3P071 Volume 3(Map Quiz)

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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1. What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass?

Explanation

When inspecting a lensatic compass, the most important thing to look for is whether the dial or arrow moves freely. This is crucial because a compass that is stuck or has a stiff dial/arrow will not provide accurate readings. The ability for the dial or arrow to move freely ensures that the compass is functioning properly and will give reliable directions.

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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

Volume 3

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2. Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?

Explanation

The low crawl method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette. This means that when you are low crawling, your body is closest to the ground, minimizing your visibility and making it harder for the enemy to spot you. This technique is commonly used in military and tactical situations where staying hidden and maintaining a low profile is crucial for survival and success.

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3. After entering a room, which enemy threat is engaged first?

Explanation

The most immediate enemy threat is engaged first after entering a room. This means that the enemy threat closest to the entry point is the first one to be engaged. This approach ensures that the immediate danger is neutralized before dealing with other threats in the room. By prioritizing the closest enemy, it allows for better control of the situation and reduces the risk of being overwhelmed by multiple threats simultaneously.

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4. To avoid injury and circuit damage, what should you always do before replacing components or making adjustments to electronic equipment?

Explanation

Before replacing components or making adjustments to electronic equipment, it is important to remove power, discharge, and ground the equipment. This is necessary to avoid injury and circuit damage. Removing power ensures that there is no electrical current flowing through the equipment, reducing the risk of electric shock. Discharging the equipment helps to eliminate any stored electrical energy, preventing the possibility of electrical discharge when working on the components. Grounding the equipment helps to provide a safe path for any residual electrical energy to dissipate, further reducing the risk of shock or damage.

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5. What advantage is gained by performing a rapid, violent assault?

Explanation

Performing a rapid, violent assault provides the advantage of overwhelming and destroying the enemy force and seizing the objective. This approach allows for quick and decisive action, catching the enemy off guard and preventing them from effectively defending themselves. By swiftly overpowering the enemy, the assaulting force can gain control of the objective before the enemy has a chance to mount a counterattack. This strategy minimizes the risk of prolonged engagement and maximizes the chances of success in achieving the mission objective.

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6. You would use precision room clearing techniques when

Explanation

Precision room clearing techniques are used when the tactical situation requires clearing a relatively intact building where enemy combatants and noncombatants may be intermixed. This technique allows for a methodical and controlled approach to ensure the safety of both the clearing team and any noncombatants present. It is necessary in situations where there is a risk of collateral damage or harm to civilians, requiring a careful and deliberate approach to identify and neutralize any threats while minimizing harm to innocent individuals.

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7. Before entering a building through a window or door that was created by artillery fire, what should you throw into the new entrance to reinforce the effects of the original blast?

Explanation

Throwing a cooked off hand grenade into the new entrance will reinforce the effects of the original blast. This is because a cooked off hand grenade refers to a grenade that has had its safety pin removed and is ready to explode upon impact. By throwing it into the entrance, it will create additional damage and destruction, making it more difficult for anyone inside the building to defend themselves or escape.

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8. Which color, found on a map, represents man-made features?

Explanation

Black is the color that represents man-made features on a map. This is because black is commonly used to depict roads, highways, buildings, and other human-made structures on maps. It provides a clear contrast against the natural features depicted in other colors like green for vegetation, yellow for deserts, and orange for mountains. By using black to represent man-made features, it helps users easily identify and distinguish between natural and artificial elements on a map.

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9. On a map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank?

Explanation

A solid blue line on a map typically represents a body of water, such as a river. The thin black line alongside the blue line indicates the bank of the river. Therefore, the representation of a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank signifies a river on the map.

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10. Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element?

Explanation

The L-shaped ambush is the correct answer because it utilizes limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element. Limiting stakes are placed in a way that creates a safe zone for the assault element, protecting them from being accidentally hit by their own forces. This type of ambush formation is effective in minimizing the risk of friendly fire and maximizing the element of surprise against the enemy.

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11. Most convoy planning is based on unit

Explanation

Convoy planning is a systematic process that involves coordinating and organizing the movement of multiple vehicles. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) are a set of established guidelines and protocols that dictate how certain tasks should be carried out. In the context of convoy planning, SOP provides a standardized framework for planning and executing convoy operations. It ensures that all units involved in the convoy are familiar with the procedures, enhancing coordination, efficiency, and safety during the mission. Therefore, SOP is the most suitable choice for convoy planning.

