Nmt Final Part 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
In performing an effective renal plasma flow determination, the injection site should be imaged to:
- A.
Quantitate the amount of tracer deposited at the injection site
- B.
Rule out tracer infiltration
- C.
Calculate the amount of injected activity
- D.
Administration of furosemide
Correct Answer
B. Rule out tracer infiltrationExplanation
In order to perform an effective renal plasma flow determination, it is important to image the injection site to rule out tracer infiltration. This is necessary to ensure that the tracer has been properly injected into the intended location and has not leaked or infiltrated into surrounding tissues. By ruling out tracer infiltration, the accuracy and reliability of the renal plasma flow determination can be ensured.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires which of the following?
- A.
Intravenous injection of the tracer
- B.
Use of renal agent
- C.
Catheterization of the patient
- D.
Administration of furosemide
Correct Answer
C. Catheterization of the patientExplanation
Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires catheterization of the patient. This is because the direct method involves inserting a catheter into the patient's bladder to directly inject the tracer. Intravenous injection of the tracer is not required in this method. The use of a renal agent and administration of furosemide may be used in other types of imaging tests, but they are not specifically required for radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of In-111 labeled leukocytes except:
- A.
Osteomyelitis
- B.
Dental abcess
- C.
Pulmonary embolism
- D.
Ostomy site
Correct Answer
C. Pulmonary embolismExplanation
In-111 labeled leukocytes are used in nuclear medicine imaging to detect areas of infection or inflammation in the body. Osteomyelitis, dental abscess, and ostomy site are conditions that can cause infection or inflammation, which would result in uptake of the labeled leukocytes. However, pulmonary embolism is a condition where a blood clot blocks the arteries in the lungs, which does not involve infection or inflammation. Therefore, pulmonary embolism would not demonstrate uptake of In-111 labeled leukocytes.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood brain barrier?
- A.
Tc99m - bicisate
- B.
Tc99m - gluceptate
- C.
Tc99m - pentetate
- D.
Tc99m - pertechnetate
Correct Answer
A. Tc99m - bicisateExplanation
Tc99m - bicisate is the correct answer because it is a radiopharmaceutical that is able to cross the intact blood brain barrier. The blood brain barrier is a protective barrier that prevents many substances from entering the brain, but Tc99m - bicisate is designed to be able to cross this barrier and reach the brain. This allows for imaging of the brain using this radiopharmaceutical. Tc99m - gluceptate, Tc99m - pentetate, and Tc99m - pertechnetate do not have the ability to cross the blood brain barrier.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Patient preparation for Sr89 - chloride therapy includes all of the following except:
- A.
Nuclear medicine bone imaging
- B.
Complete blood count
- C.
Discontinuation of pain medication
- D.
Renal function studies
Correct Answer
C. Discontinuation of pain medicationExplanation
Patient preparation for Sr89 - chloride therapy includes nuclear medicine bone imaging, complete blood count, and renal function studies. Discontinuation of pain medication is not necessary for this therapy. Pain medication can be continued as needed to manage any discomfort or pain the patient may experience. This is because Sr89 - chloride therapy is primarily used for the treatment of bone pain caused by cancer, and pain medication can still be effective in managing this pain alongside the therapy.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is to check the label found on the vial. The best times to check this label would include all of the following except:
- A.
Before the vial is removed from the shelf
- B.
Before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed
- C.
After the vial is placed back on the shelf
- D.
After the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient
Correct Answer
D. After the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patientExplanation
The correct answer is after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient. This is because checking the label after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient would not serve any purpose in ensuring that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered. By that time, it would be too late to take any corrective action if there was a mistake in the labeling. Therefore, it is important to check the label before the vial is removed from the shelf, before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed, and after the vial is placed back on the shelf to ensure the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
What dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging is performed, which of the following tracers is used for stress and which for rest?STRESS REST
- A.
Tc99m - sestamibiTl201 - thallous chloride
- B.
Tl201 - thallous chlorideTc99m -Â sestamibi
- C.
