Nmt Final Part 2

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1. When using [18F]FDG for PET imaging a consideration must be made for which of the following being a contradiction for performing the study?

Explanation

A blood glucose level of 200mg/dL is a contradiction for performing the study with [18F]FDG for PET imaging because high blood glucose levels can interfere with the uptake of [18F]FDG in cells. [18F]FDG is a radiopharmaceutical that is taken up by cells in proportion to their glucose metabolism. When blood glucose levels are high, cells may preferentially take up glucose from the bloodstream instead of [18F]FDG, leading to reduced uptake of the radiotracer and potentially affecting the accuracy of the PET imaging results.

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About This Quiz
Nmt Final Part 2 - Quiz

This quiz, titled 'NMT FINAL PART 2', assesses knowledge in nuclear medicine technology, focusing on procedures like renal plasma flow determination, radionuclide cystography, and the use of radiopharmaceuticals... see morelike In-111 and Tc99m-bicisate. see less

2. When performing a thyroid uptake, the nonthyroidal body back-ground measurement is obtained over the:

Explanation

During a thyroid uptake procedure, the nonthyroidal body background measurement is obtained over the thigh. This is because the thigh is a suitable location to measure the background radiation levels that are not related to the thyroid gland. The thigh is a convenient and easily accessible area to place the detector and obtain accurate readings for background radiation. The other options such as the stomach, skull, and lumbar spine are not typically used for this purpose and may not provide accurate measurements.

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3. Which of the following must be performed before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor?

Explanation

Before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor, it is necessary to perform a wipe test to ensure that there is no surface contamination. This is important because surface contamination can pose a risk to the individuals handling the package and also to the environment. By performing a wipe test, any potential contamination can be identified and appropriate measures can be taken to safely handle and transport the package.

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4. A patient scheduled for F18 - FDG imaging has a measured blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the technologist perform next?

Explanation

The correct answer is to proceed with the examination. F18 - FDG imaging is a type of positron emission tomography (PET) scan that measures the metabolic activity in the body. A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not require any intervention. Therefore, the technologist should continue with the examination as scheduled.

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5. When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake, nonthyroidal (body_ background measurements may be taken over the:

Explanation

During a radioiodine thyroid uptake procedure, nonthyroidal (body) background measurements are taken to determine the amount of radioactive iodine present in the body outside of the thyroid gland. These measurements are important to accurately calculate the thyroid uptake. The thigh is a suitable location for taking these measurements as it is a distant area from the thyroid gland and is representative of the body's overall background radiation levels.

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6. Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of:  

Explanation

Dipyridamole is a medication that can cause adverse effects such as headache, dizziness, and flushing. Aminophylline is a bronchodilator that is commonly used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions. It also has the ability to counteract the adverse effects of dipyridamole by relaxing the smooth muscles and improving blood flow. Therefore, the administration of aminophylline is the appropriate treatment for the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole.

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7. Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires which of the following?

Explanation

Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires catheterization of the patient. This is because the direct method involves inserting a catheter into the patient's bladder to directly inject the tracer. Intravenous injection of the tracer is not required in this method. The use of a renal agent and administration of furosemide may be used in other types of imaging tests, but they are not specifically required for radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method.

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8. Which of the following tracers may used to confirm brain death?

Explanation

Tc99m exametazime is a radiopharmaceutical tracer that is commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging to evaluate cerebral blood flow. In the context of confirming brain death, Tc99m exametazime can be used to assess cerebral perfusion. In brain death, there is a complete and irreversible loss of all cerebral and brainstem functions, including cerebral blood flow. By injecting Tc99m exametazime and performing a brain perfusion scan, it can be determined if there is absence of cerebral blood flow, thus confirming brain death. Therefore, Tc99m exametazime is a suitable tracer to confirm brain death.

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9. Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?

Explanation

Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in a patient's nose after intrathecal tracer administration is most useful when rhinorrhea is suspected. Rhinorrhea refers to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the nose, which can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, infection, or a CSF leak. By counting the cotton gauze, healthcare professionals can assess the amount of CSF leakage and monitor the condition of the patient. This can help in diagnosing and managing rhinorrhea effectively.

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10. When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe, the most appropriate collimator to use is a:

Explanation

A flat-field collimator is the most appropriate collimator to use when performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe. This type of collimator allows for a uniform sensitivity across the entire field of view, which is important for accurately measuring the uptake of radioiodine in the thyroid. The other collimators listed, such as low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel-hole collimator, converging collimator, and straight-bore collimator, are not specifically designed for this type of procedure and may not provide the desired sensitivity or uniformity.

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11. Which of the following instructions should be given to patients after administration of F18 FDG for PET imaging?

Explanation

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12. Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to:

Explanation

Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to rule out ureteropelvic obstruction. This is because furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, which can help identify any blockages or obstructions in the ureter or pelvis of the kidney. By administering furosemide, healthcare professionals can assess the flow of urine and determine if there are any abnormalities or obstructions present in the urinary system.

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13. All of the following are advantages of the first-pass method for performing cardiac function imaging except:

Explanation

The first-pass method for performing cardiac function imaging has several advantages, including short acquisition time, low background activity, and the ability to choose different radiopharmaceuticals. However, it does not offer the advantage of obtaining multiple views with just one tracer dose. This means that in order to obtain multiple views, multiple tracer doses would need to be administered, which can be time-consuming and potentially increase the risk for the patient.