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12. Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; and relays weather information?

Explanation

The correct answer is S-2. The S-2 function is responsible for gathering intelligence for air base defense force operations, predicting the effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks, and relaying weather information. This function plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of air base defense operations by providing valuable intelligence and predictions related to potential threats and weather conditions.

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13. What is often needed to defeat barriers that are more elaborate or to produce a desired effect to aid the initial entry?

Explanation

Demolitions are often needed to defeat barriers that are more elaborate or to produce a desired effect to aid the initial entry. This is because demolitions involve the use of explosives to destroy or dismantle obstacles such as walls, barricades, or fortifications. By using demolitions, one can effectively break through or bypass these barriers, allowing for easier access or achieving the desired outcome. Battering rams, sledgehammers, and small arms may be useful in certain situations, but they are generally not as effective or efficient as demolitions when it comes to dealing with elaborate barriers.

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14. Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?

Explanation

A leader would issue a fragmentary order to change an existing order. A fragmentary order, also known as a FRAGO, is a type of order that is used to modify or update a previous order. It is typically issued when there is a need to make changes or adjustments to the original plan or instructions. By issuing a fragmentary order, the leader can communicate the necessary changes to the personnel and ensure that everyone is aware of the updated instructions. This allows for flexibility and adaptability in the execution of operations.

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15. If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as a single line, these lines denote a

Explanation

When contour lines on a map are close together and almost appear as a single line on the opposite side of a hill, it indicates a vertical or near-vertical cliff. This means that there is a steep drop or wall on that side of the hill, rather than a small ridge, plateau, or depression.

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16. Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within how many meters of the point you wish to identify?

Explanation

Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within 100 meters of the point you wish to identify. This means that if you have a six-digit grid coordinate, the point you are looking for will be within a 100-meter radius of that coordinate.

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17. Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?

Explanation

Moving with stealth requires a great deal of patience because it involves moving silently and carefully to avoid being detected. It requires controlling one's movements, being aware of surroundings, and taking slow and deliberate steps. Patience is necessary to maintain a slow and steady pace, to avoid making noise or sudden movements that could give away one's position. It also requires waiting for the right moment to move and being patient in observing and assessing the situation before taking action. Overall, moving with stealth requires a high level of patience to ensure success and avoid detection.

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18. Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?

Explanation

Silent is not a type of reconnaissance patrol because reconnaissance patrols are designed to gather information about enemy positions, movements, and activities. They typically involve making noise and engaging with the enemy to gather intelligence. Silent patrols, on the other hand, prioritize stealth and avoiding detection, which is more characteristic of a surveillance or covert operation rather than a reconnaissance patrol.

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19. Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale?

Explanation

S-1 is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale.

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20. The S–4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations order?

Explanation

The S-4 is responsible for completing paragraph 4 of the squadron operations order. This indicates that the S-4 is in charge of providing information related to logistics, such as supply, transportation, and maintenance, which are crucial for the successful execution of the squadron's operations.

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21. What civilian law enforcement agent will be included in any off-base nuclear weapon movement?

Explanation

The United States Marshal is the correct answer because they are responsible for enforcing federal laws and have jurisdiction over federal crimes, including the movement of nuclear weapons. They have the authority to provide security and ensure the safe transport of nuclear weapons off-base. Local patrolmen, deputy chiefs of police, and local FBI agents may not have the necessary jurisdiction or authority in such cases.

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22. When hardening vehicles using sandbags, as an additional precaution, what is placed over the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments?

Explanation

A heavy rubber or fiber mat is placed over the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments. This mat acts as an extra layer of protection by absorbing and dispersing the impact of any fragments that may be caused by explosions or other high-velocity projectiles. The mat helps to prevent the fragments from penetrating the sandbags and causing harm to the vehicle or its occupants. Camo netting and chicken wire are not suitable for this purpose as they do not provide the same level of protection as a heavy rubber or fiber mat.

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23. When moving parallel to a building during an urban operation, how should you move from one covered position to another covered position?

Explanation

When moving parallel to a building during an urban operation, it is important to move quickly from one covered position to another covered position. This is because staying in one position for too long increases the risk of being detected or targeted by enemy forces. Moving quickly allows for minimal exposure and reduces the chances of being spotted or engaged in combat. Additionally, swift movement helps to maintain the element of surprise and enables the team to maintain momentum and achieve their objectives effectively.