Tc99m - sestamibiTc99m -Â teboroxime
- D.
Tc99m - sestamibiTc99m -Â labeled red blood cells
Correct Answer
A. Tc99m - sestamibiTl201 - thallous chlorideExplanation
In dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging, Tc99m-sestamibi is used as the tracer for stress and Tl201-thallous chloride is used as the tracer for rest.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
If Tc99m -sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding, the bleeding can be best visualized how long after the radiopharmaceutical is administered?
- A.
10-15 min
- B.
20-30 min
- C.
45 min - 1 hr
- D.
Anytime up to 24 hr
Correct Answer
A. 10-15 minExplanation
Tc99m -sulfur colloid is a radiopharmaceutical that is used to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding. It is a radioactive tracer that is injected into the body and can be detected using a gamma camera. The tracer is taken up by the reticuloendothelial system, which includes the liver and spleen.
After administration of Tc99m -sulfur colloid, it takes about 10-15 minutes for the tracer to be taken up by the reticuloendothelial system and for the gastrointestinal bleeding to be visualized. This is the optimal time frame for visualizing the bleeding using this radiopharmaceutical.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first pass study?
- A.
Median basilic vein
- B.
Cephalic vein
- C.
Axillary vein
- D.
Dorsal vein
Correct Answer
A. Median basilic veinExplanation
The recommended injection site for a cardiac first pass study is the median basilic vein. This vein is often chosen because it provides easy access to the cardiovascular system and is located in the upper arm, making it convenient for injection. Additionally, the median basilic vein is typically large enough to accommodate the injection of contrast agents used in cardiac first pass studies. The other options listed (cephalic vein, axillary vein, and dorsal vein) are not commonly used for this type of study.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Patient preparation for a I-131 therapy includes:
- A.
Having a low iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy
- B.
Having a high-iodine for 1 week prior to the week
- C.
Consuming a low-carbonhydate diet for 3 days prior to the therapy
- D.
Not consuming any salt for 1 week prior to the therapy
Correct Answer
A. Having a low iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapyExplanation
Patient preparation for I-131 therapy includes following a low iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy. This is because iodine can interfere with the uptake of radioactive iodine, which is the purpose of the therapy. By avoiding iodine-rich foods, the patient's body will have a higher chance of absorbing the radioactive iodine and targeting the thyroid cells that need to be treated.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of:
- A.
Adenosine
- B.
Aminophylline
- C.
Acetazolamide
- D.
Nitroglycerin
Correct Answer
B. AminophyllineExplanation
Dipyridamole is a medication used to prevent blood clots. However, it can also cause adverse effects such as headache, flushing, and low blood pressure. Aminophylline is a medication that can be used to counteract these adverse effects. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways and blood vessels, which can help alleviate symptoms such as headache and low blood pressure. Therefore, the administration of aminophylline is the appropriate treatment for the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hr before the administration of dipyridamole?
- A.
Water
- B.
Aspirin
- C.
Insulin
- D.
Theophylline
Correct Answer
D. TheophyllineExplanation
Theophylline must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hours before the administration of dipyridamole. This is because theophylline is a medication that is used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions, and it can interact with dipyridamole, which is a medication used to prevent blood clots. Discontinuing theophylline before taking dipyridamole helps to avoid any potential interactions between the two medications.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Which of the following agents would be used to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction?
- A.
Sincalide and Tc99m disofenin
- B.
Sincalide and Tc99m sulfur colloid
- C.
Morphine and Tc99m disofenin
- D.
Morphine and Tc99m mertiafe
Correct Answer
A. Sincalide and Tc99m disofeninExplanation
Sincalide is a medication that stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile. Tc99m disofenin is a radioactive tracer that is used to visualize the gallbladder and measure its ejection fraction, which is the percentage of bile that is expelled from the gallbladder during contraction. Therefore, sincalide and Tc99m disofenin would be used together to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction test. The other options do not include sincalide, which is necessary for stimulating gallbladder contraction, or do not include Tc99m disofenin, which is necessary for visualizing the gallbladder.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur a maximum of how long after tracer administration?
