CDC Volume 1 UREs 2AX5X
Settings
.
- 1.The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature it?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 2.What is the percentage of accidents attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards?
- A.
98
- B.
50
- C.
70
- D.
90
- 3.Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
- A.
Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
- B.
Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks
- C.
TOs, manuals, and CDCs
- D.
TOs, handbooks and CDCs
- 4.What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression on new Airmen?
- A.
Initial
- B.
General
- C.
Supervisor's
- D.
Sustained job safety
- 5.A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than?
- A.
-2.0 percent
- B.
-1.0 percent
- C.
0.1 percent
- D.
1.0 percent
- 6.Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by?
- A.
The US Air Force
- B.
Each MAJCOM
- C.
DOD
- D.
EPA
- 7.Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed?
- A.
30 days
- B.
60 days
- C.
90 days
- D.
120 days
- 8.What affects radiation hazards?
- A.
Strength of emission, time of day and input power
- B.
Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather
- C.
Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area
- D.
Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units
- 9.The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park in an isolated location ad then?
- A.
Spray with cold water
- B.
Cool with forced air from a blower
- C.
Cool with -high-pressure compressed air
- D.
Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
- 10.The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side?
- A.
15 degrees
- B.
45 degrees
- C.
65 degrees
- D.
95 degrees
- 11.Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
- A.
Dizziness
- B.
Emotional irritability
- C.
A feeling of emptiness
- D.
Impaired mental concentration
- 12.When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?
- A.
Crew Chief
- B.
Flight engineer
- C.
Weapons personnel
- D.
Only senior personnel on special orders
- 13.Before moving an explosive-loaded aircraft into a hanger you must?
- A.
Install shorting plugs and clips
- B.
Install mechanical safetying devices
- C.
Remove all ammunition and explosives
- D.
Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF
- 14.All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT?
- A.
55
- B.
457
- C.
623
- D.
1297
- 15.The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to?
- A.
Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly
- B.
Follow MAJCOM guidelines
- C.
Identify all possible sources of FOD
- D.
Educated all personnel
- 16.Who is responsible for FOD prevention?
- A.
Logistics and operations group commanders
- B.
Immediate supervisor
- C.
Wing commander
- D.
Everyone
- 17.When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest possible person authorized to clear a red X is the?
- A.
Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
- B.
Wing vice commander
- C.
Group commander
- D.
Wing commander
- 18.In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?
- A.
The FOD prevention office
- B.
The operations commander
- C.
The flight safety officer
- D.
QA
- 19.The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the?
- A.
Red markings
- B.
Black markings
- C.
Green markings
- D.
Orange markings
- 20.Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a?
- A.
15-foot radius
- B.
20-foot radius
- C.
25-foot radius
- D.
50-foot radius
- 21.Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?
- A.
Operations
- B.
The aircrew
- C.
Supervision
- D.
The ground crew
- 22.When servicing as fireguard, you position yourself even with the?
- A.
Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started
- B.
Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
- C.
Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started
- D.
Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
- 23.What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?
- A.
AFI 23-106
- B.
AFI 11-218
- C.
TO 00-25-172
- D.
TO 00-25-212
- 24.During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
- A.
Supervisor or vehicle operator
- B.
Supervisor or brake operator
- C.
Supervisor or wing walkers
- D.
Supervisor only
- 25.What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
- A.
Departmental, intermediate, and field
- B.
Organizational, field, and intermediate
- C.
Organizational, intermediate, and depot
- D.
Departmental, organizational, and dept
- 26.What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
- A.
Unscheduled
- B.
Preventive
- C.
Corrective
- D.
Protective
- 27.Objectives of the MDD system include?
- A.
Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- B.
Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data
- C.
Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data
- D.
Collecting, storing and retrieving base-level data
- 28.What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?
- A.
Damage and spare items
- B.
Expires and outdated items
- C.
Recurring and repeat replacement items
- D.
Select serially controlled and time change items
- 29.What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?
- A.
781A
- B.
781F
- C.
781H
- D.