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24. When performing building clearing, what must squad and fire team leaders consider to achieve the desired results?

Explanation

Squad and fire team leaders must consider the task and purpose they have been given, as well as the method they are to use, when performing building clearing. These factors are crucial in achieving the desired results as they guide the leaders in determining the appropriate tactics, strategies, and actions to be taken during the operation. By understanding the task and purpose, leaders can effectively plan and coordinate their teams, while considering the method ensures that they are utilizing the most suitable approach for the specific building clearing scenario.

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25. In paragraph 3 - execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of operations?

Explanation

The concept of operations should be written in a concise and understandable manner, providing a general description of how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish. This means that the explanation should be clear and easy to comprehend, while also providing a high-level overview of the unit's planned actions and objectives throughout the mission.

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26. The basic formation for the fire team is the

Explanation

The correct answer is "wedge". In military tactics, a fire team is a small unit that operates together. The wedge formation is commonly used by fire teams as it provides good visibility and allows for quick movement and maneuverability. In a wedge formation, the team members are positioned in a triangular shape, with the team leader at the front and the other members fanning out behind in a V shape. This formation is effective for advancing or assaulting an objective while maintaining good communication and covering multiple angles.

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27. Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?

Explanation

The line formation provides maximum firepower to the front because it allows all soldiers to face the enemy directly and engage in combat simultaneously. In a line formation, soldiers stand shoulder to shoulder, creating a continuous line of fire. This formation ensures that the maximum number of soldiers can engage the enemy at once, increasing the overall firepower and effectiveness of the unit. Additionally, the line formation provides better visibility and communication between soldiers, allowing for better coordination and tactical maneuvers.

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28. Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base

Explanation

When employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base of fire. This means that before attempting any maneuvers, the unit needs to establish a position from which they can provide suppressive fire on the enemy. This base of fire acts as a support and provides cover for the maneuvering elements of the unit. It allows them to advance and engage the enemy while minimizing their own exposure to enemy fire. Without a base of fire, the unit would be vulnerable and unable to effectively execute their maneuvers.

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29. Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?

Explanation

When a team withdraws from an ambush site, they typically do so in the reverse order that they established their positions. This means that the team members who were the last to take up their positions will be the first ones to withdraw, while those who were the first to take up their positions will be the last ones to leave. This strategy allows for a more organized and controlled withdrawal, ensuring that each team member has cover and support as they retreat from the ambush site.

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30. Which of the following statement concerning the reconnaissance in force (precision techniques) is not true?

Explanation

The statement that "reconnaissance in force (precision techniques) causes minimal stress in those involved" is not true. Reconnaissance in force typically involves a show of force and aggressive tactics, which can be highly stressful for those involved. The purpose of reconnaissance in force is to gather information and intimidate the enemy, so stress and tension are expected outcomes of this type of operation.

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31. When writing paragraph 2 - mission in the operations order, how often do you state the mission?

Explanation

In paragraph 2 of an operations order, the mission is typically stated twice. This is done to ensure clarity and understanding among the personnel involved in the mission. By restating the mission, it serves as a reminder and helps to reinforce the objective and goals that need to be achieved. Additionally, stating the mission twice allows for any potential misunderstandings or confusion to be addressed and corrected, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and working towards a common purpose.

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32. What are the two types of withdrawals?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Assisted and unassisted." This is because the question is asking for the types of withdrawals, and "assisted" and "unassisted" are two distinct types of withdrawals. "Fast and slow," "aid and unaided," and "forward and backward" are not relevant to the concept of withdrawals.

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33. What is the convoy driver's sector of observation?

Explanation

The convoy driver's sector of observation is from 9 to 1 o'clock. This means that the driver is responsible for monitoring and watching for any potential threats or obstacles within this time frame. It is important for the driver to maintain awareness and keep a lookout in this sector to ensure the safety and security of the convoy.

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34. A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team

Explanation

A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team has a specific target and a predetermined location. This means that the team plans and prepares in advance to attack a specific target at a specific location. The team would have gathered intelligence and identified the target, as well as selected a location that provides tactical advantages for the ambush. By having a specific target and predetermined location, the team can effectively coordinate their actions and maximize the chances of a successful ambush.

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35. When cleaning communication equipment, what should you use to dust the switches and light emitting diodes?