- A.
5-10 min
- B.
20-30 min
- C.
45-60 min
- D.
1-2 hr
Correct Answer
B. 20-30 minExplanation
In a normal hepatobiliary study, the excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur within 20-30 minutes after tracer administration. This time frame allows for adequate visualization and assessment of the biliary system and gallbladder function. If the excretion takes longer than 30 minutes, it may indicate a potential issue or abnormality in the hepatobiliary system.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
For which of the following procedures is the radiopharmaceutical administered orally?
- A.
Gastric emptying
- B.
Gastrointestinal bleeding
- C.
Salivary gland imaging
- D.
Vesicoureteral reflux imaging
Correct Answer
A. Gastric emptyingExplanation
Gastric emptying is the process of measuring how quickly food leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine. In this procedure, a radiopharmaceutical is administered orally, meaning it is taken by mouth. The radiopharmaceutical is then tracked as it moves through the digestive system, allowing doctors to assess the rate of gastric emptying. This procedure cannot be performed by administering the radiopharmaceutical through other routes such as injection or inhalation. Therefore, the correct answer is gastric emptying.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include which of the following?
- A.
Hydration of the patient
- B.
Discontinuation of all medications
- C.
Fasting for at least 2 hr before imaging
- D.
Administration of furosemide 1 hr before imaging
Correct Answer
A. Hydration of the patientExplanation
Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include hydration of the patient. This is because proper hydration is essential for optimal imaging results. It helps in enhancing the visualization of the kidneys and improving the accuracy of the imaging procedure. Adequate hydration also ensures that the kidneys are functioning properly and can effectively filter and eliminate the radiotracer used in the imaging process.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Static renal imaging is performed about how long after the administration of Tc99m succimer?
- A.
Immediately
- B.
30 min
- C.
2 hr
- D.
8 hr
Correct Answer
C. 2 hrExplanation
Static renal imaging is performed about 2 hours after the administration of Tc99m succimer. This is because Tc99m succimer is a radiopharmaceutical that is used for renal imaging, specifically to evaluate the function and structure of the kidneys. It takes time for the radiopharmaceutical to be distributed and excreted by the kidneys, allowing for clear imaging of the renal system. Performing the imaging immediately after administration may not provide enough time for the radiopharmaceutical to reach the kidneys and produce accurate results. Waiting for 2 hours allows for optimal visualization of the kidneys.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Patient preparation for Ga67- citrate imaging may include administration of which of the following?
- A.
Diuretics
- B.
Potassium perchlorate
- C.
Lugol's solution
- D.
Laxatives
Correct Answer
D. LaxativesExplanation
Patient preparation for Ga67-citrate imaging may include administration of laxatives. Laxatives help to clear the bowel and remove any fecal material that may interfere with the imaging procedure. This ensures that the images obtained are clear and accurate. Diuretics, potassium perchlorate, and Lugol's solution are not typically used in the preparation for Ga67-citrate imaging.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
A normal biodistribution of In111- labled leukocytes will demonstrate the greatest tracer uptake at 24 hr after injection in which of the following sites?
- A.
Bone marrow
- B.
Liver
- C.
Lung
- D.
Spleen
Correct Answer
D. SpleenExplanation
In111-labeled leukocytes are commonly used for imaging purposes, and their biodistribution refers to how they are distributed in the body after injection. The question asks which site will demonstrate the greatest tracer uptake at 24 hours after injection. The correct answer is the spleen. The spleen is a major site for immune cell accumulation, and leukocytes are a type of immune cell. Therefore, it is expected that the greatest tracer uptake would occur in the spleen at 24 hours after injection.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Which of the following tracers may used to confirm brain death?
- A.
Tc99m exametazime
- B.
Tc99m oxidronate
- C.
Tc99m mertiatide
- D.