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14. In performing a bone image, which of the following views would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus?

Explanation

A planar view of the feet would best demonstrate an abnormality in the calcaneus because it provides a clear and detailed image of the bones in the feet, including the calcaneus. This view allows for a comprehensive evaluation of any abnormalities or fractures in the calcaneus, making it the most suitable option for detecting abnormalities in this specific bone. The other options, such as the lateral views of the patella, postvoid image of the pelvis, and anterior view of the distal humerus and radius, are not focused on the calcaneus and would not provide the same level of detail or accuracy in detecting abnormalities in this bone.

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15. Which of the following would not normally appear as an area of increased activity on the bone image of an adult?

Explanation

Epiphyseal plates are growth plates located at the ends of long bones in children and adolescents. These plates are responsible for bone growth and are typically active during the growth phase. In adults, the epiphyseal plates have already fused and turned into solid bone, so they would not normally appear as an area of increased activity on a bone image. Therefore, the correct answer is Epiphyseal plates.

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16. After the admnistered of Tc99m pentetate aerosol with a face mask, radioactive contamination is likely to be found in all of the following  area except:

Explanation

Tc99m pentetate aerosol is administered using a face mask, which means that the patient wears the mask during the procedure. The aerosol is inhaled by the patient and is likely to be found in areas close to the patient's respiratory system, such as around the patient's mouth and on the patient's chest. Additionally, some of the aerosol may settle on the floor between the patient and nebulizer due to gravity. However, the technologist administering the procedure is not directly exposed to the aerosol, so contamination is unlikely to be found on their hands.

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17. Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing has the longest plasma half-life?  

Explanation

Dipyridamole has the longest plasma half-life among the given options. Plasma half-life refers to the time it takes for the concentration of a drug in the plasma to decrease by half. Dipyridamole is a vasodilator that inhibits the uptake of adenosine, resulting in increased levels of adenosine in the body. It has a half-life of approximately 10 hours, which is longer compared to the other options such as adenosine, dobutamine, and nitroglycerin.

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18. Which of the following events is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study?

Explanation

When furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study, it acts as a diuretic and increases urine production. This increased urine flow helps to clear radioactivity from the renal pelvis into the bladder. Furosemide works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. As a result, any radioactivity present in the renal pelvis is flushed out into the bladder through the increased urine flow.

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19. An advantage of [201T] thallium chloride is that it:

Explanation

Thallium chloride is known to redistribute within the body, which means it can move from one area to another. This characteristic can be advantageous in certain medical applications, as it allows for the targeted delivery of the thallium to specific areas or organs in the body. This redistribution property of thallium chloride can be utilized to enhance diagnostic imaging or therapeutic treatments.

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20. The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is for the technologist to: 

Explanation

The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is by washing hands both before and after patient contact. This is because hands are a common mode of transmission for pathogens, and proper hand hygiene can help prevent the transfer of these pathogens from one patient to another. Wearing gloves, mask, and hospital gown can provide additional protection, but they are not as effective as hand washing. Staying home when ill and maintaining distance for each patient are also important measures, but they do not directly address the issue of hand hygiene.

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21. Which of the following radioation safety measures should be used when performing Sr89 therapy?

Explanation

Urinary catheterization for incontinent patients is the correct radiation safety measure to be used when performing Sr89 therapy. Incontinent patients may have difficulty controlling their bladder, which can lead to contamination of the environment with radioactive material. By using urinary catheterization, the patient's urine can be collected in a closed system, preventing the spread of radiation. This measure helps to protect both the patient and healthcare providers from unnecessary radiation exposure.

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22. If tracer concentration is visualized in the stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanations is that:  

Explanation

The most likely explanation for tracer concentration in the stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image is that the tracer contained unbound [99mTc]pertechnetate. This suggests that the tracer was not properly bound or metabolized, leading to its accumulation in these specific areas. This could be due to a malfunction in the tracer itself or an issue with the patient's metabolism.

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23. To confirm a referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine theupeutic procedure, the technologist should:

Explanation

The correct answer is to locate the written directive for the therapy in the patient's medical record. This is the most appropriate action to take in order to confirm the referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine therapeutic procedure. The written directive serves as a formal order for the procedure and provides important information about the specific therapy that needs to be administered. By locating the written directive in the patient's medical record, the technologist can ensure that they have the necessary information and instructions to proceed with the procedure.

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24. Which of the following pairs of radiopharmaceuticals may be used to perform lung perfusion and ventilation imaging?

Explanation

Tc99m macroaggregated albumin and Xe133 gas are the correct pair of radiopharmaceuticals that can be used for lung perfusion and ventilation imaging. Tc99m macroaggregated albumin is injected into the bloodstream and is used to assess lung perfusion, while Xe133 gas is inhaled and is used to assess lung ventilation. Together, these two radiopharmaceuticals provide a comprehensive evaluation of lung function and can help diagnose conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung disease.

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25. It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with symptoms of pulmonary emboli because: 

Explanation

The reason it is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with symptoms of pulmonary emboli is because the number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterioles. This means that even though some arterioles may be blocked, there are still plenty of other arterioles available for blood flow, ensuring that the overall circulation is not significantly compromised.