781J
- 30.The AFTO 781 must be removed from the form binder?
- A.
Before the first flight of the day
- B.
Before each thruflight inspection
- C.
After the event number is entered into the maintenance debriefing
- D.
After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number
- 31.Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO?
- A.
781G
- B.
781J
- C.
781M
- D.
781P
- 32.Who determines which items in the MDS specific -5 TO need historical reporting?
- A.
Base supply coordinator
- B.
Critical item liaison
- C.
Equipment liaison
- D.
Item managers
- 33.The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the?
- A.
MAJCOM level
- B.
Wing level
- C.
Base level
- D.
Unit level
- 34.The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by?
- A.
Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty
- B.
Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training
- C.
Helping evaluate the training for new personnel
- D.
Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
- 35.Where can you find a list of training courses available for your AFSC?
- A.
CFETP, Part 1
- B.
AFJQS
- C.
Command JQS
- D.
CFETP, Part 2
- 36.The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time?
- A.
Access to Distance Learning courseware
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide
- D.
Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses
- 37.Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
- A.
Training
- B.
Aircraft
- C.
Reference
- D.
Operational
- 38.What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 39.Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
- A.
Trouble
- B.
Remedy
- C.
Section 2
- D.
Probable Cause
- 40.Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
B-5
- 41.Which of these is a scissor type maintenance stand?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
C-1
- 42.What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the Model 4000 engine trailer can support?
- A.
7,000
- B.
8.000
- C.
9,000
- D.
10,000
- 43.On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is?
- A.
10 mph
- B.
15 mph
- C.
20 mph
- D.
25 mph
- 44.What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
- A.
Tail
- B.
Axle
- C.
Nose
- D.
Fixed-height
- 45.Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented?
- A.
AGE personnel
- B.
Aircrew personnel
- C.
Shift supervisor
- D.
Everyone
- 46.GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted?
- A.
White with a green band near the bottom
- B.
Green with a white band near the bottom
- C.
White with a green band near the top
- D.
Green with a white band near the top
- 47.When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by?
- A.
AGE personnel only
- B.
The highest ranking person on the shift
- C.
Qualified operator only
- D.
Any person
- 48.What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?
- A.
39
- B.
49
- C.
59
- D.
69
- 49.What is the maximum pressure that SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?
- A.
3,000 PSI
- B.
3,500 PSI
- C.
4,400 PSI
- D.
5,200 PSI
- 50.The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to?
- A.
200 PSI
- B.
350 PSI
- C.
3,200 PSI
- D.
3,500 PSI
- 51.The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from?
- A.
100-230 F
- B.
115-250 F
- C.
125-270 F
- D.
150-280 F
- 52.The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of?
- A.
200 PSI
- B.
300 PSI
- C.
3,500 PSI
- D.
3,600 PSI
- 53.What is the temperature range for the C-10 air conditioning?
- A.
47-150 F
- B.
47-200 F
- C.
57-150 F
- D.
57-200 F
- 54.The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces?
- A.
25.5 VDC
- B.
27.5 VDC
- C.
28.5 VDC
- D.
30.5 VDC
- 55.What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?
- A.
A/M32A-95
- B.
A/M32A-86
- C.
A/M32A-60
- D.
AF/M-32R-3
- 56.Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?
- A.
1-1A-8
- B.
25C2-3-372-11
- C.
32A1-4.219-45
- D.
35C2-3-372-11
- 57.The FL-1D floodlight consists of two?
- A.
100 watt lamp fixtures
- B.
1,000 watt lamp fixtures
- C.
10,000 watt lamp fixtures
- D.
100,000 watt lamp fixtures
- 58.What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
- A.
5 mph
- B.
10 mph
- C.
15 mph
- D.
20 mph
- 59.What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?
- A.
A diesel engine
- B.
An electric motor
- C.
A gasoline engine
- D.
A hydraulic motor
- 60.How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?
- A.
Primary and Secondary
- B.
Primary and Alternate
- C.
Number 1 and Number 2
- D.
