically mentioned as one of the options for outlining the minimum aircraft inspection requirements. The other options mentioned in the question (sequence charts, -06 work unit code manuals, and -6 technical order inspection manuals) are not stated as the correct answer, indicating that inspection workcards are the most appropriate choice.

94. Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?

Phase

Special

Calendar

Acceptance

Acceptance inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents. This type of inspection is conducted to verify that all required documents and records are present and accounted for. It ensures that no important documents are missing and that the historical documentation is comprehensive and accurate.

Explanation

Acceptance inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents. This type of inspection is conducted to verify that all required documents and records are present and accounted for. It ensures that no important documents are missing and that the historical documentation is comprehensive and accurate.

95. How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?

Primary and Secondary

Primary and Alternate

Number 1 and Number 2

Left and Right

The hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand are designated as Number 1 and Number 2.

Explanation

The hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand are designated as Number 1 and Number 2.

96. The limit for securing closely spaced bots in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a?

10 inch length of wire

12 inch length of wire

24 inch length of wire

36 inch length f wire

The limit for securing closely spaced bots in series when using the single-wire safety method is determined by the length of wire available. In this case, the maximum number of bolts that can be secured is determined by the 24 inch length of wire.

Explanation

The limit for securing closely spaced bots in series when using the single-wire safety method is determined by the length of wire available. In this case, the maximum number of bolts that can be secured is determined by the 24 inch length of wire.

97. Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?

Static

Tension

Dynamic

Rotational

Static friction is the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving. When an object is at rest and there is an applied force trying to move it, static friction acts in the opposite direction to prevent the object from sliding. It is the friction that must be overcome in order to initiate motion.

Explanation

Static friction is the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving. When an object is at rest and there is an applied force trying to move it, static friction acts in the opposite direction to prevent the object from sliding. It is the friction that must be overcome in order to initiate motion.

98. What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?

0.5 inch

1.0 inch

1.5 inch

2.0 inch

The longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil is 1.0 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects with a maximum thickness or length of 1.0 inch. It is important to note that this measurement is specific to the micrometer being used in this particular scenario.

Explanation

The longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil is 1.0 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects with a maximum thickness or length of 1.0 inch. It is important to note that this measurement is specific to the micrometer being used in this particular scenario.

99. What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?

Stress

Intergranular

Oxygen concentration cell

Metal ion concentration cell

Stress corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal is subjected to both tensile stress and a corrosive environment. It results in the formation of corroded cracks in the metal. This type of corrosion is particularly common in metals such as stainless steel and aluminum alloys, and can lead to catastrophic failures if not detected and addressed.

Explanation

Stress corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal is subjected to both tensile stress and a corrosive environment. It results in the formation of corroded cracks in the metal. This type of corrosion is particularly common in metals such as stainless steel and aluminum alloys, and can lead to catastrophic failures if not detected and addressed.

100. After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected when electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

Potassium hydroxide

Aluminum hydroxide

Sodium bicarbonate

Boric acid

Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected when electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. Sodium bicarbonate, also known as baking soda, is a mild alkali that can effectively neutralize acidic substances. When the electrolyte from a lead-acid battery comes into contact with surfaces or areas, it can cause corrosion due to its acidic nature. Sodium bicarbonate can react with the acidic electrolyte, neutralizing it and preventing further damage or corrosion.

Explanation

Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected when electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. Sodium bicarbonate, also known as baking soda, is a mild alkali that can effectively neutralize acidic substances. When the electrolyte from a lead-acid battery comes into contact with surfaces or areas, it can cause corrosion due to its acidic nature. Sodium bicarbonate can react with the acidic electrolyte, neutralizing it and preventing further damage or corrosion.

101. Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?

1-1A-8

25C2-3-372-11

32A1-4.219-45

35C2-3-372-11

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

102. What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?

A diesel engine

An electric motor

A gasoline engine

A hydraulic motor

The MK-3A-1 is driven by an electric motor. This means that the vehicle is powered by electricity, which is converted into mechanical energy by the motor. This type of propulsion offers several advantages, such as efficiency, low emissions, and quiet operation. Electric motors are commonly used in various applications, including electric vehicles, due to their reliability and environmental friendliness.

Explanation

The MK-3A-1 is driven by an electric motor. This means that the vehicle is powered by electricity, which is converted into mechanical energy by the motor. This type of propulsion offers several advantages, such as efficiency, low emissions, and quiet operation. Electric motors are commonly used in various applications, including electric vehicles, due to their reliability and environmental friendliness.

103. The MJ-2A reservoir hold what amount of fluid?

19 gallons

27 gallons

30 gallons

60 gallons

The MJ-2A reservoir holds 27 gallons of fluid.

