Nmt Final Part 2

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  • 1/88 Questions

    When using [18F]FDG for PET imaging a consideration must be made for which of the following being a contradiction for performing the study?

    • Blood glucose level of 200mg/dL
    • Blood glucose level of 120mg/dL
    • High-iodine diet within past week
    • Low-iodine diet within past week
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'NMT FINAL PART 2', assesses knowledge in nuclear medicine technology, focusing on procedures like renal plasma flow determination, radionuclide cystography, and the use of radiopharmaceuticals like In-111 and Tc99m-bicisate.

Nmt Final Part 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A patient scheduled for F18 - FDG imaging has a measured blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next?

    • Reschedule the patient for a later time

    • Administer insulin to lower the patient's blood glucose level

    • Administer glucose to raise the patient's blood glucose level

    • Proceed with the examination

    Correct Answer
    A. Proceed with the examination
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to proceed with the examination. F18 - FDG imaging is a type of positron emission tomography (PET) scan that measures the metabolic activity in the body. A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require any intervention. Therefore, the technologist should continue with the examination as scheduled.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following must be performed before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor?

    • Confirm that the exposure rate does not exceed background levels

    • Perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination

    • Cover each individual vial with a with a waterproof of covering

    • Notify the NRC that a shipment is being made

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination
    Explanation
    Before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor, it is necessary to perform a wipe test to ensure that there is no surface contamination. This is important because surface contamination can pose a risk to the individuals handling the package and also to the environment. By performing a wipe test, any potential contamination can be identified and appropriate measures can be taken to safely handle and transport the package.

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  • 4. 

    When performing a thyroid uptake, the nonthyroidal body back-ground measurement is obtained over the:

    • Stomach

    • Skull

    • Thigh

    • Lumbar spine

    Correct Answer
    A. Thigh
    Explanation
    During a thyroid uptake procedure, the nonthyroidal body background measurement is obtained over the thigh. This is because the thigh is a suitable location to measure the background radiation levels that are not related to the thyroid gland. The thigh is a convenient and easily accessible area to place the detector and obtain accurate readings for background radiation. The other options such as the stomach, skull, and lumbar spine are not typically used for this purpose and may not provide accurate measurements.

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  • 5. 

    Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of:  

    • Adenosine

    • Aminophylline

    • Antihistamines

    • Nitroglycerin

    Correct Answer
    A. Aminophylline
    Explanation
    Dipyridamole is a medication that can cause adverse effects such as headache, dizziness, and flushing. Aminophylline is a bronchodilator that is commonly used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions. It also has the ability to counteract the adverse effects of dipyridamole by relaxing the smooth muscles and improving blood flow. Therefore, the administration of aminophylline is the appropriate treatment for the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole.

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  • 6. 

    Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires which of the following?

    • Intravenous injection of the tracer

    • Use of renal agent

    • Catheterization of the patient

    • Administration of furosemide

    Correct Answer
    A. Catheterization of the patient
    Explanation
    Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires catheterization of the patient. This is because the direct method involves inserting a catheter into the patient's bladder to directly inject the tracer. Intravenous injection of the tracer is not required in this method. The use of a renal agent and administration of furosemide may be used in other types of imaging tests, but they are not specifically required for radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following tracers may used to confirm brain death?

    • Tc99m exametazime

    • Tc99m oxidronate

    • Tc99m mertiatide

    • Tl201 thallous chloride

    Correct Answer
    A. Tc99m exametazime
    Explanation
    Tc99m exametazime is a radiopharmaceutical tracer that is commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging to evaluate cerebral blood flow. In the context of confirming brain death, Tc99m exametazime can be used to assess cerebral perfusion. In brain death, there is a complete and irreversible loss of all cerebral and brainstem functions, including cerebral blood flow. By injecting Tc99m exametazime and performing a brain perfusion scan, it can be determined if there is absence of cerebral blood flow, thus confirming brain death. Therefore, Tc99m exametazime is a suitable tracer to confirm brain death.

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  • 8. 

    Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?

    • Rhinorrhea

    • Hydrocephalus

    • CSF shunt patency

    • Blockage of CSF flow

    Correct Answer
    A. Rhinorrhea
    Explanation
    Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in a patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when rhinorrhea is suspected. Rhinorrhea refers to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the nose, which can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, infection, or a CSF leak. By counting the cotton gauze, healthcare professionals can assess the amount of CSF leakage and monitor the condition of the patient. This can help in diagnosing and managing rhinorrhea effectively.