Tl201 thallous chloride
Correct Answer
A. Tc99m exametazimeExplanation
Tc99m exametazime is a radiopharmaceutical tracer that is commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging to evaluate cerebral blood flow. In the context of confirming brain death, Tc99m exametazime can be used to assess cerebral perfusion. In brain death, there is a complete and irreversible loss of all cerebral and brainstem functions, including cerebral blood flow. By injecting Tc99m exametazime and performing a brain perfusion scan, it can be determined if there is absence of cerebral blood flow, thus confirming brain death. Therefore, Tc99m exametazime is a suitable tracer to confirm brain death.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?
- A.
Rhinorrhea
- B.
Hydrocephalus
- C.
CSF shunt patency
- D.
Blockage of CSF flow
Correct Answer
A. RhinorrheaExplanation
Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in a patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when rhinorrhea is suspected. Rhinorrhea refers to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the nose, which can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, infection, or a CSF leak. By counting the cotton gauze, healthcare professionals can assess the amount of CSF leakage and monitor the condition of the patient. This can help in diagnosing and managing rhinorrhea effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Colloid P32 chromic phosphate is administered by which of the following routes?
- A.
Intraperitoneal
- B.
Intravenous
- C.
Subcutaneous
- D.
Inhalation
Correct Answer
A. IntraperitonealExplanation
Colloid P32 chromic phosphate is administered intraperitoneally, which means it is injected into the peritoneal cavity, the space between the abdominal organs. This route of administration allows for the direct delivery of the medication to the abdominal organs and tissues. Intraperitoneal administration may be used for various medical purposes, such as cancer treatment or diagnostic procedures.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Which of the following radioation safety measures should be used when performing Sr89 therapy?
- A.
Use of lead vial and synringe shields
- B.
Urinary catheterization for incontinent patients
- C.
Use of absorbent paper in isolation room
- D.
Monitoring patient radiation levels weekly
Correct Answer
B. Urinary catheterization for incontinent patientsExplanation
Urinary catheterization for incontinent patients is the correct radiation safety measure to be used when performing Sr89 therapy. Incontinent patients may have difficulty controlling their bladder, which can lead to contamination of the environment with radioactive material. By using urinary catheterization, the patient's urine can be collected in a closed system, preventing the spread of radiation. This measure helps to protect both the patient and healthcare providers from unnecessary radiation exposure.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
A patient scheduled for F18 - FDG imaging has a measured blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next?
- A.
Reschedule the patient for a later time
- B.
Administer insulin to lower the patient's blood glucose level
- C.
Administer glucose to raise the patient's blood glucose level
- D.
Proceed with the examination
Correct Answer
D. Proceed with the examinationExplanation
The correct answer is to proceed with the examination. F18 - FDG imaging is a type of positron emission tomography (PET) scan that measures the metabolic activity in the body. A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require any intervention. Therefore, the technologist should continue with the examination as scheduled.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Which of the following pairs of radiopharmaceuticals may be used to perform lung perfusion and ventilation imaging?
- A.
Tc99m sulfur colloid and Tc99m pentetate aerosol
- B.
Tc99m albumin and Xe133 gas
- C.
Tc99m macroaggregated albumin and Xe133 gas
- D.
Tc99m bicisate and Tc99m pentetate aerosol
Correct Answer
C. Tc99m macroaggregated albumin and Xe133 gasExplanation
Tc99m macroaggregated albumin and Xe133 gas are the correct pair of radiopharmaceuticals that can be used for lung perfusion and ventilation imaging. Tc99m macroaggregated albumin is injected into the bloodstream and is used to assess lung perfusion, while Xe133 gas is inhaled and is used to assess lung ventilation. Together, these two radiopharmaceuticals provide a comprehensive evaluation of lung function and can help diagnose conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung disease.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
After the admnistered of Tc99m pentetate aerosol with a face mask, radioactive contamination is likely to be found in all of the following area except:
- A.
On the floor between the patient and nebulizer
- B.
Around the patient's mouth
- C.
On the patient's chest
- D.