Left and Right
- 61.The MJ-2A reservoir hold what amount of fluid?
- A.
19 gallons
- B.
27 gallons
- C.
30 gallons
- D.
60 gallons
- 62.The MB-4 Coleman incorporates?
- A.
Two-wheel steering, two-wheel drive
- B.
Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive
- C.
Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive
- D.
Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive
- 63.What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
- A.
15 mph
- B.
20 mph
- C.
25 mph
- D.
55 mph
- 64.What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer?
- A.
Mechanical
- B.
Pneumatic
- C.
Hydraulic
- D.
Electrical
- 65.Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts low-torque applications?
- A.
Reduce shearing
- B.
Prevent corrosion
- C.
Prevent vibration
- D.
Reduce shimming
- 66.How are special bolts identified?
- A.
By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering
- B.
By a galvanized-plated steel covering
- C.
The bolt head is marked with a triangle
- D.
The blot head is marked with the letter S
- 67.Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but if often used as pins in control systems?
- A.
Stud
- B.
Clevis
- C.
Eyebolt
- D.
Hexhead
- 68.Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
- A.
A stud
- B.
An eyebolt
- C.
A hexhead
- D.
An internal wrenching type
- 69.Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the?
- A.
Knurl beside the fork
- B.
Groove by the cable eye
- C.
Knurl beside the pin eye
- D.
Groove on the end of the barrel
- 70.Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?
- A.
Soft Rubber
- B.
Phenolic mix
- C.
Non-magnetic
- D.
Thermosetting plastic
- 71.A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by?
- A.
Using a depth gauge to check end play
- B.
Ensuring that no lateral movement exists
- C.
Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing
- D.
Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal
- 72.What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?
- A.
15 to 20 inches
- B.
20 to 25 inches
- C.
25 to 30 inches
- D.
30 to 35 inches
- 73.The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than?
- A.
10 percent of wall thickness
- B.
15 percent of wall thickness
- C.
20 percent of wall thickness
- D.
25 percent of wall thickness
- 74.The limit for securing closely spaced bots in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a?
- A.
10 inch length of wire
- B.
12 inch length of wire
- C.
24 inch length of wire
- D.
36 inch length f wire
- 75.Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures?
- A.
200 PSI and below
- B.
300 PSI and below
- C.
500 PSI and below
- D.
1,000 PSI and below
- 76.When securing widely spaced bolts by double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series?
- A.
3
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
6
- 77.Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
- A.
Snap rings
- B.
Spiral retaining rings
- C.
Beveled retaining rings
- D.
Axially assembled retaining rings
- 78.Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?
- A.
Snap ring
- B.
Spiral retaining rings
- C.
Beveled retaining rings
- D.
Axially assembled retaining ring
- 79.What part of the cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
- A.
Metal shells
- B.
Connector halves
- C.
Dielectric contacts
- D.
Pin-and-socket contacts
- 80.In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates?
- A.
Pin
- B.
Plain
- C.
Primary
- D.
Pratt and Whitney
- 81.Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?
- A.
Indicating type
- B.
Breakaway type
- C.
Screwdriver type
- D.
Internal wrenching type
- 82.Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when the predetermined torque value is reached?
- A.
Indicating type
- B.
Breakaway type
- C.
Screwdriver type
- D.
Internal wrenching type
- 83.Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
- A.
Maximum setting at least four times
- B.
Maximum setting at least six times
- C.
Lowest setting at least four times
- D.
Lowest setting at least six times
- 84.What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
- A.
Extension and flexion
- B.
Tension and torsion
- C.
Torque and friction
- D.
Push and pull
- 85.Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
- A.
Static
- B.
Tension
- C.
Dynamic
- D.
Rotational
- 86.Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to
- A.
Check the AC voltages only
- B.
Check the DC voltages only
- C.
Initiate the touch-hold mode
- D.
Move the decimal point
- 87.When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the?
- A.
Manual range mode is indicated
- B.
Touch-hold mode is in use
- C.
Ohms function is selected
- D.
Meter is zeroing itself
- 88.Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
- A.