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  • 9. 

    When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake, nonthyroidal (body_ background measurements may be taken over the:

    • Lateral skull

    • Mediastinum

    • Abdomen

    • Thigh

    Correct Answer
    A. Thigh
    Explanation
    During a radioiodine thyroid uptake procedure, nonthyroidal (body) background measurements are taken to determine the amount of radioactive iodine present in the body outside of the thyroid gland. These measurements are important to accurately calculate the thyroid uptake. The thigh is a suitable location for taking these measurements as it is a distant area from the thyroid gland and is representative of the body's overall background radiation levels.

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  • 10. 

    Early (6 hr after injection) Ga67 imaging should be performed for which of the following conditions is suspected?

    • Sarcoma

    • Osteomyelitis

    • Lymphoma

    • Bronchogenic carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteomyelitis
    Explanation
    Early Ga67 imaging should be performed for suspected osteomyelitis. Ga67 is a radiopharmaceutical that accumulates in areas of inflammation and infection. Early imaging, within 6 hours after injection, allows for better visualization of the infection site as the tracer is actively being taken up by the inflammatory cells. This can aid in the early detection and diagnosis of osteomyelitis, a bone infection. Sarcoma, lymphoma, and bronchogenic carcinoma are not typically associated with Ga67 uptake and would not require early imaging.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following instructions should be given to patients after administration of F18 FDG for PET imaging?

    • The patient may leave the imaging area and return in approximately 90 min

    • The patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins

    • The patient may read or watch television until imaging begins

    • The patient should consume a fatty meal to clear excess tracer from the hepatobiliary system.

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins
  • 12. 

    When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe, the most appropriate collimator to use is a:

    • Low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel-hole collimator

    • Converging collimator

    • Straight-bore collimator

    • Flat-field collimator

    Correct Answer
    A. Flat-field collimator
    Explanation
    A flat-field collimator is the most appropriate collimator to use when performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe. This type of collimator allows for a uniform sensitivity across the entire field of view, which is important for accurately measuring the uptake of radioiodine in the thyroid. The other collimators listed, such as low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel-hole collimator, converging collimator, and straight-bore collimator, are not specifically designed for this type of procedure and may not provide the desired sensitivity or uniformity.

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  • 13. 

    All of the following are advantages of the first-pass method for performing cardiac function imaging except:

    • Short acquisition time

    • Low background activity

    • Choice of radiopharmaceuticals

    • Multiple views with one tracer dose

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple views with one tracer dose
    Explanation
    The first-pass method for performing cardiac function imaging has several advantages, including short acquisition time, low background activity, and the ability to choose different radiopharmaceuticals. However, it does not offer the advantage of obtaining multiple views with just one tracer dose. This means that in order to obtain multiple views, multiple tracer doses would need to be administered, which can be time-consuming and potentially increase the risk for the patient.

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  • 14. 

    An advantage of [201T] thallium chloride is that it:

    • Has a high photon flux at a high-energy window

    • Is a calcium analog

    • Has a short half-life

    • Redistributes

    Correct Answer
    A. Redistributes
    Explanation
    Thallium chloride is known to redistribute within the body, which means it can move from one area to another. This characteristic can be advantageous in certain medical applications, as it allows for the targeted delivery of the thallium to specific areas or organs in the body. This redistribution property of thallium chloride can be utilized to enhance diagnostic imaging or therapeutic treatments.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing has the longest plasma half-life?  

    • Adenosine

    • Dipyridamole

    • Dobutamine

    • Nitroglycerin

    Correct Answer
    A. Dipyridamole
    Explanation
    Dipyridamole has the longest plasma half-life among the given options. Plasma half-life refers to the time it takes for the concentration of a drug in the plasma to decrease by half. Dipyridamole is a vasodilator that inhibits the uptake of adenosine, resulting in increased levels of adenosine in the body. It has a half-life of approximately 10 hours, which is longer compared to the other options such as adenosine, dobutamine, and nitroglycerin.

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  • 16. 