Explanation

When cleaning communication equipment, it is recommended to use a soft bristled brush to dust the switches and light emitting diodes. This is because a soft bristled brush will effectively remove dust and debris without causing any damage to the delicate components of the equipment. Using an abrasive material or a damp cloth can potentially scratch or damage the switches and LEDs, while a lint-free cloth may not be as effective in removing dust. Therefore, a soft bristled brush is the best option for cleaning these components.

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36. In reference to convoy communications, what is the frequency requirement for a convoy program report?

Explanation

The frequency requirement for a convoy program report is every 15 minutes. This means that the report needs to be provided every 15 minutes during the convoy communications.

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37. While a convoy is moving on a controlled route, where will the start point usually be located?

Explanation

The start point of a convoy on a controlled route is typically located at the first checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes. This is where the convoy will begin its journey and proceed along the designated route. The convoy commander may designate this location as the start point to ensure a smooth and organized departure.

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38. Why do squads use formations?

Explanation

Squads use formations for control flexibility and security because it allows them to maintain better coordination and organization during tactical operations. By adopting specific formations, squad members can strategically position themselves to cover different areas, provide support, and respond effectively to any threats or challenges they may encounter. This enhances their ability to control the situation, adapt to changing circumstances, and ensure the safety and success of the mission.

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39. You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You decide to use a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is reached, then continue the mission. Which movement method did you elect to use?

Explanation

The correct answer is Detour bypass method. This method involves using a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left in order to move around the open area until the far side is reached. This allows the squad to avoid crossing the open area directly and potentially exposing themselves to danger. By taking a detour, they can maintain cover and concealment while continuing their mission.

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40. Which term is best to use when arranging a general off-base nuclear weapon movement with local authorities?

Explanation

Sensitive movement is the best term to use when arranging a general off-base nuclear weapon movement with local authorities because it implies a level of caution and confidentiality that is necessary when dealing with such sensitive and potentially dangerous materials. This term conveys the importance of handling the movement discreetly and securely, ensuring that the information does not fall into the wrong hands and that all necessary precautions are taken to prevent any mishaps or security breaches.

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41. If you are acting out the actions that will occur during a mission using the actual vehicles and equipment that will be used to conduct the operation, you are performing which type of mission rehearsal?

Explanation

A walk-through mission rehearsal involves physically acting out the actions that will occur during a mission using the actual vehicles and equipment that will be used. This type of rehearsal allows individuals to familiarize themselves with the physical environment and practice the specific tasks they will be performing. It helps identify any potential issues or challenges that may arise during the actual operation and allows for adjustments to be made accordingly.

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42. Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground?

Explanation

A saddle is a major terrain feature that is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground. It is similar to a saddle on a horse's back, where the dip between the two higher areas resembles the seat of a saddle. This term is commonly used in geography and topography to describe such a feature. A depression refers to a lower area surrounded by higher ground, a ridge is a long and narrow elevated landform, and a valley is a low area between hills or mountains.

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43. A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a

Explanation

A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a spur. This term is commonly used in geography and topography to describe a landform that extends outward from a ridge or mountain. It is characterized by its gradual slope and can often be seen as a smaller, secondary ridge branching off from the main ridge. The term "spur" accurately describes this landform and is the correct answer in this context.

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44. In land navigation, which north is your starting point or baseline.

Explanation

The correct answer is "True" because the starting point or baseline for land navigation is usually determined by using True North, which is the direction towards the North Pole. True North is a fixed point on the Earth's surface and is not affected by magnetic variations or any other factors. Therefore, when using land navigation techniques, it is important to reference True North as the starting point or baseline for accurate navigation.

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45. The base commander form the base defense operations center with

Explanation

The base commander forms the base defense operations center with personnel from the augmentation force, personnel who are on temporary duty, personnel from the S-function staff, and available base assets. This means that the base commander utilizes all the resources and assets that are currently present at the base to establish and operate the defense operations center. These assets could include equipment, vehicles, weapons, and any other resources that can contribute to the defense and security of the base.

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46. Which installation methods are the easiest to maintain and provide the most satisfactory service?

Explanation

Aerial (overhead) wire/cable installation methods are the easiest to maintain and provide the most satisfactory service. This is because overhead wires are easily accessible for repairs and maintenance compared to buried or surface wires/cables. They are also less prone to damage from environmental factors such as water or ground movements.

