Safety Management Trivia Quiz!

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  • 1/124 Questions

    The estimated precent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2
    • 4
    • 6
    • 8
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About This Quiz

Safety management is an important quiz for people to understand when it comes to businesses. This course gives employers the chance to safeguard their employees from harm and minimize the risk of them happening. The quiz below is designed to test it out. Give it a try and get to see just how much you know about it from your See moretraining.

Safety Management Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the precentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

    • 50

    • 70

    • 90

    • 98

    Correct Answer
    A. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98. This indicates that a high percentage of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. It suggests that a large majority of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors and implementing appropriate safety measures.

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  • 3. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs, Manuals, and CDCs

    • Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

    • TOs, handbook, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. These directives are used when performing maintenance procedures. Manuals provide detailed instructions and guidelines for specific tasks. TOs (Technical Orders) are official documents that provide specific instructions for maintenance, operation, and repair of equipment. Handbooks provide additional reference material and guidance for maintenance procedures. Together, these directives ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out accurately and efficiently.

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  • 4. 

    What Safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen. This phase is the first step in introducing new airmen to safety protocols and procedures. It helps them understand the importance of safety and instills good safety habits from the beginning of their careers. By providing comprehensive training during the initial phase, new airmen are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to prioritize safety throughout their time in the air force.

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  • 5. 

    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if conventrations are greater than

    • -2.0%

    • -1.0%

    • .1%

    • 1.0%

    Correct Answer
    A. .1%
    Explanation
    In MSDSs (Material Safety Data Sheets), a chemical is identified as a carcinogen if its concentrations are greater than 0.1%. This indicates that the chemical has the potential to cause cancer in individuals exposed to it. It is important to identify and label carcinogens accurately in order to ensure proper handling and safety precautions are taken when working with these substances.

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  • 6. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • The USAF

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA because the Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The EPA is responsible for regulating and enforcing laws related to the management and disposal of hazardous waste in the United States. They establish guidelines and standards to ensure the safe handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment.

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  • 7. 

    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed

    • 30 Days

    • 60 Days

    • 90 Days

    • 120 Days

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 Days
    Explanation
    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This is because hazardous materials can pose significant risks to human health and the environment if not handled properly. By limiting the storage period to 90 days, it ensures that the materials are not stored for an extended period, reducing the potential for accidents, leaks, or other incidents. This time frame also allows for efficient management and disposal of the hazardous materials within a reasonable timeframe, minimizing the overall risk associated with their storage.

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  • 8. 

    What Affects radiation hazards?

    • Strenght of emission, Time of day, and Input power

    • Strenght of emission, Time of Exposure, and Weather

    • Input power, weather and number of personnel in the area

    • Time of exposure. amount of training and number of operation units

    Correct Answer
    A. Strenght of emission, Time of Exposure, and Weather
    Explanation
    The strength of emission refers to the intensity of radiation being emitted. Higher levels of emission can result in greater radiation hazards. Time of exposure refers to the duration of time that individuals are exposed to radiation. Longer exposure times can increase the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards. Certain weather conditions, such as rain or fog, can cause radiation to disperse more quickly, reducing the risk of exposure. Conversely, calm weather conditions can allow radiation to linger in the area, increasing the risk of hazards.

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  • 9. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

    • Cool with high pressure compressed air

    • Cool with forced air from a blower

    • Spray with cold water

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This is because allowing the assembly to cool naturally in the surrounding air is a safer method compared to using high pressure compressed air, forced air from a blower, or spraying with cold water. Using compressed air or water can potentially cause damage to the assembly or other components, while allowing it to cool in the ambient air ensures a gradual and controlled cooling process.

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  • 10. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

    • 15

    • 45

    • 65

    • 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 45
    Explanation
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the sound waves produced by the engine propagate in a cone-like shape, with the apex of the cone being at the rear of the engine. As a result, the noise is most intense in the direction perpendicular to the axis of the engine, which is at a 45-degree angle from the rear.

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  • 11. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • Dizziness

    • Emotional irritability

    • A feeling of emptiness

    • Impaired mental concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily affects the auditory system and can cause symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. A feeling of emptiness is more commonly associated with emotional or psychological states rather than physical fatigue caused by noise.

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  • 12. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing safety devices associated with these explosives?