    The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is for the technologist to: 

    • Stay home when ill

    • Wear gloves, mark, and hospital gown at all times

    • Wash hands both before and after patient contact

    • Maintain distance for each patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Wash hands both before and after patient contact
    Explanation
    The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is by washing hands both before and after patient contact. This is because hands are a common mode of transmission for pathogens, and proper hand hygiene can help prevent the transfer of these pathogens from one patient to another. Wearing gloves, mask, and hospital gown can provide additional protection, but they are not as effective as hand washing. Staying home when ill and maintaining distance for each patient are also important measures, but they do not directly address the issue of hand hygiene.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is the reason that it is important to have a standardized meal size and composition in a gastric-emptying scan?

    • It can affect the radiation dose to the patient

    • It can affect the ability to have gastric emptying

    • It can affect the rate of gastric emptying

    • It has no effect and is not necessary

    Correct Answer
    A. It can affect the rate of gastric emptying
    Explanation
    Having a standardized meal size and composition is important in a gastric-emptying scan because it can affect the rate of gastric emptying. The purpose of a gastric-emptying scan is to measure how quickly food moves through the stomach. By using a standardized meal size and composition, the scan can accurately assess the rate at which the stomach empties. If the meal size or composition varies, it can introduce variables that may impact the rate of gastric emptying and therefore affect the accuracy of the scan results.

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  • 18. 

    After the admnistered of Tc99m pentetate aerosol with a face mask, radioactive contamination is likely to be found in all of the following  area except:

    • On the floor between the patient and nebulizer

    • Around the patient's mouth

    • On the patient's chest

    • On the technologist's hands

    Correct Answer
    A. On the technologist's hands
    Explanation
    Tc99m pentetate aerosol is administered using a face mask, which means that the patient wears the mask during the procedure. The aerosol is inhaled by the patient and is likely to be found in areas close to the patient's respiratory system, such as around the patient's mouth and on the patient's chest. Additionally, some of the aerosol may settle on the floor between the patient and nebulizer due to gravity. However, the technologist administering the procedure is not directly exposed to the aerosol, so contamination is unlikely to be found on their hands.

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  • 19. 

    In performing a bone image, which of the following views would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus?

    • Lateral views of the patella

    • Postvoid image of the pelvis

    • Planar view of the feet

    • Anterior view of the distal humerus and radius

    Correct Answer
    A. Planar view of the feet
    Explanation
    A planar view of the feet would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus because it provides a clear and detailed image of the bones in the feet, including the calcaneus. This view allows for a comprehensive evaluation of any abnormalities or fractures in the calcaneus, making it the most suitable option for detecting abnormalities in this specific bone. The other options, such as the lateral views of the patella, postvoid image of the pelvis, and anterior view of the distal humerus and radius, are not focused on the calcaneus and would not provide the same level of detail or accuracy in detecting abnormalities in this bone.

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  • 20. 

    Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to:

    • Rule out transplant rejection

    • Rule out ureteropelvic obstruction

    • Enhance tracer uptake in an abnormal kidney

    • Increase blood flow to the kidneys

    Correct Answer
    A. Rule out ureteropelvic obstruction
    Explanation
    Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to rule out ureteropelvic obstruction. This is because furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, which can help identify any blockages or obstructions in the ureter or pelvis of the kidney. By administering furosemide, healthcare professionals can assess the flow of urine and determine if there are any abnormalities or obstructions present in the urinary system.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following would not normally appear as an area of increased activity on the bone image of an adult?

    • Anterior iliac crests

    • Epiphyseal plates

    • Sacroiliac joints

    • Nasopharyngeal area

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiphyseal plates
    Explanation
    Epiphyseal plates are growth plates located at the ends of long bones in children and adolescents. These plates are responsible for bone growth and are typically active during the growth phase. In adults, the epiphyseal plates have already fused and turned into solid bone, so they would not normally appear as an area of increased activity on a bone image. Therefore, the correct answer is Epiphyseal plates.

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  • 22. 

    One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is  to check the label found on the vial. The best times to check this label would include all of the following except:

    • Before the vial is removed from the shelf

    • Before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed

    • After the vial is placed back on the shelf

    • After the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. After the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient
    Explanation
    The correct answer is after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient. This is because checking the label after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient would not serve any purpose in ensuring that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered. By that time, it would be too late to take any corrective action if there was a mistake in the labeling. Therefore, it is important to check the label before the vial is removed from the shelf, before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed, and after the vial is placed back on the shelf to ensure the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following pairs of radiopharmaceuticals may be used to perform lung perfusion and ventilation imaging?