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47. Which formation is used to prevent third party traffic interference with the convoy's ability to change lanes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Changing lanes." This formation is used to prevent third party traffic interference with the convoy's ability to change lanes. By changing lanes, the convoy can create a buffer zone around itself, reducing the chances of other vehicles getting in the way and interfering with its movement. This maneuver allows the convoy to maintain its speed and progress without any disruptions caused by other vehicles on the road.

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48. How do you convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth?

Explanation

To convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth, you need to subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth. This adjustment is necessary because there is a difference between the grid north and the magnetic north. By subtracting the 3.5 degrees, you are aligning your azimuth with the magnetic north, ensuring accurate navigation using magnetic bearings.

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49. Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal, defines

Explanation

A raid is an attack on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal. It involves a swift and surprise attack on the enemy's territory or stronghold, with the intention of causing damage or capturing valuable resources, and then quickly retreating to avoid prolonged engagement. This tactic is often used to disrupt enemy operations and weaken their defenses.

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50. What is the response time of a back-up force supporting ground movements of nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The response time of a back-up force supporting ground movements of nuclear weapons is 15 minutes. This means that in the event of any ground movements involving nuclear weapons, the back-up force is expected to be ready and able to respond within 15 minutes. This ensures that there is a quick and efficient response in case of any emergencies or threats related to the movement of these weapons.

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51. Which bounding method is easier to control?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Successive" because this term implies a step-by-step approach where each step builds upon the previous one. This method allows for better control and monitoring of the process as it progresses. On the other hand, alternate, progressive, and leap frog do not inherently suggest a systematic and controlled approach, making them less suitable for bounding methods.

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52. What does a delay in an economy-of-force operation create to allow other actions to take place?

Explanation

A delay in an economy-of-force operation creates time for other actions to take place. This means that by delaying or slowing down the operation, it provides an opportunity for other actions or strategies to be implemented. It allows for more time to assess the situation, plan and coordinate additional actions, and potentially maximize the effectiveness of the overall operation.

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53. Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?

Explanation

Under Enemy Pressure is not a method of disengaging from the enemy because it implies being under direct attack or intense pressure from the enemy. In such a situation, disengaging may not be a viable option as the focus would be on defending oneself or retaliating against the enemy. The other options, Thinning the lines, Fire teams, and By squads, suggest different strategies or tactics that can be employed to disengage from the enemy effectively.

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54. What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment?

Explanation

The information on a map that is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment is the marginal information. Marginal information provides important details and explanations about the map, such as symbols, scales, legends, and other key information that helps the user understand and interpret the map accurately. Just like an instruction book provides guidance on how to use and operate a piece of equipment, marginal information on a map serves as a guide for understanding and utilizing the map effectively.

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55. When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term, continuously gathering information?

Explanation

Stationary teams are positioned in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term and continuously gather information. This technique allows for a more comprehensive and continuous surveillance of the area, ensuring that no important information is missed. The other options mentioned, such as multiple area reconnaissance, successive sector method, and converging routes method, do not specifically focus on positioning surveillance teams in a stationary manner for long-term observation.

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56. When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?

Explanation

When contact is possible, the best movement technique to choose for your squad is traveling overwatch. This technique involves one element of the squad moving while the other provides overwatch and covers their movement. It allows for continuous movement while maintaining security and minimizing the risk of ambushes or surprise attacks. By alternating between movement and overwatch, the squad can effectively advance and maintain situational awareness in a potentially hostile environment.

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57. The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground combat intelligence. The S2 CIS is responsible for all

Explanation

The S2 CIS is responsible for all operational matters with the ABD force. This means that they are in charge of handling any issues or concerns that arise in relation to the ABD force. This could include things like coordinating operations, addressing logistical needs, or managing any challenges that may arise during combat. The S2 CIS plays a crucial role in ensuring that the ABD force is able to effectively carry out their duties and achieve their objectives.

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58. Before initiation of a nuclear weapon movement, the convoy commander is responsible for completing a

Explanation

The correct answer is risk/vulnerability assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place. This is because before the movement of a nuclear weapon, it is crucial to assess the potential risks and vulnerabilities associated with the transportation process. This assessment helps in identifying and mitigating any potential threats or weaknesses that could compromise the security of the weapon. Additionally, ensuring the availability of recapture/recovery procedures is important to have a plan in place in case of any unforeseen events or attempts to seize the weapon.