On the technologist's hands
Correct Answer
D. On the technologist's handsExplanation
Tc99m pentetate aerosol is administered using a face mask, which means that the patient wears the mask during the procedure. The aerosol is inhaled by the patient and is likely to be found in areas close to the patient's respiratory system, such as around the patient's mouth and on the patient's chest. Additionally, some of the aerosol may settle on the floor between the patient and nebulizer due to gravity. However, the technologist administering the procedure is not directly exposed to the aerosol, so contamination is unlikely to be found on their hands.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?
- A.
Tc99m pertechnetate
- B.
I123 sodium iodide
- C.
Tc99m sestamibi
- D.
Tc99m pertechnetate or I123 sodium iodide
Correct Answer
D. Tc99m pertechnetate or I123 sodium iodideExplanation
Thyroid imaging can be performed using either Tc99m pertechnetate or I123 sodium iodide as radiopharmaceuticals. Both of these substances are commonly used in nuclear medicine for imaging the thyroid gland. Tc99m pertechnetate is a radioactive form of technetium-99m that is taken up by the thyroid gland and emits gamma rays that can be detected by a gamma camera. I123 sodium iodide is a radioactive form of iodine-123 that is also taken up by the thyroid gland and emits gamma rays for imaging purposes. Therefore, either of these radiopharmaceuticals can be used for thyroid imaging.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake, nonthyroidal (body_ background measurements may be taken over the:
- A.
Lateral skull
- B.
Mediastinum
- C.
Abdomen
- D.
Thigh
Correct Answer
D. ThighExplanation
During a radioiodine thyroid uptake procedure, nonthyroidal (body) background measurements are taken to determine the amount of radioactive iodine present in the body outside of the thyroid gland. These measurements are important to accurately calculate the thyroid uptake. The thigh is a suitable location for taking these measurements as it is a distant area from the thyroid gland and is representative of the body's overall background radiation levels.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
In performing a bone image, which of the following views would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus?
- A.
Lateral views of the patella
- B.
Postvoid image of the pelvis
- C.
Planar view of the feet
- D.
Anterior view of the distal humerus and radius
Correct Answer
C. Planar view of the feetExplanation
A planar view of the feet would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus because it provides a clear and detailed image of the bones in the feet, including the calcaneus. This view allows for a comprehensive evaluation of any abnormalities or fractures in the calcaneus, making it the most suitable option for detecting abnormalities in this specific bone. The other options, such as the lateral views of the patella, postvoid image of the pelvis, and anterior view of the distal humerus and radius, are not focused on the calcaneus and would not provide the same level of detail or accuracy in detecting abnormalities in this bone.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
All of the following statements about four-phase bone imaging are true, except:
- A.
This study includes both dynamic and static imaging
- B.
The study may be performed with any blood pool agent
- C.
The patient is positioned under the camera before tracer administration
- D.
The third phase is performed 5-6 hr after tracer administration
Correct Answer
B. The study may be performed with any blood pool agentExplanation
Four-phase bone imaging is a nuclear medicine technique used to evaluate bone lesions and infections. It involves the use of a blood pool agent, which is injected into the patient's bloodstream. The agent helps to visualize the blood flow in the bones during the dynamic phase of the imaging. The study includes both dynamic and static imaging, where static images are taken at different time intervals after tracer administration to assess bone metabolism. However, the statement that the study may be performed with any blood pool agent is incorrect. Specific blood pool agents, such as technetium-99m-labeled diphosphonates, are used for this imaging technique.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Which of the following patients should recieve fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging?
- A.
80-year-old woman with suspected pulmonary embolism
- B.
65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
- C.
45-year-old man with right-to-left cardiac shunt
- D.
25-year-old woman with asthma
Correct Answer
C. 45-year-old man with right-to-left cardiac shuntExplanation
A 45-year-old man with a right-to-left cardiac shunt should receive fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging. This is because a right-to-left cardiac shunt is a condition where blood bypasses the lungs and goes directly from the right side of the heart to the left side without being oxygenated. Therefore, administering the typical amount of particles for lung perfusion imaging would not provide accurate results in this patient.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Which of the following statements about the wash-in/washout method for performing xenon ventilation studies is true?