    • Tc99m sulfur colloid and Tc99m pentetate aerosol

    • Tc99m albumin and Xe133 gas

    • Tc99m macroaggregated albumin and Xe133 gas

    • Tc99m bicisate and Tc99m pentetate aerosol

    Correct Answer
    A. Tc99m macroaggregated albumin and Xe133 gas
    Explanation
    Tc99m macroaggregated albumin and Xe133 gas are the correct pair of radiopharmaceuticals that can be used for lung perfusion and ventilation imaging. Tc99m macroaggregated albumin is injected into the bloodstream and is used to assess lung perfusion, while Xe133 gas is inhaled and is used to assess lung ventilation. Together, these two radiopharmaceuticals provide a comprehensive evaluation of lung function and can help diagnose conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung disease.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following events is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study?

    • Radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder

    • Radioactivity is taken up into the renal cortex

    • Mechanical blockages in the renal collecting system is cleared

    • The peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is shortened

    Correct Answer
    A. Radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder
    Explanation
    When furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study, it acts as a diuretic and increases urine production. This increased urine flow helps to clear radioactivity from the renal pelvis into the bladder. Furosemide works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. As a result, any radioactivity present in the renal pelvis is flushed out into the bladder through the increased urine flow.

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  • 25. 

    If tracer concentration is visualized in the stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanations is that:  

    • There is pathology in those areas

    • The patient did not drink sufficient fluids

    • The tracer contained unbound [99mTc]pertechnetate

    • The patient was imaged too soon to allow adequate blood clearance of the tracer

    Correct Answer
    A. The tracer contained unbound [99mTc]pertechnetate
    Explanation
    The most likely explanation for tracer concentration in the stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image is that the tracer contained unbound [99mTc]pertechnetate. This suggests that the tracer was not properly bound or metabolized, leading to its accumulation in these specific areas. This could be due to a malfunction in the tracer itself or an issue with the patient's metabolism.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following radioation safety measures should be used when performing Sr89 therapy?

    • Use of lead vial and synringe shields

    • Urinary catheterization for incontinent patients

    • Use of absorbent paper in isolation room

    • Monitoring patient radiation levels weekly

    Correct Answer
    A. Urinary catheterization for incontinent patients
    Explanation
    Urinary catheterization for incontinent patients is the correct radiation safety measure to be used when performing Sr89 therapy. Incontinent patients may have difficulty controlling their bladder, which can lead to contamination of the environment with radioactive material. By using urinary catheterization, the patient's urine can be collected in a closed system, preventing the spread of radiation. This measure helps to protect both the patient and healthcare providers from unnecessary radiation exposure.

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  • 27. 

    To confirm a referring physician’s request for a nuclear medicine theupeutic procedure, the technologist should:

    • Confer with the nuclear medicine physician

    • Ask the patient why he/she came to nuclear medicine

    • Telephone the referring physician for confirmation

    • Locate the written directive for the therapy in the patients’ medical record

    Correct Answer
    A. Locate the written directive for the therapy in the patients’ medical record
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to locate the written directive for the therapy in the patient's medical record. This is the most appropriate action to take in order to confirm the referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine therapeutic procedure. The written directive serves as a formal order for the procedure and provides important information about the specific therapy that needs to be administered. By locating the written directive in the patient's medical record, the technologist can ensure that they have the necessary information and instructions to proceed with the procedure.

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  • 28. 

    Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of: 

    • Adenosine

    • Aminophylline

    • Acetazolamide

    • Nitroglycerin

    Correct Answer
    A. Aminophylline
    Explanation
    Dipyridamole is a medication used to prevent blood clots. However, it can also cause adverse effects such as headache, flushing, and low blood pressure. Aminophylline is a medication that can be used to counteract these adverse effects. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways and blood vessels, which can help alleviate symptoms such as headache and low blood pressure. Therefore, the administration of aminophylline is the appropriate treatment for the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole.

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  • 29. 

    Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans:

    • Gastric emptying

    • Deep vein thrombosis

    • LeVeen Shunt patency

    • Meckel's diverticulum

    Correct Answer
    A. Meckel's diverticulum
    Explanation
    Pentagastrin is commonly used in Meckel's diverticulum scans. Meckel's diverticulum is a small pouch that forms on the wall of the small intestine and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding or other complications. Pentagastrin is a synthetic hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid, and its use in Meckel's diverticulum scans helps to identify the presence and location of the diverticulum. It is not used in gastric emptying, deep vein thrombosis, or LeVeen Shunt patency scans.

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  • 30. 

    In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin:

    • 15 min after meal consumption, then every 15 min for 1 hr

    • 1 hr after meal consumption, then every 15 min for the next hour

    • Immediately after meal consumption, then every 5 min for at least 1 hr

    • Immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2 hr

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2 hr
    Explanation
    In a gastric-emptying study, the imaging should begin immediately after meal consumption. This is because the purpose of the study is to track the movement of food through the stomach and into the small intestine. Starting the imaging immediately after the meal allows for the visualization of the initial stages of gastric emptying. The imaging should then be done every 15 minutes for at least 2 hours to capture the complete process of gastric emptying. This time frame allows for the observation of any delays or abnormalities in the emptying process.

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  • 31. 

    It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with symptoms of pulmonary emboli because: 

    • The number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterioles

    • The particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum

    • The particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung macrophages

    • The albumin is denatured before it is made into particles

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterioles
    Explanation
    The reason it is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with symptoms of pulmonary emboli is because the number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterioles. This means that even though some arterioles may be blocked, there are still plenty of other arterioles available for blood flow, ensuring that the overall circulation is not significantly compromised.

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  • 32. 

    Patient preparation for a I-131 therapy includes:

    • Having a low iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy

    • Having a high-iodine for 1 week prior to the week

    • Consuming a low-carbonhydate diet for 3 days prior to the therapy

    • Not consuming any salt for 1 week prior to the therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Having a low iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy
    Explanation
    Patient preparation for I-131 therapy includes following a low iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy. This is because iodine can interfere with the uptake of radioactive iodine, which is the purpose of the therapy. By avoiding iodine-rich foods, the patient's body will have a higher chance of absorbing the radioactive iodine and targeting the thyroid cells that need to be treated.

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  • 33. 

    For which of the following procedures is the radiopharmaceutical administered orally?

    • Gastric emptying

    • Gastrointestinal bleeding

    • Salivary gland imaging

    • Vesicoureteral reflux imaging

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastric emptying
    Explanation
    Gastric emptying is the process of measuring how quickly food leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine. In this procedure, a radiopharmaceutical is administered orally, meaning it is taken by mouth. The radiopharmaceutical is then tracked as it moves through the digestive system, allowing doctors to assess the rate of gastric emptying. This procedure cannot be performed by administering the radiopharmaceutical through other routes such as injection or inhalation. Therefore, the correct answer is gastric emptying.

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  • 34. 

    A postsurgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a study. The technologists notices that the patient's surgical dressing shows signs of drainage. The most appropriate action for the technologist is to: 

    • Remove the old dressing and replace it with a fresh one

    • Reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel

    • Terminate the study and transport the patient back to his/her room

    • Complete the nuclear medicine procedure and ignore the dressing

    Correct Answer
    A. Reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel
    Explanation
    The technologist should reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel because signs of drainage indicate a potential complication or infection at the surgical site. Reinforcing the dressing can help prevent further contamination and notify medical personnel allows them to assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate treatment if necessary. Terminating the study and transporting the patient back to their room or ignoring the dressing would not address the potential issue and could lead to further complications.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following medical history is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging?

    • Breast-feeding schedule

    • Mammogram results

    • PSA level

    • Pregnancy status

    Correct Answer
    A. PSA level
    Explanation
    PSA level is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging because this imaging technique is used to detect and evaluate prostate cancer. PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and elevated PSA levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. Therefore, monitoring the PSA level is important in determining the need for In111 capromab pendetide imaging and assessing the effectiveness of treatment for prostate cancer.

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  • 36. 

    Preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization includes:

    • The administration of laxatives

    • Fasting for at least 2 hr before imaging

    • An enema immediately before imaging

    • Oral or intravenous hydration

    Correct Answer
    A. Fasting for at least 2 hr before imaging
    Explanation
    The preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization includes fasting for at least 2 hours before imaging. This is necessary to ensure that the patient's digestive system is empty, allowing for clear visualization of the diverticulum during imaging. Fasting helps to minimize interference from food and fluid in the gastrointestinal tract, providing a better chance of accurately locating the diverticulum.