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26. Which of the following is the reason that it is important to have a standardized meal size and composition in a gastric-emptying scan?

Explanation

Having a standardized meal size and composition is important in a gastric-emptying scan because it can affect the rate of gastric emptying. The purpose of a gastric-emptying scan is to measure how quickly food moves through the stomach. By using a standardized meal size and composition, the scan can accurately assess the rate at which the stomach empties. If the meal size or composition varies, it can introduce variables that may impact the rate of gastric emptying and therefore affect the accuracy of the scan results.

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27. Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the administration of: 

Explanation

Dipyridamole is a medication used to prevent blood clots. However, it can also cause adverse effects such as headache, flushing, and low blood pressure. Aminophylline is a medication that can be used to counteract these adverse effects. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways and blood vessels, which can help alleviate symptoms such as headache and low blood pressure. Therefore, the administration of aminophylline is the appropriate treatment for the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole.

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28. For which of the following procedures is the radiopharmaceutical administered orally?

Explanation

Gastric emptying is the process of measuring how quickly food leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine. In this procedure, a radiopharmaceutical is administered orally, meaning it is taken by mouth. The radiopharmaceutical is then tracked as it moves through the digestive system, allowing doctors to assess the rate of gastric emptying. This procedure cannot be performed by administering the radiopharmaceutical through other routes such as injection or inhalation. Therefore, the correct answer is gastric emptying.

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29. Which of the following would not be a characteristic of an ideal myocardial perfusion agent?

Explanation

An ideal myocardial perfusion agent should have high first-pass myocardial extraction proportional to blood flow, an adequate imaging window, and a high target-to-nontarget ratio. However, the ability to complete both rest and stress imaging in 2 days is not a characteristic of an ideal myocardial perfusion agent. This is because it typically takes longer to complete both rest and stress imaging, as they are usually done on separate days to allow for proper evaluation and comparison of the results.

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30. Which of the following is most likely to interfere with performing a left ventricular ejection fraction using the gated equilibrium technique? 

Explanation

Cardiac arrhythmia is most likely to interfere with performing a left ventricular ejection fraction using the gated equilibrium technique. Cardiac arrhythmia refers to abnormal heart rhythms, which can disrupt the synchronization required for accurate measurements during the technique. This can lead to inaccurate results and difficulty in assessing the left ventricular ejection fraction. Doxorubicin toxicity, cardiomyopathy, and coronary artery disease may affect the heart's function but are less likely to directly interfere with the technique itself.

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31. One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is  to check the label found on the vial. The best times to check this label would include all of the following except:

Explanation

The correct answer is after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient. This is because checking the label after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient would not serve any purpose in ensuring that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered. By that time, it would be too late to take any corrective action if there was a mistake in the labeling. Therefore, it is important to check the label before the vial is removed from the shelf, before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed, and after the vial is placed back on the shelf to ensure the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered.

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32. In a normally functioning system, an increase in circulating thyroid hormone will cause TSH secretion to:  

Explanation

An increase in circulating thyroid hormone signals that there is already enough thyroid hormone in the body. In response to this, the pituitary gland reduces the secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to prevent further production of thyroid hormone. Therefore, an increase in circulating thyroid hormone will cause TSH secretion to decrease.

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33. Very increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?  

Explanation

Very increased serum bilirubin levels can cause jaundice, a condition where the skin and eyes appear yellow due to the buildup of bilirubin in the body. Bilirubin is processed by the liver and excreted through the bile, which flows into the intestines. However, in cases of severe liver dysfunction or obstruction of the bile ducts, bilirubin may not be properly excreted and can accumulate in the bloodstream. This can lead to bilirubin being excreted through alternative routes, such as the kidneys, resulting in bilirubinuria. Therefore, on hepatobiliary images, the kidneys may be visualized due to the presence of bilirubin in the urine.

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34. Patient preparation for a I-131 therapy includes:

Explanation

Patient preparation for I-131 therapy includes following a low iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy. This is because iodine can interfere with the uptake of radioactive iodine, which is the purpose of the therapy. By avoiding iodine-rich foods, the patient's body will have a higher chance of absorbing the radioactive iodine and targeting the thyroid cells that need to be treated.

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35. Morphine is administered during hepatobiliary imaging to cause the: 

Explanation

Morphine is administered during hepatobiliary imaging to cause the Sphincter of Oddi to contract. The Sphincter of Oddi is a muscular valve that controls the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the small intestine. By causing the sphincter to contract, morphine helps to prevent the flow of bile into the small intestine, allowing for better visualization of the hepatobiliary system during imaging.

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36. After stress myocardial imaging with Tl201 thallous chloride, 1-15 mCi of Tl201 may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to:

Explanation

Administering 1-15 mCi of Tl201 thallous chloride before rest myocardial imaging helps in demonstrating reversible ischemia more readily. This is because Tl201 is a radioactive tracer that is taken up by healthy heart tissue but not by ischemic or infarcted tissue. By administering Tl201 before rest imaging, any areas of reversible ischemia can be identified as they will show reduced uptake of the tracer compared to healthy tissue. This helps in diagnosing and assessing the severity of ischemic heart disease.