- A.
The patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen during the wash-in phase
- B.
The patient can be disconnected from the gas-trapping apparatus after the wash-in phase
- C.
This method is not recommended for comatose patients
- D.
It is not necessary to introduce oxygen or air into the xenon delivery system
Correct Answer
A. The patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen during the wash-in phaseExplanation
During the wash-in phase of the wash-in/washout method for performing xenon ventilation studies, the patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen. This means that the patient inhales a combination of xenon and oxygen, and then exhales it back into the system to continue the process. This allows for the xenon to be distributed throughout the lungs and provides accurate measurements of lung ventilation.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Which of the following must be performed before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor?
- A.
Confirm that the exposure rate does not exceed background levels
- B.
Perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination
- C.
Cover each individual vial with a with a waterproof of covering
- D.
Notify the NRC that a shipment is being made
Correct Answer
B. Perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contaminationExplanation
Before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor, it is necessary to perform a wipe test to ensure that there is no surface contamination. This is important because surface contamination can pose a risk to the individuals handling the package and also to the environment. By performing a wipe test, any potential contamination can be identified and appropriate measures can be taken to safely handle and transport the package.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging?
- A.
Compton scatter from the patient
- B.
Positrons escaping from the patient
- C.
Gamma rays from the long-lived source used for transmission scanning
- D.
Electromagnetic radiation from the PET camera
Correct Answer
A. Compton scatter from the patientExplanation
Compton scatter from the patient is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging. Compton scatter refers to the scattering of photons that occurs when an X-ray or gamma ray interacts with matter, in this case, the patient. When the technologist is performing PET imaging, they are exposed to scattered radiation from the patient, which can contribute to their overall radiation exposure. This is why compton scatter from the patient is considered a primary source of radiation exposure for the technologist.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac perfusion study with sestimibi, a technologist should give what prior to imaging?
- A.
A fatty meal
- B.
A glass of cold water
- C.
Dextrose intravenously
- D.
Adenosine
Correct Answer
B. A glass of cold waterExplanation
A glass of cold water is given prior to imaging in a cardiac perfusion study with sestimibi to help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel. This is because cold water can stimulate the gastrointestinal system, causing increased peristalsis and movement of the radioactive tracer through the digestive system. This helps to reduce any interference or artifacts that may be caused by the tracer accumulating in these organs.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
A postsurgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a study. The technologists notices that the patient's surgical dressing shows signs of drainage. The most appropriate action for the technologist is to:
- A.
Remove the old dressing and replace it with a fresh one
- B.
Reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel
- C.
Terminate the study and transport the patient back to his/her room
- D.
Complete the nuclear medicine procedure and ignore the dressing
Correct Answer
B. Reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnelExplanation
The technologist should reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel because signs of drainage indicate a potential complication or infection at the surgical site. Reinforcing the dressing can help prevent further contamination and notify medical personnel allows them to assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate treatment if necessary. Terminating the study and transporting the patient back to their room or ignoring the dressing would not address the potential issue and could lead to further complications.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
If an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, the fluid portion of the blood sample is known as:
- A.
Plasma
- B.
Serum
- C.
Antiserum
- D.
Blood complement
Correct Answer
A. PlasmaExplanation
When an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, it prevents clotting and allows the blood to remain in its liquid state. The fluid portion of the blood sample, in this case, is known as plasma. Plasma is the yellowish liquid component of blood that contains various proteins, hormones, electrolytes, and waste products. It carries nutrients, hormones, and waste materials throughout the body and plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis. Serum, on the other hand, is the liquid portion of blood that remains after clotting has occurred and does not contain clotting factors. Antiserum refers to blood serum that contains specific antibodies, while blood complement refers to a group of proteins that enhance the immune response.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans:
- A.
Gastric emptying
- B.
Deep vein thrombosis
- C.
LeVeen Shunt patency
- D.