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  • 37. 

    Morphine is administered during hepatobiliary imaging to cause the: 

    • Sphincter of Oddi to contract

    • Gallbladder to empty completely

    • Cystic duct to open

    • Tracer to be diverted to the common bile duct

    Correct Answer
    A. Sphincter of Oddi to contract
    Explanation
    Morphine is administered during hepatobiliary imaging to cause the Sphincter of Oddi to contract. The Sphincter of Oddi is a muscular valve that controls the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the small intestine. By causing the sphincter to contract, morphine helps to prevent the flow of bile into the small intestine, allowing for better visualization of the hepatobiliary system during imaging.

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  • 38. 

    Patient preparation for Sr89 - chloride therapy includes all of the following except:

    • Nuclear medicine bone imaging

    • Complete blood count

    • Discontinuation of pain medication

    • Renal function studies

    Correct Answer
    A. Discontinuation of pain medication
    Explanation
    Patient preparation for Sr89 - chloride therapy includes nuclear medicine bone imaging, complete blood count, and renal function studies. Discontinuation of pain medication is not necessary for this therapy. Pain medication can be continued as needed to manage any discomfort or pain the patient may experience. This is because Sr89 - chloride therapy is primarily used for the treatment of bone pain caused by cancer, and pain medication can still be effective in managing this pain alongside the therapy.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first pass study?

    • Median basilic vein

    • Cephalic vein

    • Axillary vein

    • Dorsal vein

    Correct Answer
    A. Median basilic vein
    Explanation
    The recommended injection site for a cardiac first pass study is the median basilic vein. This vein is often chosen because it provides easy access to the cardiovascular system and is located in the upper arm, making it convenient for injection. Additionally, the median basilic vein is typically large enough to accommodate the injection of contrast agents used in cardiac first pass studies. The other options listed (cephalic vein, axillary vein, and dorsal vein) are not commonly used for this type of study.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following agents would be used to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction?

    • Sincalide and Tc99m disofenin

    • Sincalide and Tc99m sulfur colloid

    • Morphine and Tc99m disofenin

    • Morphine and Tc99m mertiafe

    Correct Answer
    A. Sincalide and Tc99m disofenin
    Explanation
    Sincalide is a medication that stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile. Tc99m disofenin is a radioactive tracer that is used to visualize the gallbladder and measure its ejection fraction, which is the percentage of bile that is expelled from the gallbladder during contraction. Therefore, sincalide and Tc99m disofenin would be used together to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction test. The other options do not include sincalide, which is necessary for stimulating gallbladder contraction, or do not include Tc99m disofenin, which is necessary for visualizing the gallbladder.

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  • 41. 

    In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur a maximum of how long after tracer administration?

    • 5-10 min

    • 20-30 min

    • 45-60 min

    • 1-2 hr

    Correct Answer
    A. 20-30 min
    Explanation
    In a normal hepatobiliary study, the excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur within 20-30 minutes after tracer administration. This time frame allows for adequate visualization and assessment of the biliary system and gallbladder function. If the excretion takes longer than 30 minutes, it may indicate a potential issue or abnormality in the hepatobiliary system.

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  • 42. 

    Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include which of the following?

    • Hydration of the patient

    • Discontinuation of all medications

    • Fasting for at least 2 hr before imaging

    • Administration of furosemide 1 hr before imaging

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydration of the patient
    Explanation
    Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include hydration of the patient. This is because proper hydration is essential for optimal imaging results. It helps in enhancing the visualization of the kidneys and improving the accuracy of the imaging procedure. Adequate hydration also ensures that the kidneys are functioning properly and can effectively filter and eliminate the radiotracer used in the imaging process.

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  • 43. 