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59. When conducting a general on-base nuclear weapon movement, which of the following is not an objective of a sweep? To decrease the possibility of

Explanation

During a general on-base nuclear weapon movement, a sweep is conducted to identify and eliminate any potential hazards or obstructions that could impede safe movement. The objective of the sweep is to decrease the possibility of involvement with traffic obstructions, other hazards to safe movement, and civil disturbances. However, a breakdown in the road is not an objective of the sweep as it is not directly related to the movement of the nuclear weapon.

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60. A collective action executed by a flight or smaller element without the application of a deliberate decision-making is a

Explanation

A collective action executed by a flight or smaller element without the application of a deliberate decision-making is referred to as a battle drill. This term is commonly used in military contexts to describe a pre-planned and rehearsed set of procedures that are executed automatically and swiftly in response to a specific situation or enemy threat. The purpose of a battle drill is to ensure quick and effective response without the need for extensive decision-making, allowing the team to act cohesively and efficiently in high-pressure situations.

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61. What clearing task involves seizing control of the room with the purpose of neutralizing the enemy in the room?

Explanation

High intensity is the correct answer because clearing a room with the purpose of neutralizing the enemy requires a high level of energy and focus. It involves quickly and aggressively taking control of the room, using force if necessary, in order to eliminate any threats. This task requires a high level of intensity and urgency to ensure the safety of the individuals involved and to effectively neutralize the enemy.

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62. Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas?

Explanation

A concept sketch is a type of presentation that shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other, as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas. This type of sketch provides a visual representation of the overall concept and layout of the operation, allowing for better understanding and planning. It is different from a rough draft, which typically focuses on the initial ideas and structure of the presentation, an operations overlay, which is a map overlay used for planning and coordination, and a terrain scale model, which is a physical model of the terrain used for analysis and visualization.

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63. Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specified zone?

Explanation

A reconnaissance patrol is performed to gather information about the enemy, terrain, and routes within a specific area. In this context, the term "zone" refers to a designated area that the patrol focuses on. By conducting a zone reconnaissance patrol, the objective is to gather detailed information about the enemy's activities, the nature of the terrain, and the available routes within that specific zone. This type of patrol allows for a more focused and thorough analysis of a specific area, enabling better planning and decision-making in military operations.

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64. In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forces fire support come?

Explanation

In fire and maneuver operations, the maneuvering forces rely on their own weapons for fire support. This means that the team's own weapons, such as rifles, machine guns, and other individual firearms, are used to provide cover and suppressive fire while the maneuvering forces advance or change positions. This allows for coordinated movement and provides the necessary firepower to support the maneuver element's objectives.

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65. If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using which movement technique?

Explanation

When the assault element begins to search and encounters return fire, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using the individual movement technique. This technique involves each member of the assault element moving independently and using cover and concealment to advance towards the objective. It allows for greater flexibility and minimizes the risk of multiple casualties if the enemy is engaging with accurate fire.

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66. What is EEI?

Explanation

EEI stands for Essential Elements of Information. This term refers to the critical pieces of information that are necessary for decision-making and understanding a situation. These elements provide the essential details and context required to analyze and assess a specific scenario or problem. By having access to the EEIs, individuals or organizations can make informed decisions, develop effective strategies, and effectively respond to emergencies or threats.

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67. Who is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles?

Explanation

The commander of the moving unit is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the vehicles are in proper working order and that any necessary maintenance or repairs are carried out. They are also responsible for conducting regular inspections of the vehicles to identify any issues or potential problems. By taking on this responsibility, the commander of the moving unit helps to ensure the safety and reliability of the convoy vehicles during operations.

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68. A collective action that a crew of a weapons system or a piece of equipment must perform to use the weapon or equipment successfully in combat or to preserve life describes a

Explanation

A crew drill refers to a coordinated action that a team operating a weapon system or equipment must execute in order to effectively use it in combat or ensure the safety of individuals involved. This term specifically emphasizes the collective nature of the action, highlighting the importance of teamwork and synchronization within the crew.

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69. Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?

Explanation

The correct answer is Commander, Base Defense Force. The base defense operations center is responsible for coordinating and overseeing all defense operations on the base. The commander of the Base Defense Force would be in charge of leading and managing these operations, ensuring the security and protection of the base.