Meckel's diverticulum
Correct Answer
D. Meckel's diverticulumExplanation
Pentagastrin is commonly used in Meckel's diverticulum scans. Meckel's diverticulum is a small pouch that forms on the wall of the small intestine and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding or other complications. Pentagastrin is a synthetic hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid, and its use in Meckel's diverticulum scans helps to identify the presence and location of the diverticulum. It is not used in gastric emptying, deep vein thrombosis, or LeVeen Shunt patency scans.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which of the following is NOT recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration?
- A.
Dim the lights
- B.
Inject using an IV line
- C.
Talk calmingly to patient while injecting
- D.
Ask the patient to keep eyes and ears open
Correct Answer
C. Talk calmingly to patient while injectingExplanation
Talking calmly to the patient while injecting is not recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration. This is because any form of communication, including talking, can potentially interfere with the imaging process and affect the accuracy of the results. It is important to minimize any external stimuli during the administration of these agents to ensure optimal imaging outcomes.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Which of the following medical history is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging?
- A.
Breast-feeding schedule
- B.
Mammogram results
- C.
PSA level
- D.
Pregnancy status
Correct Answer
C. PSA levelExplanation
PSA level is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging because this imaging technique is used to detect and evaluate prostate cancer. PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and elevated PSA levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. Therefore, monitoring the PSA level is important in determining the need for In111 capromab pendetide imaging and assessing the effectiveness of treatment for prostate cancer.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Which of the following events is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study?
- A.
Radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder
- B.
Radioactivity is taken up into the renal cortex
- C.
Mechanical blockages in the renal collecting system is cleared
- D.
The peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is shortened
Correct Answer
A. Radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladderExplanation
When furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study, it acts as a diuretic and increases urine production. This increased urine flow helps to clear radioactivity from the renal pelvis into the bladder. Furosemide works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. As a result, any radioactivity present in the renal pelvis is flushed out into the bladder through the increased urine flow.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Early (6 hr after injection) Ga67 imaging should be performed for which of the following conditions is suspected?
- A.
Sarcoma
- B.
Osteomyelitis
- C.
Lymphoma
- D.
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Correct Answer
B. OsteomyelitisExplanation
Early Ga67 imaging should be performed for suspected osteomyelitis. Ga67 is a radiopharmaceutical that accumulates in areas of inflammation and infection. Early imaging, within 6 hours after injection, allows for better visualization of the infection site as the tracer is actively being taken up by the inflammatory cells. This can aid in the early detection and diagnosis of osteomyelitis, a bone infection. Sarcoma, lymphoma, and bronchogenic carcinoma are not typically associated with Ga67 uptake and would not require early imaging.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is for the technologist to:
- A.
Stay home when ill
- B.
Wear gloves, mark, and hospital gown at all times
- C.
Wash hands both before and after patient contact
- D.
Maintain distance for each patient
Correct Answer
C. Wash hands both before and after patient contactExplanation
The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is by washing hands both before and after patient contact. This is because hands are a common mode of transmission for pathogens, and proper hand hygiene can help prevent the transfer of these pathogens from one patient to another. Wearing gloves, mask, and hospital gown can provide additional protection, but they are not as effective as hand washing. Staying home when ill and maintaining distance for each patient are also important measures, but they do not directly address the issue of hand hygiene.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
In111 pentereotide normally localizes in all of the following sites except:
- A.
Pituitary gland
- B.
Salivary glands
- C.
Spleen
- D.
Thyroid gland
Correct Answer
B. Salivary glandsExplanation
In111 pentetreotide is a radiopharmaceutical agent used in imaging studies to detect neuroendocrine tumors. It binds to somatostatin receptors, which are commonly found in various tissues including the pituitary gland, spleen, and thyroid gland. However, salivary glands do not typically express somatostatin receptors, therefore In111 pentetreotide does not localize in these glands.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of Tc99m exametazime?
- A.
Immediately
- B.
15-20 min
- C.
1-2 hr
- D.