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37. A postsurgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a study. The technologists notices that the patient's surgical dressing shows signs of drainage. The most appropriate action for the technologist is to: 

Explanation

The technologist should reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel because signs of drainage indicate a potential complication or infection at the surgical site. Reinforcing the dressing can help prevent further contamination and notify medical personnel allows them to assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate treatment if necessary. Terminating the study and transporting the patient back to their room or ignoring the dressing would not address the potential issue and could lead to further complications.

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38. Preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization includes:

Explanation

The preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization includes fasting for at least 2 hours before imaging. This is necessary to ensure that the patient's digestive system is empty, allowing for clear visualization of the diverticulum during imaging. Fasting helps to minimize interference from food and fluid in the gastrointestinal tract, providing a better chance of accurately locating the diverticulum.

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39. In preparation for [18F]flurodeoxyglucose (FDG) imaging, patients are required to fast to:

Explanation

Fasting before [18F]flurodeoxyglucose (FDG) imaging helps to maximize tumor uptake. FDG is a radiotracer that is taken up by cells with high glucose metabolism, such as cancer cells. By fasting, the patient's blood glucose levels decrease, causing cancer cells to become more metabolically active and take up more FDG. This enhances the detection of tumors during imaging, as the increased FDG uptake in the tumor cells makes them more visible.

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40. Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans:

Explanation

Pentagastrin is commonly used in Meckel's diverticulum scans. Meckel's diverticulum is a small pouch that forms on the wall of the small intestine and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding or other complications. Pentagastrin is a synthetic hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid, and its use in Meckel's diverticulum scans helps to identify the presence and location of the diverticulum. It is not used in gastric emptying, deep vein thrombosis, or LeVeen Shunt patency scans.

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41. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood brain barrier?

Explanation

Tc99m - bicisate is the correct answer because it is a radiopharmaceutical that is able to cross the intact blood brain barrier. The blood brain barrier is a protective barrier that prevents many substances from entering the brain, but Tc99m - bicisate is designed to be able to cross this barrier and reach the brain. This allows for imaging of the brain using this radiopharmaceutical. Tc99m - gluceptate, Tc99m - pentetate, and Tc99m - pertechnetate do not have the ability to cross the blood brain barrier.

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42. Which of the following is NOT recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration?

Explanation

Talking calmly to the patient while injecting is not recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration. This is because any form of communication, including talking, can potentially interfere with the imaging process and affect the accuracy of the results. It is important to minimize any external stimuli during the administration of these agents to ensure optimal imaging outcomes.

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43. Which of the following medical history is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging?

Explanation

PSA level is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging because this imaging technique is used to detect and evaluate prostate cancer. PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and elevated PSA levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer. Therefore, monitoring the PSA level is important in determining the need for In111 capromab pendetide imaging and assessing the effectiveness of treatment for prostate cancer.

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44. Patient preparation for post-thyroidectomy I131 whole body imaging for metastases may include all of the following except:

Explanation

Patient preparation for post-thyroidectomy I131 whole body imaging for metastases may include discontinuation of replacement thyroid hormone, administration of exogenous TSH, and following a low-iodine diet for 1-2 weeks before imaging. However, administration of 600-1000mg of potassium perchlorate 2 hr before imaging is not a part of the patient preparation for this procedure.

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45. In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin:

Explanation

In a gastric-emptying study, the imaging should begin immediately after meal consumption. This is because the purpose of the study is to track the movement of food through the stomach and into the small intestine. Starting the imaging immediately after the meal allows for the visualization of the initial stages of gastric emptying. The imaging should then be done every 15 minutes for at least 2 hours to capture the complete process of gastric emptying. This time frame allows for the observation of any delays or abnormalities in the emptying process.

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46. Which of the following materials is the best choice for shielding 32P?

Explanation

Plastic is the best choice for shielding 32P because it is a lightweight material that can effectively block the beta particles emitted by 32P. Lead and tungsten are denser materials, but they are more suitable for shielding gamma rays and x-rays. Since 32P emits beta particles, which have a lower energy and shorter range, plastic is a more appropriate choice for shielding in this case.

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47. Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include which of the following?

Explanation

Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include hydration of the patient. This is because proper hydration is essential for optimal imaging results. It helps in enhancing the visualization of the kidneys and improving the accuracy of the imaging procedure. Adequate hydration also ensures that the kidneys are functioning properly and can effectively filter and eliminate the radiotracer used in the imaging process.

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48. Which of the following agents would be used to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction?

Explanation

Sincalide is a medication that stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile. Tc99m disofenin is a radioactive tracer that is used to visualize the gallbladder and measure its ejection fraction, which is the percentage of bile that is expelled from the gallbladder during contraction. Therefore, sincalide and Tc99m disofenin would be used together to perform a gallbladder ejection fraction test. The other options do not include sincalide, which is necessary for stimulating gallbladder contraction, or do not include Tc99m disofenin, which is necessary for visualizing the gallbladder.

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49. In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur a maximum of how long after tracer administration?

Explanation

In a normal hepatobiliary study, the excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur within 20-30 minutes after tracer administration. This time frame allows for adequate visualization and assessment of the biliary system and gallbladder function. If the excretion takes longer than 30 minutes, it may indicate a potential issue or abnormality in the hepatobiliary system.