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70. Which convoy drill is used for small to medium vehicles and not a heavy or tractor-trailer configuration?

Explanation

In-stride hasty vehicle recovery is the correct answer because it specifically refers to the convoy drill used for small to medium vehicles and not heavy or tractor-trailer configurations. This drill involves quickly recovering a disabled or damaged vehicle while the convoy continues to move forward, allowing for minimal disruption to the convoy's progress.

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71. Producing combat ready units that respond to known or suspected enemy activity and defeat the enemy is the goal of

Explanation

Training is the correct answer because it is the process of preparing and equipping combat units with the necessary skills, knowledge, and abilities to respond effectively to known or suspected enemy activity. Through training, soldiers acquire the necessary combat skills, tactics, and strategies to defeat the enemy. Training ensures that units are prepared and ready to engage in combat operations, making them combat ready. Deploying refers to the act of sending troops to a specific location, while mission readiness and preparedness are broader concepts that encompass various aspects of military readiness, including training.

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72. Which principle of precision room clearing is the key to a successful assault at close quarters?

Explanation

Surprise is the key principle of precision room clearing that leads to a successful assault at close quarters. By catching the enemy off guard and unexpected, it allows for a quick and decisive action to be taken. It disrupts the enemy's ability to react and gives the assaulting force an advantage. Surprise ensures that the enemy is unable to prepare for the assault, increasing the chances of success and minimizing casualties.

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73. At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone?

Explanation

The outside buddy teams are responsible for providing flank security as well as fires into the kill zone at the squad level. They are positioned on the outer edges of the squad formation and are tasked with ensuring the squad's flanks are protected and engaging any enemy forces in the kill zone.

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74. Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot bypass it due to the time required to accomplish the mission?

Explanation

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75. For planning purposes, what is the range for field wire circuits using battery-operated telephones?

Explanation

The range for field wire circuits using battery-operated telephones is between 22.5 to 35.4 km.

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76. What is an azimuth?

Explanation

An azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north. This means that it is a measurement of the angle between a reference direction (true north, magnetic north, or grid north) and a given point, with the rotation being in a clockwise direction. This definition helps to clarify what an azimuth is and how it is measured.

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77. Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control indirect fires for the squad or flight?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Support." In a combat patrol, the support element or team is responsible for providing direct fire support to the squad or flight. They may also have the authority to control indirect fires, such as artillery or airstrikes, to assist the squad or flight in their mission. The support element plays a crucial role in enhancing the combat effectiveness and firepower of the squad or flight during operations.

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78. In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in detail?

Explanation

In the operations order, the paragraph that addresses the mechanics of the operations in detail is the "Maneuver" paragraph. This paragraph outlines the specific movements, actions, and tactics that will be employed during the operation. It provides detailed instructions on how the forces will maneuver, coordinate, and execute their tasks to achieve the mission objectives.

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79. What are the two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System?

Explanation

The correct answer is the universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic. These two grid systems are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System. The universal transverse mercator is a cylindrical projection that divides the world into 60 zones, each with its own transverse mercator projection. The universal polar stereographic is a polar projection that covers the areas near the North and South poles. These grid systems provide a standardized way to reference locations on a map, which is essential for military operations and navigation.

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80. Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on a Defense Mapping Agency map?

Explanation

The Defense Mapping Agency map shows three types of contour lines: supplementary, intermediate, and index. The term "secondary" is not mentioned as one of the types of contour lines on the map. Therefore, "secondary" is the correct answer as it is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on the map.

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81. Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept?

Explanation

Paragraph 4 in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept.

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82. The purpose of the communication security protective measures is to

Explanation

The purpose of communication security protective measures is to prevent unauthorized users from using our communication system. This means implementing measures to ensure that only authorized individuals have access to the system and its information. By doing so, it helps to safeguard sensitive and confidential information from falling into the wrong hands, protecting the integrity and security of the communication system.

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83. When interviewing experts individually or as a group, you should ask the key questions during which operational step of the vulnerability/critically analysis?

Explanation

During the operational step of vulnerability/critical analysis, it is important to ask the key questions when interviewing experts individually or as a group. This step involves gathering information and conducting thorough analysis to identify vulnerabilities and potential risks. By asking the key questions during this step, it allows for a comprehensive understanding of the situation and helps in making informed decisions regarding mitigation strategies and risk management.