24 hr
Correct Answer
C. 1-2 hrExplanation
SPECT brain imaging may begin 1-2 hours after the administration of Tc99m exametazime. This is because it takes some time for the radiotracer to distribute and accumulate in the brain tissue. Starting the imaging process immediately after administration may not provide accurate results as the radiotracer needs sufficient time to reach the target area. Waiting for 1-2 hours allows for optimal distribution and uptake of the radiotracer, ensuring better visualization of brain activity.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Patient preparation for post-thyroidectomy I131 whole body imaging for metastases may include all of the following except:
- A.
Discontinuation of replacement thyroid hormone
- B.
Administration of exogenous TSH
- C.
Administration of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2 hr before imaging
- D.
Following a low-iodine diet for 1-2 weeks before imaging
Correct Answer
C. Administration of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2 hr before imagingExplanation
Patient preparation for post-thyroidectomy I131 whole body imaging for metastases may include discontinuation of replacement thyroid hormone, administration of exogenous TSH, and following a low-iodine diet for 1-2 weeks before imaging. However, administration of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2 hr before imaging is not a part of the patient preparation for this procedure.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Which of the following instructions should be given to patients after administration of F18 FDG for PET imaging?
- A.
The patient may leave the imaging area and return in approximately 90 min
- B.
The patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins
- C.
The patient may read or watch television until imaging begins
- D.
The patient should consume a fatty meal to clear excess tracer from the hepatobiliary system.
Correct Answer
B. The patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins -
- 48.
In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin:
- A.
15 min after meal consumption, then every 15 min for 1 hr
- B.
1 hr after meal consumption, then every 15 min for the next hour
- C.
Immediately after meal consumption, then every 5 min for at least 1 hr
- D.
Immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2 hr
Correct Answer
D. Immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2 hrExplanation
In a gastric-emptying study, the imaging should begin immediately after meal consumption. This is because the purpose of the study is to track the movement of food through the stomach and into the small intestine. Starting the imaging immediately after the meal allows for the visualization of the initial stages of gastric emptying. The imaging should then be done every 15 minutes for at least 2 hours to capture the complete process of gastric emptying. This time frame allows for the observation of any delays or abnormalities in the emptying process.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
After stress myocardial imaging with Tl201 thallous chloride, 1-15 mCi of Tl201 may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to:
- A.
Improve patient throughput
- B.
Demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily
- C.
Demonstrate infarct size more precisely
- D.
Minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts
Correct Answer
B. Demonstrate reversible ischemia more readilyExplanation
Administering 1-15 mCi of Tl201 thallous chloride before rest myocardial imaging helps in demonstrating reversible ischemia more readily. This is because Tl201 is a radioactive tracer that is taken up by healthy heart tissue but not by ischemic or infarcted tissue. By administering Tl201 before rest imaging, any areas of reversible ischemia can be identified as they will show reduced uptake of the tracer compared to healthy tissue. This helps in diagnosing and assessing the severity of ischemic heart disease.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 min during hepatobiliary imaging, which of the following may be administered?
- A.
Cimetidine
- B.
Morphine
- C.
Dobutamine
- D.
Furosemide
Correct Answer
B. MorphineExplanation
If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 minutes during hepatobiliary imaging, morphine may be administered. Morphine is commonly used in hepatobiliary imaging to cause contraction of the gallbladder, which helps in its visualization. By administering morphine, the gallbladder can be stimulated to contract, allowing for better imaging and evaluation of the biliary system.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Dec 06, 2016Quiz Created by
Natfasho
Respiratory Care: Cognitive Nursing Skills Trivia Quiz
Respiratory Care: Cognitive Nursing Skills Trivia Quiz
Medical Surgical Nursing Practice Test Part 1 (Practice Mode)- RNpedia
Medical Surgical Nursing Practice Test Part 1 (Practice Mode)- RNpedia
201 NurseZone Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Coaching Part 2 (26 to 50)
201 NurseZone Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Coaching Part 2 (26 to 50)
200 NurseZone Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Coaching Part 1 (51 to 75)
200 NurseZone Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Coaching Part 1 (51 to 75)
Back to top