Multimeter
- B.
Depth gauge
- C.
Feeler gauge
- D.
Torque wrench
- 89.What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?
- A.
0.5 inch
- B.
1.0 inch
- C.
1.5 inch
- D.
2.0 inch
- 90.Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?
- A.
Simple caliper
- B.
Transfer caliper
- C.
Spring-joint caliper
- D.
Odd-leg caliper
- 91.Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
- A.
Slide caliper
- B.
Center caliper
- C.
Spring-joint caliper
- D.
Odd-leg caliper
- 92.Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
- A.
Slide caliper
- B.
Simple caliper
- C.
Transfer caliper
- D.
Spring-joint caliper
- 93.Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
- A.
Base commander
- B.
Squadron commander
- C.
Supervision at all levels
- D.
Squadron QA section
- 94.Bench stock levels are established to provide a
- A.
15-day usage
- B.
30-day usage
- C.
60-day usage
- D.
90-day usage
- 95.Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?
- A.
AF 2005
- B.
AF Form 2413
- C.
AF IMT 1297
- D.
DD Form 1348-6
- 96.All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
- A.
PDC
- B.
AAC
- C.
PACC
- D.
ERRC
- 97.Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
- A.
DD Form 1348-6
- B.
AFTO Form 349
- C.
AFTO Form 350
- D.
DD Form 1131
- 98.Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
- A.
1577-2 and 1577-3
- B.
1576 and 1576-1
- C.
1574 and 1574-1
- D.
1575 and 1575-1
- 99.Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for
- A.
200 hours of operation or one year from the date of the receipt
- B.
100 hours of operation or one year from the date of the receipt
- C.
200 hours of operation or six months from the date of the receipt
- D.
100 hours of operation or six months from the date of the receipt
- 100.Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and s a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Isochronal
- D.
Hourly postflight
- 101.Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major and minor inspections?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Isochronal
- D.
Hourly postflight
- 102.Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?
- A.
Phased
- B.
Periodic
- C.
Isochronal
- D.
Programmed depot maintenance
- 103.Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
- A.
Sequence charts
- B.
Inspection workcards
- C.
-06 work unit code manuals
- D.
-6 technical order inspection manuals
- 104.Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
- A.
In progress
- B.
PR
- C.
TH
- D.
EOR
- 105.The TH inspection is normally performed
- A.
Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period
- B.
After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
- C.
Immediately prior to a BPO
- D.
After the last flight of a specified flying period
- 106.Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Special
- C.
Calendar
- D.
Acceptance
- 107.Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?
- A.
Phase
- B.
Special
- C.
Calendar
- D.
Acceptance
- 108.To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form
- A.
126
- B.
1149
- C.
2691
- D.
2692
- 109.Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
- A.
1-21-101
- B.
1-1-691
- C.
1-1B-50
- D.
1-1-5
- 110.What is used in determining design criteria such as requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
- A.
Mission requirements
- B.
Aircraft dimensions
- C.
Structure strength
- D.
Aircraft weight
- 111.Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
- A.
"EMERGENCY"
- B.
"DIAGNOSE"
- C.
"TRIAGE"
- D.
"STAT"
- 112.Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
- A.
Exposed to the moist air
- B.
Exposed to a chemical
- C.
Connected to another part
- D.
Fabricated or manufactured
- 113.Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
- A.
Painted
- B.
Heat treated
- C.
Chemically treated
- D.
Exhausted or salvaged
- 114.What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?
- A.
Pitting
- B.
Galvanic
- C.
Exfoliation
- D.
Crevice/concentration cell
- 115.What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
- A.
Stress
- B.
Intergranular
- C.
Oxygen concentration cell
- D.
Metal ion concentration cell
- 116.Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
- A.
TO 00-20-1
- B.
TO 1-1-3
- C.
TO 1-1A-8
- D.
TO 1-1-691
- 117.After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected when electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
- A.
Potassium hydroxide
- B.
Aluminum hydroxide
- C.
Sodium bicarbonate
- D.
Boric acid
Back to top