    After stress myocardial imaging with Tl201 thallous chloride, 1-15 mCi of Tl201 may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to:

    • Improve patient throughput

    • Demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily

    • Demonstrate infarct size more precisely

    • Minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts

    Correct Answer
    A. Demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily
    Explanation
    Administering 1-15 mCi of Tl201 thallous chloride before rest myocardial imaging helps in demonstrating reversible ischemia more readily. This is because Tl201 is a radioactive tracer that is taken up by healthy heart tissue but not by ischemic or infarcted tissue. By administering Tl201 before rest imaging, any areas of reversible ischemia can be identified as they will show reduced uptake of the tracer compared to healthy tissue. This helps in diagnosing and assessing the severity of ischemic heart disease.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following would not be a characteristic of an ideal myocardial perfusion agent?

    • High first-pass myocardial extraction proportional to blood flow

    • Adequate imaging window

    • Ability to complete both rest and stress imaging in 2 days

    • High target-to-nontarget ratio

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to complete both rest and stress imaging in 2 days
    Explanation
    An ideal myocardial perfusion agent should have high first-pass myocardial extraction proportional to blood flow, an adequate imaging window, and a high target-to-nontarget ratio. However, the ability to complete both rest and stress imaging in 2 days is not a characteristic of an ideal myocardial perfusion agent. This is because it typically takes longer to complete both rest and stress imaging, as they are usually done on separate days to allow for proper evaluation and comparison of the results.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is most likely to interfere with performing a left ventricular ejection fraction using the gated equilibrium technique? 

    • Doxorubicin toxicity

    • Cardiac arrhythmia

    • Cardiomyopathy

    • Coronary artery disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiac arrhythmia
    Explanation
    Cardiac arrhythmia is most likely to interfere with performing a left ventricular ejection fraction using the gated equilibrium technique. Cardiac arrhythmia refers to abnormal heart rhythms, which can disrupt the synchronization required for accurate measurements during the technique. This can lead to inaccurate results and difficulty in assessing the left ventricular ejection fraction. Doxorubicin toxicity, cardiomyopathy, and coronary artery disease may affect the heart's function but are less likely to directly interfere with the technique itself.

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  • 46. 

    In a normally functioning system, an increase in circulating thyroid hormone will cause TSH secretion to:  

    • Decrease

    • Increase

    • Remain the same

    • Vary unpredictably

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease
    Explanation
    An increase in circulating thyroid hormone signals that there is already enough thyroid hormone in the body. In response to this, the pituitary gland reduces the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to prevent further production of thyroid hormone. Therefore, an increase in circulating thyroid hormone will cause TSH secretion to decrease.

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  • 47. 

    Very increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?  

    • Colon

    • Kidneys

    • Lungs

    • Spleen

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidneys
    Explanation
    Very increased serum bilirubin levels can cause jaundice, a condition where the skin and eyes appear yellow due to the buildup of bilirubin in the body. Bilirubin is processed by the liver and excreted through the bile, which flows into the intestines. However, in cases of severe liver dysfunction or obstruction of the bile ducts, bilirubin may not be properly excreted and can accumulate in the bloodstream. This can lead to bilirubin being excreted through alternative routes, such as the kidneys, resulting in bilirubinuria. Therefore, on hepatobiliary images, the kidneys may be visualized due to the presence of bilirubin in the urine.

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  • 48. 

    An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal radiation monitor must wear it at work except when:

    • The worker leaves the nuclear medicine department

    • The worker is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure

    • Badge readings are likely to exceed allowable limits

    • Radiation exposure results from patients who had radioactive materials administered at another facility

    Correct Answer
    A. The worker is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the worker is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure. This means that when the worker themselves is undergoing a procedure that involves radiation, they do not need to wear the personal radiation monitor. This is because the monitor is meant to measure the worker's external radiation exposure, and if they are the ones being exposed during a procedure, there is no need for the monitor.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood brain barrier?

    • Tc99m - bicisate

    • Tc99m - gluceptate

    • Tc99m - pentetate

    • Tc99m - pertechnetate

    Correct Answer
    A. Tc99m - bicisate
    Explanation
    Tc99m - bicisate is the correct answer because it is a radiopharmaceutical that is able to cross the intact blood brain barrier. The blood brain barrier is a protective barrier that prevents many substances from entering the brain, but Tc99m - bicisate is designed to be able to cross this barrier and reach the brain. This allows for imaging of the brain using this radiopharmaceutical. Tc99m - gluceptate, Tc99m - pentetate, and Tc99m - pertechnetate do not have the ability to cross the blood brain barrier.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 06, 2016
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    Natfasho

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