    • Crew chief

    • Flight Engineer

    • Weapons Personnel

    • Only senior personnel on special orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons Personnel
    Explanation
    Weapons Personnel are responsible for removing safety devices associated with live ammunition when launching an aircraft. They have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm explosives safely. The crew chief is responsible for overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft, while the flight engineer is responsible for monitoring and maintaining the aircraft's systems during flight. Senior personnel on special orders may have specific responsibilities, but it is the Weapons Personnel who are specifically trained for handling explosives in this context.

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  • 13. 

    Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar you must

    • Install Shorting plugs and clips

    • Install safing mechanical safety devices

    • Remove ammunition and explosives

    • Position all fire control switches to safe or off

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove ammunition and explosives
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove ammunition and explosives. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the hangar and its surroundings. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized. It is a standard procedure to remove ammunition and explosives before bringing the aircraft into the hangar to prevent any potential accidents or incidents that could cause harm or damage.

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  • 14. 

    All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT(form)

    • 55

    • 457

    • 623

    • 1297

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the form used to document all composite material-related safety training. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and documented properly. It helps in maintaining a record of the training provided and ensures compliance with safety regulations.

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  • 15. 

    The first step in developing an effective FOD precention program is to

    • Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly

    • Follow MAJCOM guidelines

    • Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • Educate all personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify all possible sources of FOD
    Explanation
    In order to develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step involves thoroughly examining the work environment, equipment, and processes to identify any potential sources of debris that could pose a risk. By identifying these sources, appropriate measures can be implemented to prevent FOD incidents, such as implementing proper storage and handling procedures, conducting regular inspections, and ensuring that all personnel are aware of the potential sources and how to mitigate them.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Everyone

    • Wing Commander

    • Immediate Supervisor

    • Logistics and operations group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is the responsibility of everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific role or position. Each individual, regardless of their rank or position, should actively participate in preventing FOD by following proper procedures, maintaining cleanliness, and being vigilant in identifying and reporting any potential FOD hazards. This collective effort ensures a safe and efficient working environment, reducing the risk of damage to equipment and potential accidents.

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  • 17. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • Wing vice commander

    • Group commander

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This individual is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, indicating that a lost tool cannot be located. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher authority within the organization, but they may not have the specific knowledge or responsibility for maintenance operations to make a decision about a lost tool.

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  • 18. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office

    • The operations commander

    • The flight safety officer

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA stands for Quality Assurance. In most units, the QA department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. QA is responsible for ensuring that processes and procedures are followed correctly to maintain quality and safety standards. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it involves identifying the cause of the incident, implementing corrective measures, and preventing similar incidents in the future. The FOD prevention office, operations commander, and flight safety officer may have roles related to safety and prevention, but the specific task of investigating dropped objects is typically assigned to the QA department.

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  • 19. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • Red markings

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    The green markings on the gauge of a fire extinguisher indicate the safe operating range of pressure. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure inside the fire extinguisher is at an appropriate level for effective use. This is important because if the pressure is too low, the extinguisher may not work properly, and if it is too high, there is a risk of the extinguisher rupturing or malfunctioning. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the gauge needle is within the green markings to ensure the fire extinguisher is ready for use in case of an emergency.

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  • 20. 

    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a

    • 15 ft radius

    • 20 ft radius

    • 25 ft radius

    • 50 ft radius

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 ft radius
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20 ft radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is important to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if not handled properly. Staying outside this radius reduces the risk of potential accidents or exposure to nitrogen.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • Operations

    • The aircrew

    • Supervision

    • The ground crew

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircrew
    Explanation
    The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that the aircrew, which includes the pilots and other crew members on the aircraft, are in charge of conducting the preflight check before takeoff. This check is important to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that the aircraft is safe for flight. It is a standard procedure that is carried out by the aircrew to minimize any potential risks or issues during the flight.

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  • 22. 

    When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

    • Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

    • Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

    Correct Answer
    A. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
    Explanation
    When serving as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

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  • 23. 

    What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals

    • AFI 23-106

    • AFI 11-218

    • TO 00-25-172

    • TO 00-25-212

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 11-218
    Explanation
    AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This reference provides guidance and standardization for the use of hand signals in various Air Force operations. It ensures that personnel across different countries and organizations can effectively communicate using universally recognized hand signals, promoting safety and efficiency in military operations.