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50. If an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, the fluid portion of the blood sample is known as: 

Explanation

When an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, it prevents clotting and allows the blood to remain in its liquid state. The fluid portion of the blood sample, in this case, is known as plasma. Plasma is the yellowish liquid component of blood that contains various proteins, hormones, electrolytes, and waste products. It carries nutrients, hormones, and waste materials throughout the body and plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis. Serum, on the other hand, is the liquid portion of blood that remains after clotting has occurred and does not contain clotting factors. Antiserum refers to blood serum that contains specific antibodies, while blood complement refers to a group of proteins that enhance the immune response.

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51. Which of the following is cited as an advantage of [99mTc] tetrofosmin over [99mTc] sestamibi for myocardial imaging?  

Explanation

The advantage of [99mTc] tetrofosmin over [99mTc] sestamibi for myocardial imaging is that it has faster tracer clearance from the GI system. This means that the tetrofosmin is eliminated from the gastrointestinal system more quickly compared to sestamibi. This can be beneficial in imaging procedures as it allows for clearer and more accurate images to be obtained in a shorter amount of time.

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52. Patient preparation for Sr89 - chloride therapy includes all of the following except:

Explanation

Patient preparation for Sr89 - chloride therapy includes nuclear medicine bone imaging, complete blood count, and renal function studies. Discontinuation of pain medication is not necessary for this therapy. Pain medication can be continued as needed to manage any discomfort or pain the patient may experience. This is because Sr89 - chloride therapy is primarily used for the treatment of bone pain caused by cancer, and pain medication can still be effective in managing this pain alongside the therapy.

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53. If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 min during hepatobiliary imaging, which of the following may be administered?

Explanation

If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 minutes during hepatobiliary imaging, morphine may be administered. Morphine is commonly used in hepatobiliary imaging to cause contraction of the gallbladder, which helps in its visualization. By administering morphine, the gallbladder can be stimulated to contract, allowing for better imaging and evaluation of the biliary system.

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54. An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal radiation monitor must wear it at work except when:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the worker is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure. This means that when the worker themselves is undergoing a procedure that involves radiation, they do not need to wear the personal radiation monitor. This is because the monitor is meant to measure the worker's external radiation exposure, and if they are the ones being exposed during a procedure, there is no need for the monitor.

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55. Delayed improvement of perfusion following coronary artery revascularization is referred to as:  

Explanation

Delayed improvement of perfusion following coronary artery revascularization is referred to as stunned myocardium. This term is used to describe a condition where the heart muscle is temporarily dysfunctional due to reduced blood flow, but can recover with time. It is different from hibernating myocardium, which refers to chronically underperfused but viable heart tissue, and infarcted myocardium, which refers to tissue that has died due to lack of blood supply. Necrosed myocardium refers to tissue that has undergone irreversible cell death.

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56. In performing an effective renal plasma flow determination, the injection site should be imaged to: 

Explanation

In order to perform an effective renal plasma flow determination, it is important to image the injection site to rule out tracer infiltration. This is necessary to ensure that the tracer has been properly injected into the intended location and has not leaked or infiltrated into surrounding tissues. By ruling out tracer infiltration, the accuracy and reliability of the renal plasma flow determination can be ensured.

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57. To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac perfusion study with sestimibi, a technologist should give what prior to imaging?

Explanation

A glass of cold water is given prior to imaging in a cardiac perfusion study with sestimibi to help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel. This is because cold water can stimulate the gastrointestinal system, causing increased peristalsis and movement of the radioactive tracer through the digestive system. This helps to reduce any interference or artifacts that may be caused by the tracer accumulating in these organs.

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58. Adenosine is contraindicated for patients with which of following conditions?  

Explanation

Adenosine is contraindicated for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is a chronic lung disease characterized by airflow limitation, and adenosine can cause bronchoconstriction, worsening the symptoms of COPD and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Therefore, patients with COPD should avoid using adenosine as it can exacerbate their condition.

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59. Advantages of using [99mTc] sestamibi for myocardial perfusion imaging include all of the following except:

Explanation

The advantages of using [99mTc] sestamibi for myocardial perfusion imaging include acquisition of stress and rest images with one tracer dose, acquisition of ventricular function information, completion of stress and rest imaging on the same day, and flexibility in the time of imaging following tracer administration. The only exception is the acquisition of stress and rest images with one tracer dose.

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60. Early (6 hr after injection) Ga67 imaging should be performed for which of the following conditions is suspected?

Explanation

Early Ga67 imaging should be performed for suspected osteomyelitis. Ga67 is a radiopharmaceutical that accumulates in areas of inflammation and infection. Early imaging, within 6 hours after injection, allows for better visualization of the infection site as the tracer is actively being taken up by the inflammatory cells. This can aid in the early detection and diagnosis of osteomyelitis, a bone infection. Sarcoma, lymphoma, and bronchogenic carcinoma are not typically associated with Ga67 uptake and would not require early imaging.

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61. Colloid P32 chromic phosphate is administered by which of the following routes?