Explanation

The MJ-2A reservoir holds 27 gallons of fluid.

104. Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures?

200 PSI and below

300 PSI and below

500 PSI and below

1,000 PSI and below

Low-pressure hoses are typically used for pressures that are 300 PSI and below. This means that they are suitable for applications where the pressure requirements are relatively low, such as in residential or light industrial settings. Hoses with higher pressure ratings would be necessary for applications that require higher pressures, such as heavy-duty industrial or commercial use.

Explanation

Low-pressure hoses are typically used for pressures that are 300 PSI and below. This means that they are suitable for applications where the pressure requirements are relatively low, such as in residential or light industrial settings. Hoses with higher pressure ratings would be necessary for applications that require higher pressures, such as heavy-duty industrial or commercial use.

105. Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?

AF 2005

AF Form 2413

AF IMT 1297

DD Form 1348-6

AF IMT 1297 is the correct answer because it is the form used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods. The AF IMT 1297, also known as the Temporary Issue Receipt, is used to document the temporary transfer of equipment from one individual or organization to another. It provides a record of the equipment being issued, the duration of the issue, and the responsible parties involved. This form is commonly used in the Air Force to track and manage the temporary issuance of equipment.

Explanation

AF IMT 1297 is the correct answer because it is the form used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods. The AF IMT 1297, also known as the Temporary Issue Receipt, is used to document the temporary transfer of equipment from one individual or organization to another. It provides a record of the equipment being issued, the duration of the issue, and the responsible parties involved. This form is commonly used in the Air Force to track and manage the temporary issuance of equipment.

106. Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?

Phased

Periodic

Isochronal

Programmed depot maintenance

Programmed depot maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive examination of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements of a technical order inspection. This type of maintenance is typically performed at a depot level and includes extensive inspections, repairs, and overhauls to ensure the equipment or system is in optimal condition. It is a planned and scheduled maintenance activity that aims to extend the lifespan and performance of the equipment.

Explanation

Programmed depot maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive examination of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements of a technical order inspection. This type of maintenance is typically performed at a depot level and includes extensive inspections, repairs, and overhauls to ensure the equipment or system is in optimal condition. It is a planned and scheduled maintenance activity that aims to extend the lifespan and performance of the equipment.

107. Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in

TO 00-20-1

TO 1-1-3

TO 1-1A-8

TO 1-1-691

The correct answer is TO 1-1-691. This document specifies the alkaline and solvent cleaners that are authorized for use on our aircraft. It provides guidelines and regulations on the types of cleaners that can be used, ensuring that they meet the necessary safety and effectiveness standards. By referring to TO 1-1-691, we can ensure that we are using the appropriate cleaners for our aircraft maintenance and cleaning tasks.

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 1-1-691. This document specifies the alkaline and solvent cleaners that are authorized for use on our aircraft. It provides guidelines and regulations on the types of cleaners that can be used, ensuring that they meet the necessary safety and effectiveness standards. By referring to TO 1-1-691, we can ensure that we are using the appropriate cleaners for our aircraft maintenance and cleaning tasks.

108. Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?

Slide caliper

Center caliper

Spring-joint caliper

Odd-leg caliper

Odd-leg caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders. This type of caliper has one fixed leg and one adjustable leg, allowing it to measure the distance between two points accurately. By placing the fixed leg against one shoulder and adjusting the movable leg to touch the other shoulder, the odd-leg caliper can determine the center or distance between the shafts. This makes it a suitable tool for tasks that require precise measurements of shaft centers or locating shoulders.

Explanation

Odd-leg caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders. This type of caliper has one fixed leg and one adjustable leg, allowing it to measure the distance between two points accurately. By placing the fixed leg against one shoulder and adjusting the movable leg to touch the other shoulder, the odd-leg caliper can determine the center or distance between the shafts. This makes it a suitable tool for tasks that require precise measurements of shaft centers or locating shoulders.

109. Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?

Snap ring

Spiral retaining rings

Beveled retaining rings

Axially assembled retaining ring

Spiral retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the groove. Unlike snap rings, which have a gap, spiral retaining rings form a continuous circle, providing full contact with the groove. Beveled retaining rings are not designed for 360-degree contact, and axially assembled retaining rings are assembled in a different manner.

Explanation

Spiral retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the groove. Unlike snap rings, which have a gap, spiral retaining rings form a continuous circle, providing full contact with the groove. Beveled retaining rings are not designed for 360-degree contact, and axially assembled retaining rings are assembled in a different manner.