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  • 24. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or Vehicle operator

    • Supervisor or brake operator

    • Supervisor or wing walkers

    • Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only." During an aircraft tow, the supervisor is the only authorized person to give the "all clear to move" order. This is because the supervisor has the overall responsibility for ensuring the safety of the operation and has the authority to make decisions regarding the movement of the aircraft. Other individuals mentioned in the options may have specific roles and responsibilities during the tow, but only the supervisor has the authority to give the final authorization to move the aircraft.

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  • 25. 

    What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

    • Departmental, intermediate, and field

    • Organizational, field, and intermediate

    • Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

    • Departmental, organizational, and depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
    Explanation
    The Air Force's maintenance capabilities are categorized into three levels: organizational, intermediate, and depot. Organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and is typically performed by specialized maintenance units. Depot maintenance is the highest level and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at centralized repair facilities. Therefore, the correct order of increasing capability is organizational, intermediate, and depot.

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  • 26. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Unscheduled

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    • Protective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and minor repairs to prevent breakdowns or failures. By proactively addressing potential issues, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime, increase equipment reliability, and extend its lifespan. This type of maintenance is essential for industries and organizations that rely heavily on their equipment to maintain productivity and efficiency.

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  • 27. 

    Objectives od the MDD system include

    • Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data

    • Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
    Explanation
    The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and make it easily accessible for review or retrieval when needed. This ensures that the system is able to effectively manage and utilize the base-level data for various purposes.

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  • 28. 

    What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information systems database?

    • Damaged and spare items

    • Expired and outdated items

    • Recurring and repeat replacement items

    • Select serially controlled and time change items

    Correct Answer
    A. Select serially controlled and time change items
    Explanation
    The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information systems database. This means that the system ensures that items that are tracked by serial numbers and require regular time-based maintenance are accurately recorded and updated in the database. This helps in keeping track of these specific items and ensuring that they are properly maintained and serviced as required.

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  • 29. 

    What AFTO 781 series form is used as a cource document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

    • 781A

    • 781F

    • 781H

    • 781J

    Correct Answer
    A. 781F
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

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  • 30. 

    The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder?

    • Before the first flight of the day

    • Before each thruflight inspection

    • After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing

    • After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number

    Correct Answer
    A. After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to document aircraft maintenance actions and events. It is typically removed from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly updated and completed before it is removed from the binder. Removing the form before the event number is entered could result in incomplete or inaccurate documentation. Therefore, it is important to remove the form after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

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  • 31. 

    Engine over-tempature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

    • 781G

    • 781J

    • 781M

    • 781P

    Correct Answer
    A. 781J
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781J is the correct answer because it is the specific form used to record engine over-temperature conditions. The other forms listed (781G, 781M, 781P) are used for different purposes and not specifically for recording engine over-temperature conditions.

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  • 32. 

    Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

    • Base supply soordinator

    • Critical item liaison

    • Equipment liaison

    • Item managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Item managers
    Explanation
    Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO (Technical Order) need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise regarding the items and their usage, and they are in the best position to assess the importance and relevance of historical reporting for each item. Item managers are typically responsible for the overall management and oversight of specific items or groups of items, including their procurement, inventory, and reporting requirements. Therefore, they play a crucial role in determining the need for historical reporting in the MDS specific -6 TO.

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  • 33. 

    The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the

    • MAJCOM Level

    • Wing level

    • Base level

    • Unit level

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "unit level" because the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources at the unit level. This means that the system is designed to track and manage maintenance activities, resources, and assets at the individual unit level, such as a specific squadron or department within an organization. It allows managers to monitor and allocate resources effectively, ensuring efficient maintenance operations at the unit level.

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  • 34. 

    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

    • Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • Helping evaluate the training of new personnel for training

    • Helping with forcasting and scheduling personnel for training

    Correct Answer
    A. Helping with forcasting and scheduling personnel for training
    Explanation
    The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the needs for training personnel, as well as organizing and arranging their schedules accordingly. By doing so, the system ensures that the right individuals are assigned to the appropriate training programs at the right time, optimizing the effectiveness and efficiency of the training process.

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  • 35. 

    When should you accomplish and initial evaluation in your training program?