Explanation

Colloid P32 chromic phosphate is administered intraperitoneally, which means it is injected into the peritoneal cavity, the space between the abdominal organs. This route of administration allows for the direct delivery of the medication to the abdominal organs and tissues. Intraperitoneal administration may be used for various medical purposes, such as cancer treatment or diagnostic procedures.

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62. Which of the following patients should recieve fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging?

Explanation

A 45-year-old man with a right-to-left cardiac shunt should receive fewer particles than typically administered for lung perfusion imaging. This is because a right-to-left cardiac shunt is a condition where blood bypasses the lungs and goes directly from the right side of the heart to the left side without being oxygenated. Therefore, administering the typical amount of particles for lung perfusion imaging would not provide accurate results in this patient.

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63. In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur no longer than by how many minutes following tracer administration?

Explanation

In a normal hepatobiliary study, the tracer should be excreted into the intestine within 30 minutes following administration. This time frame allows for efficient transportation of the tracer from the liver to the intestines, indicating normal hepatobiliary function. If the tracer takes longer than 30 minutes to reach the intestines, it may suggest a blockage or dysfunction in the hepatobiliary system.

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64. Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Explanation

Thyroid imaging can be performed using either Tc99m pertechnetate or I123 sodium iodide as radiopharmaceuticals. Both of these substances are commonly used in nuclear medicine for imaging the thyroid gland. Tc99m pertechnetate is a radioactive form of technetium-99m that is taken up by the thyroid gland and emits gamma rays that can be detected by a gamma camera. I123 sodium iodide is a radioactive form of iodine-123 that is also taken up by the thyroid gland and emits gamma rays for imaging purposes. Therefore, either of these radiopharmaceuticals can be used for thyroid imaging.

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65. According to the NRC, a written directive for the administration of 15 mCi of [131I] sodium iodide must include the following information:

Explanation

The correct answer is "dosage". According to the NRC, a written directive for the administration of 15 mCi of [131I] sodium iodide must include the dosage information. This is important for ensuring that the correct amount of the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient. The other information listed (patient's thyroid uptake value, patient's birth date, and lot number of the radiopharmaceutical) may also be important for record-keeping purposes, but the dosage is the most critical piece of information needed for the administration of the radiopharmaceutical.

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66. When performing a left ventricular function examination with 99mTc-labeled red blood cells, which of the following actions is used to visually separate the ventricles from one another?

Explanation

Adjusting both the anterior and LAO angle is used to visually separate the ventricles from one another during a left ventricular function examination with 99mTc-labeled red blood cells. This adjustment allows for a better visualization of the ventricles from different angles, helping to differentiate between the left and right ventricles and assess their function accurately.

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67. Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hr before the administration of dipyridamole?

Explanation

Theophylline must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hours before the administration of dipyridamole. This is because theophylline is a medication that is used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions, and it can interact with dipyridamole, which is a medication used to prevent blood clots. Discontinuing theophylline before taking dipyridamole helps to avoid any potential interactions between the two medications.

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68. SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of Tc99m exametazime?

Explanation

SPECT brain imaging may begin 1-2 hours after the administration of Tc99m exametazime. This is because it takes some time for the radiotracer to distribute and accumulate in the brain tissue. Starting the imaging process immediately after administration may not provide accurate results as the radiotracer needs sufficient time to reach the target area. Waiting for 1-2 hours allows for optimal distribution and uptake of the radiotracer, ensuring better visualization of brain activity.

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69. What dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging is performed, which of the following tracers is used for stress and which for rest?
STRESS REST

Explanation

In dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging, Tc99m-sestamibi is used as the tracer for stress and Tl201-thallous chloride is used as the tracer for rest.

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70. Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first pass study?

Explanation

The recommended injection site for a cardiac first pass study is the median basilic vein. This vein is often chosen because it provides easy access to the cardiovascular system and is located in the upper arm, making it convenient for injection. Additionally, the median basilic vein is typically large enough to accommodate the injection of contrast agents used in cardiac first pass studies. The other options listed (cephalic vein, axillary vein, and dorsal vein) are not commonly used for this type of study.

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71. In preparation for a stress test, patients are instructed to fast to: 

Explanation

Fasting before a stress test is done to minimize tracer uptake in the GI tract. Tracer uptake refers to the absorption of a radioactive substance that is used to track the flow of blood in the body. By fasting, the patient's digestive system is empty, reducing the amount of tracer that may be absorbed in the GI tract. This helps to improve the accuracy of the stress test results by ensuring that the tracer is primarily taken up by the heart muscle, allowing for better visualization and evaluation of the heart's blood flow during exercise.

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72. Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging?

Explanation

Compton scatter from the patient is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist who performs PET imaging. Compton scatter refers to the scattering of photons that occurs when an X-ray or gamma ray interacts with matter, in this case, the patient. When the technologist is performing PET imaging, they are exposed to scattered radiation from the patient, which can contribute to their overall radiation exposure. This is why compton scatter from the patient is considered a primary source of radiation exposure for the technologist.

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73. In a normal kidney, the maximum amount of tracer should be concentrated in the kidney how many minutes after administration of [99mTc] mertiatide?

Explanation

In a normal kidney, the maximum amount of tracer should be concentrated in the kidney 3-5 minutes after administration of [99mTc] mertiatide. This is because the tracer is rapidly taken up by the kidney and reaches its peak concentration within this time frame. After this period, the concentration of the tracer starts to decrease as it is excreted from the kidney.

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74. To prepare a patient for a thyroid uptake, the technologist performs a baseline thyroid count and measures radioactivity in the neck that is twice the background counts. Which of the actions listed below is the most appropriate for the technologist to follow? 

Explanation

The technologist should calculate a thyroid uptake using only the baseline counts. This is because the baseline counts provide a measurement of radioactivity in the neck that is twice the background counts. By using only the baseline counts, the technologist can accurately calculate the thyroid uptake and assess the function of the thyroid gland.

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75. Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents should not be administered to patients with asthma or bronchospastic disease?

Explanation

Both adenosine and dipyridamole should not be administered to patients with asthma or bronchospastic disease because they can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate respiratory symptoms. Adenosine acts as a bronchoconstrictor by stimulating the release of mediators such as histamine, while dipyridamole inhibits the breakdown of adenosine, leading to increased levels of adenosine and subsequent bronchoconstriction. Dobutamine, on the other hand, is a β1-adrenergic receptor agonist and does not have bronchoconstrictive effects.

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76. Nurses caring for 131I therapy who require isolation should be advised that the major sources of contamination include the patient's:

Explanation

Nurses caring for patients undergoing 131I therapy should be aware that the major sources of contamination are the patient's urine, saliva, and perspiration. This means that these bodily fluids can potentially contain radioactive material and can pose a risk of contamination to the nurse. Therefore, it is important for nurses to take appropriate precautions and follow isolation protocols to minimize their exposure to these sources of contamination.

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77. Which of the following Tc99m labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding?

Explanation

Red blood cells labeled with Tc99m is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding. This is because red blood cells are able to accurately localize and detect bleeding sites in the gastrointestinal tract. The Tc99m label allows for easy imaging and tracking of the red blood cells, making it an effective tool in diagnosing and monitoring gastrointestinal bleeding.

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78. All of the following statements about four-phase bone imaging are true, except:

Explanation

Four-phase bone imaging is a nuclear medicine technique used to evaluate bone lesions and infections. It involves the use of a blood pool agent, which is injected into the patient's bloodstream. The agent helps to visualize the blood flow in the bones during the dynamic phase of the imaging. The study includes both dynamic and static imaging, where static images are taken at different time intervals after tracer administration to assess bone metabolism. However, the statement that the study may be performed with any blood pool agent is incorrect. Specific blood pool agents, such as technetium-99m-labeled diphosphonates, are used for this imaging technique.

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79. Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents would be a contradiction for severe aortic stenosis? 

Explanation

Dobutamine would be a contradiction for severe aortic stenosis because it is a beta-adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility. In severe aortic stenosis, the aortic valve is narrowed, making it difficult for blood to flow out of the heart. Increasing heart rate and contractility with dobutamine could worsen the obstruction and potentially lead to a decrease in cardiac output.

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80. Static renal imaging is performed about how long after the administration of Tc99m succimer?

Explanation

Static renal imaging is performed about 2 hours after the administration of Tc99m succimer. This is because Tc99m succimer is a radiopharmaceutical that is used for renal imaging, specifically to evaluate the function and structure of the kidneys. It takes time for the radiopharmaceutical to be distributed and excreted by the kidneys, allowing for clear imaging of the renal system. Performing the imaging immediately after administration may not provide enough time for the radiopharmaceutical to reach the kidneys and produce accurate results. Waiting for 2 hours allows for optimal visualization of the kidneys.

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81. Patient preparation for Ga67- citrate imaging may include administration of which of the following? 

Explanation

Patient preparation for Ga67-citrate imaging may include administration of laxatives. Laxatives help to clear the bowel and remove any fecal material that may interfere with the imaging procedure. This ensures that the images obtained are clear and accurate. Diuretics, potassium perchlorate, and Lugol's solution are not typically used in the preparation for Ga67-citrate imaging.

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82. In111 pentereotide normally localizes in all of the following sites except: 

Explanation

In111 pentetreotide is a radiopharmaceutical agent used in imaging studies to detect neuroendocrine tumors. It binds to somatostatin receptors, which are commonly found in various tissues including the pituitary gland, spleen, and thyroid gland. However, salivary glands do not typically express somatostatin receptors, therefore In111 pentetreotide does not localize in these glands.

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83. All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of In-111 labeled leukocytes except: 

Explanation

In-111 labeled leukocytes are used in nuclear medicine imaging to detect areas of infection or inflammation in the body. Osteomyelitis, dental abscess, and ostomy site are conditions that can cause infection or inflammation, which would result in uptake of the labeled leukocytes. However, pulmonary embolism is a condition where a blood clot blocks the arteries in the lungs, which does not involve infection or inflammation. Therefore, pulmonary embolism would not demonstrate uptake of In-111 labeled leukocytes.

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84. Which of the following statements about the wash-in/washout method for performing xenon ventilation studies is true?

Explanation

During the wash-in phase of the wash-in/washout method for performing xenon ventilation studies, the patient rebreathes a mixture of xenon and oxygen. This means that the patient inhales a combination of xenon and oxygen, and then exhales it back into the system to continue the process. This allows for the xenon to be distributed throughout the lungs and provides accurate measurements of lung ventilation.

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85. A normal biodistribution of In111- labled leukocytes will demonstrate the greatest tracer uptake at 24 hr after injection in which of the following sites?

Explanation

In111-labeled leukocytes are commonly used for imaging purposes, and their biodistribution refers to how they are distributed in the body after injection. The question asks which site will demonstrate the greatest tracer uptake at 24 hours after injection. The correct answer is the spleen. The spleen is a major site for immune cell accumulation, and leukocytes are a type of immune cell. Therefore, it is expected that the greatest tracer uptake would occur in the spleen at 24 hours after injection.

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86. For a GFR using the camera method one compares the kidney counts to what? 

Explanation

For a GFR using the camera method, the kidney counts are compared to the preinjection syringe counts. This is because the camera method involves injecting a radioactive substance into the patient and then measuring its clearance from the kidneys. By comparing the kidney counts to the preinjection syringe counts, the efficiency of the kidneys in clearing the radioactive substance can be determined, which is a measure of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

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87. Which agent is preferred for acute myocardial infarction imaging?  

Explanation

[99mTc] pyrophosphate is the preferred agent for acute myocardial infarction imaging. This is because pyrophosphate has a high affinity for calcium, which is released during myocardial infarction. The [99mTc] isotope allows for easy detection and imaging using a gamma camera. The other agents listed ([201Tl] Cl, [99mTc] sestamibi, [99mTc] tetrofosmin) may also be used for myocardial infarction imaging, but [99mTc] pyrophosphate is the preferred choice due to its specific binding to calcium in the infarcted myocardium.

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88. If Tc99m -sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding, the bleeding can be best visualized how long after the radiopharmaceutical is administered?

Explanation

Tc99m -sulfur colloid is a radiopharmaceutical that is used to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding. It is a radioactive tracer that is injected into the body and can be detected using a gamma camera. The tracer is taken up by the reticuloendothelial system, which includes the liver and spleen.

After administration of Tc99m -sulfur colloid, it takes about 10-15 minutes for the tracer to be taken up by the reticuloendothelial system and for the gastrointestinal bleeding to be visualized. This is the optimal time frame for visualizing the bleeding using this radiopharmaceutical.

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When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake, nonthyroidal (body_...
Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the...
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Which of the following tracers may used to confirm brain death?
Counting cotton gauze that has been placed in patient's nose after...
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Which of the following instructions should be given to patients after...
Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to:
All of the following are advantages of the first-pass method for...
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Which of the following would not normally appear as an area of...
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Which of the following is the reason that it is important to have a...
Treatment of the adverse effects induced by dipyridamole involves the...
For which of the following procedures is the radiopharmaceutical...
Which of the following would not be a characteristic of an ideal...
Which of the following is most likely to interfere with performing a...
One verification method used to ensure that the correct...
In a normally functioning system, an increase in circulating thyroid...
Very increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of...
Patient preparation for a I-131 therapy includes:
Morphine is administered during hepatobiliary imaging to cause...
After stress myocardial imaging with Tl201 thallous chloride, 1-15 mCi...
A postsurgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a...
Preparation of the patient for Meckel's diverticulum localization...
In preparation for [18F]flurodeoxyglucose (FDG) imaging, patients are...
Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans:
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood...
Which of the following is NOT recommended during HMPAO/ECD...
Which of the following medical history is relevant to In111 capromab...
Patient preparation for post-thyroidectomy I131 whole body imaging for...
In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin:
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Patient preparation for functional renal imaging should include which...
Which of the following agents would be used to perform a gallbladder...
In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the...
If an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, the fluid portion of...
Which of the following is cited as an advantage of [99mTc] tetrofosmin...
Patient preparation for Sr89 - chloride therapy includes all of the...
If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 min during...
An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal...
Delayed improvement of perfusion following coronary artery...
In performing an effective renal plasma flow determination, the...
To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac...
Adenosine is contraindicated for patients with which of following...
Advantages of using [99mTc] sestamibi for myocardial perfusion imaging...
Early (6 hr after injection) Ga67 imaging should be performed for...
Colloid P32 chromic phosphate is administered by which of the...
Which of the following patients should recieve fewer particles than...
In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the...
Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following...
According to the NRC, a written directive for the administration of 15...
When performing a left ventricular function examination with...
Which of the following must be discontinued for at least 24-36 hr...
SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of...
What dual-radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging is performed,...
Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a...
In preparation for a stress test, patients are instructed to fast...
Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to...
In a normal kidney, the maximum amount of tracer should be...
To prepare a patient for a thyroid uptake, the technologist performs a...
Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents should not be...
Nurses caring for 131I therapy who require isolation should be advised...
Which of the following Tc99m labeled agents is the preferred tracer...
All of the following statements about four-phase bone imaging are...
Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents would be a...
Static renal imaging is performed about how long after the...
Patient preparation for Ga67- citrate imaging may include...
In111 pentereotide normally localizes in all of the following sites...
All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of In-111...
Which of the following statements about the wash-in/washout method for...
A normal biodistribution of In111- labled leukocytes will demonstrate...
For a GFR using the camera method one compares the kidney counts to...
Which agent is preferred for acute myocardial infarction imaging?...
If Tc99m -sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate...
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