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84. An authentication system is designed to protect a communications system against the

Explanation

An authentication system is implemented to prevent the acceptance of fraudulent transmissions. This means that the system is designed to verify the authenticity of incoming transmissions and only accept those that are deemed legitimate. By doing so, the system ensures that unauthorized or fraudulent transmissions are not accepted or allowed access to the communication system.

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85. Which operational step in the vulnerability/criticality analysis is concerned with determining specific threats?

Explanation

Operational step 1 in the vulnerability/criticality analysis is concerned with determining specific threats. This step involves identifying and documenting potential threats that could exploit vulnerabilities in a system or organization. By determining specific threats, analysts can prioritize their focus on the most critical vulnerabilities and develop appropriate mitigation strategies.

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86. How often should you conduct visual inspections of individual communications systems equipment?

Explanation

Visual inspections of individual communications systems equipment should be conducted on a weekly basis. This frequency allows for regular monitoring of the equipment's condition and helps identify any potential issues or maintenance needs. Conducting inspections on a weekly basis ensures that any problems can be addressed promptly, minimizing the risk of equipment failure or downtime.

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87. During a deliberate ambush, which action is not taken by the assault element?

Explanation

In a deliberate ambush, the assault element is responsible for executing the attack. They are primarily focused on engaging the enemy and neutralizing threats. The other actions mentioned, such as identifying sectors of fire and emplacing grenadiers, are important tasks that are typically carried out by the support element or other members of the team. Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning devices, is not a task typically assigned to the assault element during a deliberate ambush. These devices are usually employed by the support element to provide early warning of approaching enemy forces.

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What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your...
Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?
After entering a room, which enemy threat is engaged first?
To avoid injury and circuit damage, what should you always do before...
What advantage is gained by performing a rapid, violent assault?
You would use precision room clearing techniques when
Before entering a building through a window or door that was created...
Which color, found on a map, represents man-made features?
On a map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black...
Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from...
Most convoy planning is based on unit
Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force...
What is often needed to defeat barriers that are more elaborate or to...
Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?
If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close...
Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within how many...
Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?
Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?
Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and...
The S–4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph...
What civilian law enforcement agent will be included in any off-base...
When hardening vehicles using sandbags, as an additional precaution,...
When moving parallel to a building during an urban operation, how...
When performing building clearing, what must squad and fire team...
In paragraph 3 - execution of the operations order, how should you...
The basic formation for the fire team is the
Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?
Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver...
Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?
Which of the following statement concerning the reconnaissance in...
When writing paragraph 2 - mission in the operations order, how often...
What are the two types of withdrawals?
What is the convoy driver's sector of observation?
A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team
When cleaning communication equipment, what should you use to dust the...
In reference to convoy communications, what is the frequency...
While a convoy is moving on a controlled route, where will the start...
Why do squads use formations?
You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You...
Which term is best to use when arranging a general off-base nuclear...
If you are acting out the actions that will occur during a mission...
Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of...
A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting...
In land navigation, which north is your starting point or baseline.
The base commander form the base defense operations center with
Which installation methods are the easiest to maintain and provide the...
Which formation is used to prevent third party traffic interference...
How do you convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth?
Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal,...
What is the response time of a back-up force supporting ground...
Which bounding method is easier to control?
What does a delay in an economy-of-force operation create to allow...
Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?
What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes...
When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions...
When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose...
The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests...
Before initiation of a nuclear weapon movement, the convoy commander...
When conducting a general on-base nuclear weapon movement, which of...
A collective action executed by a flight or smaller element without...
What clearing task involves seizing control of the room with the...
Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in...
Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information...
In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the...
If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search,...
What is EEI?
Who is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles?
A collective action that a crew of a weapons system or a piece of...
Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?
Which convoy drill is used for small to medium vehicles and not a...
Producing combat ready units that respond to known or suspected enemy...
Which principle of precision room clearing is the key to a successful...
At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as...
Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the...
For planning purposes, what is the range for field wire circuits using...
What is an azimuth?
Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire...
In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the...
What are the two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the...
Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines...
Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support,...
The purpose of the communication security protective measures is to
When interviewing experts individually or as a group, you should ask...
An authentication system is designed to protect a communications...
Which operational step in the vulnerability/criticality analysis is...
How often should you conduct visual inspections of individual...
During a deliberate ambush, which action is not taken by the assault...
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