    • Within 60 days of arrival

    • Upon duty postion assignment

    • When someone changes duty positions

    • 30 days after in-processing new personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Within 60 days of arrival
    Explanation
    An initial evaluation in a training program should be accomplished within 60 days of arrival. This allows enough time for the individual to settle in and get familiar with their new environment before undergoing an evaluation. It also ensures that the evaluation is conducted early enough to identify any areas that may need improvement or further training.

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  • 36. 

    The GAS is normally sent out

    • 90 days after graduation

    • 6 months after graduation

    • Within 10 work days after graduation

    • Within 10 calendar days after graduation

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days after graduation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "90 days after graduation." This means that the GAS (presumably referring to some document or form) is typically sent out to individuals 90 days after they have graduated. This could be a standard procedure for providing graduates with important information or updates after they have completed their studies.

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  • 37. 

    Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC

    • CFETP, Part I

    • AFJQS

    • Command JQS

    • CFETP, Part II

    Correct Answer
    A. CFETP, Part II
    Explanation
    CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a particular Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). Part II of the CFETP specifically provides a list of training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, the correct answer is CFETP, Part II.

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  • 38. 

    The TBA provides AIr Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to distance leraning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses air force-wide

    • Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues
    Explanation
    The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues. The TBA platform allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily see and track their own progress and accomplishments in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for career development and ensuring that personnel are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.

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  • 39. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it primarily consists of books, journals, and other resources that provide background information and serve as a reference for specific topics. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries which require up-to-date information to ensure safety and compliance, the reference library focuses on providing historical and foundational knowledge that does not change frequently. Therefore, it does not need to constantly update its publications to maintain currency.

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  • 40. 

    What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 because the question asks for the total number of Air Force TO catalogs, and the only option provided is 1. Therefore, there is only one Air Force TO catalog.

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  • 41. 

    Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

    • Trouble

    • Remedy

    • Section II

    • Probable cause

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that require an action to be taken and lists two possible responses. It is likely that this column offers solutions or steps to resolve a specific problem or issue mentioned in the manual. By following the instructions in the Remedy column, users can address the identified problem and choose one of the two suggested responses to effectively resolve the issue.

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  • 42. 

    What TCTO is indentified by a series of Red diagonals alternately spaced with Red Xs around the border of the first page?

    • Record

    • Urgent action

    • Routine action

    • Immediate action

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent action
    Explanation
    The TCTO identified by a series of Red diagonals alternately spaced with Red Xs around the border of the first page is "Urgent action". This indicates that immediate attention and action are required in order to address the issue or problem mentioned in the TCTO. The red diagonals and Xs serve as visual indicators to highlight the urgency and importance of the action needed.

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  • 43. 

    Which To outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?

    • 00-1-01

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-20 series

    • 00-25 series

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1. The AFTO Form 22 is used for maintenance and inspection records. The 00-5-1 series outlines the procedures for entries on this form.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completeing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

    • Directiory

    • Pamphlet

    • Instruction

    • Supplement

    Correct Answer
    A. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form. Pamphlets are usually informational materials that provide general information or instructions on a specific topic. They can provide guidance on how to fill out forms correctly, but they do not have the authority to enforce the information provided on the form. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 45. 

    Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency, which if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?

    • Waiver

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent." This report type requires action on a TO deficiency that, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency. It suggests that immediate attention and corrective measures are necessary to prevent any negative impact on operational efficiency.

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  • 46. 

    Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • B-5

    Correct Answer
    A. B-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-2. The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

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  • 47. 

    Which of these is a Scissor-type maintenance stand?

    • B-1

    • B-2

    • B-4

    • C-1

    Correct Answer
    A. B-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-4. A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance to provide elevated access to different parts of the aircraft. It is designed with a scissor-like mechanism that allows it to be easily adjusted to different heights. B-4 is the only option listed that indicates a scissor-type maintenance stand. B-1, B-2, and C-1 do not specify the type of maintenance stand they represent.

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  • 48. 

    What is the mazimum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

    • 7,000

    • 8,000

    • 9,000

    • 10,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 8,000
    Explanation
    The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

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  • 49. 

    On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer is

    • 10 MPH

    • 15 MPH

    • 20 MPH

    • 25 MPH

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 MPH
    Explanation
    The maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH.

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  • Feb 26, 2014
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