110. To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form

126

1149

2691

2692

The correct answer is 1149 because DD Form 1149 is the official form used for requisitioning, receipt, and shipment of equipment through transportation channels. It is commonly used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies to track and document the movement of equipment.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1149 because DD Form 1149 is the official form used for requisitioning, receipt, and shipment of equipment through transportation channels. It is commonly used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies to track and document the movement of equipment.

111. Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?

Snap rings

Spiral retaining rings

Beveled retaining rings

Axially assembled retaining rings

Axially assembled retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them. This design allows for easy installation and removal of the retaining rings using pliers, providing convenience and efficiency in various applications. Snap rings, spiral retaining rings, and beveled retaining rings do not have this specific feature.

Explanation

Axially assembled retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them. This design allows for easy installation and removal of the retaining rings using pliers, providing convenience and efficiency in various applications. Snap rings, spiral retaining rings, and beveled retaining rings do not have this specific feature.

112. What is the temperature range for the C-10 air conditioning?

47-150 F

47-200 F

57-150 F

57-200 F

The C-10 air conditioning has a temperature range of 47-200 F.

Explanation

The C-10 air conditioning has a temperature range of 47-200 F.

113. The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than?

10 percent of wall thickness

15 percent of wall thickness

20 percent of wall thickness

25 percent of wall thickness

The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than 15 percent of the wall thickness. This means that any nicks or scratches on the tubing should not exceed 15 percent of the thickness of the tubing's walls. This is important because deeper nicks and scratches can compromise the structural integrity of the tubing and potentially lead to failure or damage during flight. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to this limit to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

Explanation

The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than 15 percent of the wall thickness. This means that any nicks or scratches on the tubing should not exceed 15 percent of the thickness of the tubing's walls. This is important because deeper nicks and scratches can compromise the structural integrity of the tubing and potentially lead to failure or damage during flight. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to this limit to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

114. Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a?

15-foot radius

20-foot radius

25-foot radius

50-foot radius

The correct answer is 20-foot radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is necessary to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if mishandled or if there is a leak. By maintaining this radius, the risk of any potential accidents or injuries can be minimized.

Explanation

The correct answer is 20-foot radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is necessary to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if mishandled or if there is a leak. By maintaining this radius, the risk of any potential accidents or injuries can be minimized.

115. Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and s a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?

Phased

Periodic

Isochronal

Hourly postflight

A periodic inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order. It is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle.

Explanation

A periodic inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order. It is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle.

116. The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to?

200 PSI

350 PSI

3,200 PSI

3,500 PSI

The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to 3,200 PSI. This means that the compressor can operate within this range without any issues. Operating below or above this range may result in inefficiency or damage to the compressor.

Explanation

The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to 3,200 PSI. This means that the compressor can operate within this range without any issues. Operating below or above this range may result in inefficiency or damage to the compressor.

117. The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of?

200 PSI

300 PSI

3,500 PSI

3,600 PSI

The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 PSI.

Explanation

The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 PSI.

CDC Volume 1 UREs 2AX5X

1. The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature it?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park in an isolated location ad then?

3. Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

4. In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

5. The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the?

6. During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

7. What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

8. What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

9. When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by?

10. Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

11. What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen?

12. What affects radiation hazards?

13. The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side?

14. When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

15. Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hanger you must?

16. Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

17. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X is the?

18. The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time?

19. What is the percentage of accidents attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

20. Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by?

21. Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

22. Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

23. Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

24. The MB-4 Coleman incorporates?

25. Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

26. Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when the predetermined torque value is reached?

27. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

28. Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

29. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

30. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

31. What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

32. Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO?

33. What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

34. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented?

35. How are special bolts identified?

36. What part of the cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?

37. Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

38. The TH inspection is normally performed

39. A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than?

40. The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to?

41. The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by?

42. Which of these is a scissor type maintenance stand?

43. Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts low-torque applications?

44. When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself even with the?

45. What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

46. What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

47. What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

48. Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the?

49. When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the?

50. Objectives of the MDD system include?

51. The AFTO 781 must be removed from the form binder?

52. What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the Model 4000 engine trailer can support?

53. Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?

54. Who determines which items in the MDS specific -5 TO need historical reporting?

55. The FL-1D floodlight consists of two?

56. What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?

57. Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but if often used as pins in control systems?

58. A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by?

59. When securing widely spaced bolts by double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series?

60. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

61. Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?

62. All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

63. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?

64. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

65. Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

66. On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is?

67. What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?

68. Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?

69. In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates?

70. Bench stock levels are established to provide a

71. What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?

72. Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to

73. Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and

74. Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed?

75. What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?

76. Where can you find a list of training courses available for your AFSC?

77. GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted?