Safety Management Trivia Quiz!

1. The estimated precent of accidents caused by nature is

2

4

6

8

The correct answer is 2. This suggests that a very small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors. It implies that the majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other external factors rather than natural occurrences such as weather conditions or geological events.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. This suggests that a very small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors. It implies that the majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other external factors rather than natural occurrences such as weather conditions or geological events.

2. What Safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen?

Initial

General

Supervisor's

Sustained job safety

The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen. This phase is the first step in introducing new airmen to safety protocols and procedures. It helps them understand the importance of safety and instills good safety habits from the beginning of their careers. By providing comprehensive training during the initial phase, new airmen are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to prioritize safety throughout their time in the air force.

Explanation

The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen. This phase is the first step in introducing new airmen to safety protocols and procedures. It helps them understand the importance of safety and instills good safety habits from the beginning of their careers. By providing comprehensive training during the initial phase, new airmen are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to prioritize safety throughout their time in the air force.

3. A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if conventrations are greater than

-2.0%

-1.0%

.1%

1.0%

In MSDSs (Material Safety Data Sheets), a chemical is identified as a carcinogen if its concentrations are greater than 0.1%. This indicates that the chemical has the potential to cause cancer in individuals exposed to it. It is important to identify and label carcinogens accurately in order to ensure proper handling and safety precautions are taken when working with these substances.

Explanation

In MSDSs (Material Safety Data Sheets), a chemical is identified as a carcinogen if its concentrations are greater than 0.1%. This indicates that the chemical has the potential to cause cancer in individuals exposed to it. It is important to identify and label carcinogens accurately in order to ensure proper handling and safety precautions are taken when working with these substances.

4. Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

The USAF

Each MAJCOM

DOD

EPA

The correct answer is EPA because the Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The EPA is responsible for regulating and enforcing laws related to the management and disposal of hazardous waste in the United States. They establish guidelines and standards to ensure the safe handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment.

Explanation

The correct answer is EPA because the Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The EPA is responsible for regulating and enforcing laws related to the management and disposal of hazardous waste in the United States. They establish guidelines and standards to ensure the safe handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment.

5. The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

Cool with high pressure compressed air

Cool with forced air from a blower

Spray with cold water

The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This is because allowing the assembly to cool naturally in the surrounding air is a safer method compared to using high pressure compressed air, forced air from a blower, or spraying with cold water. Using compressed air or water can potentially cause damage to the assembly or other components, while allowing it to cool in the ambient air ensures a gradual and controlled cooling process.

Explanation

The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This is because allowing the assembly to cool naturally in the surrounding air is a safer method compared to using high pressure compressed air, forced air from a blower, or spraying with cold water. Using compressed air or water can potentially cause damage to the assembly or other components, while allowing it to cool in the ambient air ensures a gradual and controlled cooling process.

6. When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing safety devices associated with these explosives?

Crew chief

Flight Engineer

Weapons Personnel

Only senior personnel on special orders

Weapons Personnel are responsible for removing safety devices associated with live ammunition when launching an aircraft. They have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm explosives safely. The crew chief is responsible for overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft, while the flight engineer is responsible for monitoring and maintaining the aircraft's systems during flight. Senior personnel on special orders may have specific responsibilities, but it is the Weapons Personnel who are specifically trained for handling explosives in this context.

Explanation

Weapons Personnel are responsible for removing safety devices associated with live ammunition when launching an aircraft. They have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm explosives safely. The crew chief is responsible for overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft, while the flight engineer is responsible for monitoring and maintaining the aircraft's systems during flight. Senior personnel on special orders may have specific responsibilities, but it is the Weapons Personnel who are specifically trained for handling explosives in this context.

7. Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar you must

Install Shorting plugs and clips

Install safing mechanical safety devices

Remove ammunition and explosives

Position all fire control switches to safe or off

Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove ammunition and explosives. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the hangar and its surroundings. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized. It is a standard procedure to remove ammunition and explosives before bringing the aircraft into the hangar to prevent any potential accidents or incidents that could cause harm or damage.

Explanation

Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove ammunition and explosives. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the hangar and its surroundings. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized. It is a standard procedure to remove ammunition and explosives before bringing the aircraft into the hangar to prevent any potential accidents or incidents that could cause harm or damage.

8. Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

Everyone

Wing Commander

Immediate Supervisor

Logistics and operations group commander

FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is the responsibility of everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific role or position. Each individual, regardless of their rank or position, should actively participate in preventing FOD by following proper procedures, maintaining cleanliness, and being vigilant in identifying and reporting any potential FOD hazards. This collective effort ensures a safe and efficient working environment, reducing the risk of damage to equipment and potential accidents.

Explanation

FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is the responsibility of everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific role or position. Each individual, regardless of their rank or position, should actively participate in preventing FOD by following proper procedures, maintaining cleanliness, and being vigilant in identifying and reporting any potential FOD hazards. This collective effort ensures a safe and efficient working environment, reducing the risk of damage to equipment and potential accidents.

9. The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

Red markings

Black markings

Green markings

Orange markings

The green markings on the gauge of a fire extinguisher indicate the safe operating range of pressure. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure inside the fire extinguisher is at an appropriate level for effective use. This is important because if the pressure is too low, the extinguisher may not work properly, and if it is too high, there is a risk of the extinguisher rupturing or malfunctioning. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the gauge needle is within the green markings to ensure the fire extinguisher is ready for use in case of an emergency.

Explanation

The green markings on the gauge of a fire extinguisher indicate the safe operating range of pressure. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure inside the fire extinguisher is at an appropriate level for effective use. This is important because if the pressure is too low, the extinguisher may not work properly, and if it is too high, there is a risk of the extinguisher rupturing or malfunctioning. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the gauge needle is within the green markings to ensure the fire extinguisher is ready for use in case of an emergency.

10. During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

Supervisor or Vehicle operator

Supervisor or brake operator

Supervisor or wing walkers

Supervisor only

The correct answer is "Supervisor only." During an aircraft tow, the supervisor is the only authorized person to give the "all clear to move" order. This is because the supervisor has the overall responsibility for ensuring the safety of the operation and has the authority to make decisions regarding the movement of the aircraft. Other individuals mentioned in the options may have specific roles and responsibilities during the tow, but only the supervisor has the authority to give the final authorization to move the aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Supervisor only." During an aircraft tow, the supervisor is the only authorized person to give the "all clear to move" order. This is because the supervisor has the overall responsibility for ensuring the safety of the operation and has the authority to make decisions regarding the movement of the aircraft. Other individuals mentioned in the options may have specific roles and responsibilities during the tow, but only the supervisor has the authority to give the final authorization to move the aircraft.

11. What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

Departmental, intermediate, and field

Organizational, field, and intermediate

Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

Departmental, organizational, and depot

The Air Force's maintenance capabilities are categorized into three levels: organizational, intermediate, and depot. Organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and is typically performed by specialized maintenance units. Depot maintenance is the highest level and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at centralized repair facilities. Therefore, the correct order of increasing capability is organizational, intermediate, and depot.

Explanation

The Air Force's maintenance capabilities are categorized into three levels: organizational, intermediate, and depot. Organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and is typically performed by specialized maintenance units. Depot maintenance is the highest level and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at centralized repair facilities. Therefore, the correct order of increasing capability is organizational, intermediate, and depot.

12. What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

Unscheduled

Preventive

Corrective

Protective

Preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and minor repairs to prevent breakdowns or failures. By proactively addressing potential issues, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime, increase equipment reliability, and extend its lifespan. This type of maintenance is essential for industries and organizations that rely heavily on their equipment to maintain productivity and efficiency.

Explanation

Preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and minor repairs to prevent breakdowns or failures. By proactively addressing potential issues, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime, increase equipment reliability, and extend its lifespan. This type of maintenance is essential for industries and organizations that rely heavily on their equipment to maintain productivity and efficiency.

13. The TBA provides AIr Force personnel with global, real-time

Access to distance leraning courseware

Access to special certification roster criteria listings

Visibility of available formal training courses air force-wide

Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues

The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues. The TBA platform allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily see and track their own progress and accomplishments in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for career development and ensuring that personnel are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.

Explanation

The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues. The TBA platform allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily see and track their own progress and accomplishments in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for career development and ensuring that personnel are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.

14. When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

AGE Personnel only

The highest ranking person on the shift

Qualified operators only

Any person

The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer used for servicing aircraft should only be operated by qualified operators. This ensures that the person operating the trailer has the necessary knowledge, skills, and training to handle the equipment safely and effectively. It is important to have qualified operators to prevent any accidents or damage to the aircraft or equipment.

Explanation

The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer used for servicing aircraft should only be operated by qualified operators. This ensures that the person operating the trailer has the necessary knowledge, skills, and training to handle the equipment safely and effectively. It is important to have qualified operators to prevent any accidents or damage to the aircraft or equipment.

15. Normally, what type of material is used in the contstruction of a pressure seal?

Soft rubber

Phenolic Mix

Non-Magnetic

Thermosetting plastic

Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. Soft rubber is a flexible and compressible material that can create a tight and secure seal when under pressure. It is also resistant to leakage and can withstand high temperatures and various chemicals. Therefore, it is an ideal material choice for pressure seals in applications such as pipes, valves, and hydraulic systems.

Explanation

Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. Soft rubber is a flexible and compressible material that can create a tight and secure seal when under pressure. It is also resistant to leakage and can withstand high temperatures and various chemicals. Therefore, it is an ideal material choice for pressure seals in applications such as pipes, valves, and hydraulic systems.

16. What parts of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit

Metal shells

Connector halves

Dielectric contacts

Pin-and-socket contacts

Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that connect to corresponding pins and sockets in another connector. When the cannon plug is inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electrical current between the two connectors. This completes the circuit and enables the transfer of electrical signals or power. The metal shells and connector halves provide structural support and protection for the contacts but do not directly complete the electrical circuit.

Explanation

Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that connect to corresponding pins and sockets in another connector. When the cannon plug is inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electrical current between the two connectors. This completes the circuit and enables the transfer of electrical signals or power. The metal shells and connector halves provide structural support and protection for the contacts but do not directly complete the electrical circuit.

17. Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisiting action being applied?

Indicating type

Breakaway type

Screwdriver type

Internal wrenching type

An indicating type torque wrench is designed to display the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. It typically features a dial or digital display that shows the torque value in real-time as the wrench is being used. This allows the user to accurately measure and control the amount of torque being applied to a fastener or component.

Explanation

An indicating type torque wrench is designed to display the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. It typically features a dial or digital display that shows the torque value in real-time as the wrench is being used. This allows the user to accurately measure and control the amount of torque being applied to a fastener or component.

18. Which torque wrench is desgined to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached

Indicating type

Breakaway type

Screwdriver type

Internal wrenching type

A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the desired torque is reached, the wrench will break or slip, indicating that the correct torque has been applied. This feature ensures that the fastener is not overtightened, providing accurate and consistent torque application.

Explanation

A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the desired torque is reached, the wrench will break or slip, indicating that the correct torque has been applied. This feature ensures that the fastener is not overtightened, providing accurate and consistent torque application.

19. When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, the

Manual range mode is indicated

Touch-hold mode is in use

Ohms function is selected

Meter is zeroing itself

The correct answer is touch-hold mode is in use. When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, it indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the multimeter captures and holds the reading on the display, allowing the user to view it even after removing the probes from the circuit being measured. This is useful when measuring values in hard-to-reach or dangerous areas where it may not be safe or convenient to keep the probes connected while reading the value.

Explanation

The correct answer is touch-hold mode is in use. When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, it indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the multimeter captures and holds the reading on the display, allowing the user to view it even after removing the probes from the circuit being measured. This is useful when measuring values in hard-to-reach or dangerous areas where it may not be safe or convenient to keep the probes connected while reading the value.

20. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

Multimeter

Depth gauge

Feeler gauge

Torque wrench

A feeler gauge is a tool used to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a set of thin metal strips of varying thicknesses. These strips can be inserted into the gap between two parts to determine the distance between them. By selecting the appropriate strip, the user can accurately measure the gap and ensure proper fitment or alignment of the parts. This makes the feeler gauge the correct tool for measuring the gap between two parts.

Explanation

A feeler gauge is a tool used to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a set of thin metal strips of varying thicknesses. These strips can be inserted into the gap between two parts to determine the distance between them. By selecting the appropriate strip, the user can accurately measure the gap and ensure proper fitment or alignment of the parts. This makes the feeler gauge the correct tool for measuring the gap between two parts.

21. Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

Base commanders.

Squadron commanders.

Supervisors at all levels.

Squadron QA section.

Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that every supervisor, regardless of their position or rank, has the responsibility to enforce and maintain proper supply practices within their respective areas. By doing so, they contribute to the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain, ensuring that resources are properly managed and allocated. This responsibility extends to all levels of supervision, from frontline supervisors to higher-level managers, as they play a crucial role in upholding supply discipline throughout the organization.

Explanation

Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that every supervisor, regardless of their position or rank, has the responsibility to enforce and maintain proper supply practices within their respective areas. By doing so, they contribute to the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain, ensuring that resources are properly managed and allocated. This responsibility extends to all levels of supervision, from frontline supervisors to higher-level managers, as they play a crucial role in upholding supply discipline throughout the organization.

22. What is the precentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

50

70

90

98

The correct answer is 98. This indicates that a high percentage of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. It suggests that a large majority of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors and implementing appropriate safety measures.

Explanation

The correct answer is 98. This indicates that a high percentage of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. It suggests that a large majority of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors and implementing appropriate safety measures.

23. Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

TOs, Manuals, and CDCs

Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

TOs, handbook, and CDCs

The correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. These directives are used when performing maintenance procedures. Manuals provide detailed instructions and guidelines for specific tasks. TOs (Technical Orders) are official documents that provide specific instructions for maintenance, operation, and repair of equipment. Handbooks provide additional reference material and guidance for maintenance procedures. Together, these directives ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out accurately and efficiently.

Explanation

The correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. These directives are used when performing maintenance procedures. Manuals provide detailed instructions and guidelines for specific tasks. TOs (Technical Orders) are official documents that provide specific instructions for maintenance, operation, and repair of equipment. Handbooks provide additional reference material and guidance for maintenance procedures. Together, these directives ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out accurately and efficiently.

24. The first step in developing an effective FOD precention program is to

Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly

Follow MAJCOM guidelines

Identify all possible sources of FOD

Educate all personnel

In order to develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step involves thoroughly examining the work environment, equipment, and processes to identify any potential sources of debris that could pose a risk. By identifying these sources, appropriate measures can be implemented to prevent FOD incidents, such as implementing proper storage and handling procedures, conducting regular inspections, and ensuring that all personnel are aware of the potential sources and how to mitigate them.

Explanation

In order to develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step involves thoroughly examining the work environment, equipment, and processes to identify any potential sources of debris that could pose a risk. By identifying these sources, appropriate measures can be implemented to prevent FOD incidents, such as implementing proper storage and handling procedures, conducting regular inspections, and ensuring that all personnel are aware of the potential sources and how to mitigate them.

25. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

Wing vice commander

Group commander

Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

Wing commander

The correct answer is Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This individual is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, indicating that a lost tool cannot be located. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher authority within the organization, but they may not have the specific knowledge or responsibility for maintenance operations to make a decision about a lost tool.

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This individual is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, indicating that a lost tool cannot be located. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher authority within the organization, but they may not have the specific knowledge or responsibility for maintenance operations to make a decision about a lost tool.

26. In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

The FOD prevention office

The operations commander

The flight safety officer

QA

QA stands for Quality Assurance. In most units, the QA department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. QA is responsible for ensuring that processes and procedures are followed correctly to maintain quality and safety standards. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it involves identifying the cause of the incident, implementing corrective measures, and preventing similar incidents in the future. The FOD prevention office, operations commander, and flight safety officer may have roles related to safety and prevention, but the specific task of investigating dropped objects is typically assigned to the QA department.

Explanation

QA stands for Quality Assurance. In most units, the QA department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. QA is responsible for ensuring that processes and procedures are followed correctly to maintain quality and safety standards. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it involves identifying the cause of the incident, implementing corrective measures, and preventing similar incidents in the future. The FOD prevention office, operations commander, and flight safety officer may have roles related to safety and prevention, but the specific task of investigating dropped objects is typically assigned to the QA department.

27. Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

Base supply soordinator

Critical item liaison

Equipment liaison

Item managers

Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO (Technical Order) need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise regarding the items and their usage, and they are in the best position to assess the importance and relevance of historical reporting for each item. Item managers are typically responsible for the overall management and oversight of specific items or groups of items, including their procurement, inventory, and reporting requirements. Therefore, they play a crucial role in determining the need for historical reporting in the MDS specific -6 TO.

Explanation

Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO (Technical Order) need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise regarding the items and their usage, and they are in the best position to assess the importance and relevance of historical reporting for each item. Item managers are typically responsible for the overall management and oversight of specific items or groups of items, including their procurement, inventory, and reporting requirements. Therefore, they play a crucial role in determining the need for historical reporting in the MDS specific -6 TO.

28. The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

Helping evaluate the training of new personnel for training

Helping with forcasting and scheduling personnel for training

The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the needs for training personnel, as well as organizing and arranging their schedules accordingly. By doing so, the system ensures that the right individuals are assigned to the appropriate training programs at the right time, optimizing the effectiveness and efficiency of the training process.

Explanation

The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the needs for training personnel, as well as organizing and arranging their schedules accordingly. By doing so, the system ensures that the right individuals are assigned to the appropriate training programs at the right time, optimizing the effectiveness and efficiency of the training process.

29. What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

1

2

3

4

The correct answer is 1 because the question asks for the total number of Air Force TO catalogs, and the only option provided is 1. Therefore, there is only one Air Force TO catalog.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 because the question asks for the total number of Air Force TO catalogs, and the only option provided is 1. Therefore, there is only one Air Force TO catalog.

30. What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

Tail

Axle

Nose

Fixed-Height

The correct answer is Axle. When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. This type of jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. The axle jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft off the ground, making it the most suitable option for this task.

Explanation

The correct answer is Axle. When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. This type of jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. The axle jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft off the ground, making it the most suitable option for this task.

31. How are special bolts identified?

By zinc plated nickel and steel covering

By galvanized plated steel covering

The bolt head is marked with a triangle

The bolt head is marked with the letter S

Special bolts are identified by marking the bolt head with the letter S. This marking serves as a visual indicator that the bolt is unique or has specific characteristics that differentiate it from regular bolts. The letter S helps to easily identify and distinguish special bolts from others, making it easier for users to select and use the appropriate bolts for specific applications.

Explanation

Special bolts are identified by marking the bolt head with the letter S. This marking serves as a visual indicator that the bolt is unique or has specific characteristics that differentiate it from regular bolts. The letter S helps to easily identify and distinguish special bolts from others, making it easier for users to select and use the appropriate bolts for specific applications.

32. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

Maximum setting at least four times

Maximum setting at least six times

Lowest setting at least four times

Lowest setting at least six times

The correct answer is to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times. This is because cycling the torque wrench multiple times helps to ensure that it is calibrated correctly and functioning properly. By doing this at the maximum setting, it ensures that the wrench is capable of handling the highest torque levels it may encounter. Cycling it six times provides a more thorough calibration and reduces the chances of any errors or inaccuracies in torque measurement.

Explanation

The correct answer is to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times. This is because cycling the torque wrench multiple times helps to ensure that it is calibrated correctly and functioning properly. By doing this at the maximum setting, it ensures that the wrench is capable of handling the highest torque levels it may encounter. Cycling it six times provides a more thorough calibration and reduces the chances of any errors or inaccuracies in torque measurement.

33. Use the range button on the fluke multimeter to

Check the AC voltages only

Check the DC voltages only

Initiate the tough-hold mode

Move the decimal point

The range button on the Fluke multimeter allows the user to adjust the measurement range of the device. By pressing this button, the decimal point on the display can be moved to the appropriate position based on the magnitude of the voltage being measured. This ensures accurate readings by allowing the user to clearly see the measurement value without any confusion or misinterpretation.

Explanation

The range button on the Fluke multimeter allows the user to adjust the measurement range of the device. By pressing this button, the decimal point on the display can be moved to the appropriate position based on the magnitude of the voltage being measured. This ensures accurate readings by allowing the user to clearly see the measurement value without any confusion or misinterpretation.

34. Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completeing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

Directiory

Pamphlet

Instruction

Supplement

A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form. Pamphlets are usually informational materials that provide general information or instructions on a specific topic. They can provide guidance on how to fill out forms correctly, but they do not have the authority to enforce the information provided on the form. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer to the question.

Explanation

A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form. Pamphlets are usually informational materials that provide general information or instructions on a specific topic. They can provide guidance on how to fill out forms correctly, but they do not have the authority to enforce the information provided on the form. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer to the question.

35. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is porperly documented?

AGE personnel

Aircrew personnel

Shift Supervisor

Everyone

The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document used to record the completion of maintenance actions. It is important that this form is properly documented to ensure accurate maintenance records. Since the form is related to maintenance, it is the responsibility of everyone involved in the maintenance process, including AGE personnel, aircrew personnel, and the shift supervisor, to ensure that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented.

Explanation

The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document used to record the completion of maintenance actions. It is important that this form is properly documented to ensure accurate maintenance records. Since the form is related to maintenance, it is the responsibility of everyone involved in the maintenance process, including AGE personnel, aircrew personnel, and the shift supervisor, to ensure that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented.

36. In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates

Plain

Primary

Pratt and Whitney

In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates "Pin". The letter P is commonly used to represent a pin in electrical connectors. Therefore, in this code, the letter P indicates that the connector has a pin configuration.

Explanation

In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates "Pin". The letter P is commonly used to represent a pin in electrical connectors. Therefore, in this code, the letter P indicates that the connector has a pin configuration.

37. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

EMERGENCY

DIAGNOSE

TRIAGE

STAT

Triage is the correct answer because it is a medical concept that forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy. Triage is the process of determining the priority of patients' treatments based on the severity of their condition. It helps medical professionals quickly assess and prioritize patients in emergency situations, ensuring that those with the most urgent needs receive immediate care. Triage is an essential component of emergency medicine and plays a crucial role in efficiently allocating resources and saving lives.

Explanation

Triage is the correct answer because it is a medical concept that forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy. Triage is the process of determining the priority of patients' treatments based on the severity of their condition. It helps medical professionals quickly assess and prioritize patients in emergency situations, ensuring that those with the most urgent needs receive immediate care. Triage is an essential component of emergency medicine and plays a crucial role in efficiently allocating resources and saving lives.

38. What Affects radiation hazards?

Strenght of emission, Time of day, and Input power

Strenght of emission, Time of Exposure, and Weather

Input power, weather and number of personnel in the area

Time of exposure. amount of training and number of operation units

The strength of emission refers to the intensity of radiation being emitted. Higher levels of emission can result in greater radiation hazards. Time of exposure refers to the duration of time that individuals are exposed to radiation. Longer exposure times can increase the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards. Certain weather conditions, such as rain or fog, can cause radiation to disperse more quickly, reducing the risk of exposure. Conversely, calm weather conditions can allow radiation to linger in the area, increasing the risk of hazards.

Explanation

The strength of emission refers to the intensity of radiation being emitted. Higher levels of emission can result in greater radiation hazards. Time of exposure refers to the duration of time that individuals are exposed to radiation. Longer exposure times can increase the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards. Certain weather conditions, such as rain or fog, can cause radiation to disperse more quickly, reducing the risk of exposure. Conversely, calm weather conditions can allow radiation to linger in the area, increasing the risk of hazards.

39. The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

15

45

65

95

The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the sound waves produced by the engine propagate in a cone-like shape, with the apex of the cone being at the rear of the engine. As a result, the noise is most intense in the direction perpendicular to the axis of the engine, which is at a 45-degree angle from the rear.

Explanation

The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the sound waves produced by the engine propagate in a cone-like shape, with the apex of the cone being at the rear of the engine. As a result, the noise is most intense in the direction perpendicular to the axis of the engine, which is at a 45-degree angle from the rear.

40. All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT(form)

55

457

623

1297

The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the form used to document all composite material-related safety training. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and documented properly. It helps in maintaining a record of the training provided and ensures compliance with safety regulations.

Explanation

The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the form used to document all composite material-related safety training. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and documented properly. It helps in maintaining a record of the training provided and ensures compliance with safety regulations.

41. Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

Training

Aircraft

Reference

Operational

The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it primarily consists of books, journals, and other resources that provide background information and serve as a reference for specific topics. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries which require up-to-date information to ensure safety and compliance, the reference library focuses on providing historical and foundational knowledge that does not change frequently. Therefore, it does not need to constantly update its publications to maintain currency.

Explanation

The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it primarily consists of books, journals, and other resources that provide background information and serve as a reference for specific topics. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries which require up-to-date information to ensure safety and compliance, the reference library focuses on providing historical and foundational knowledge that does not change frequently. Therefore, it does not need to constantly update its publications to maintain currency.

42. The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces

25.5 VDC

27.5 VDC

28.5 VDC

30.5 VDC

The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces a voltage of 28.5 VDC.

Explanation

The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces a voltage of 28.5 VDC.

43. Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications?

Reduce shearing

Prevent vibrations

Prevent corrosion

Reduce shimming

Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two different metals come into contact, a process called galvanic corrosion can occur, especially in the presence of moisture. By using aluminum alloy washers, it creates a barrier between the steel bolt and the aluminum alloy part, reducing the likelihood of corrosion. This helps to maintain the integrity and longevity of the parts involved.

Explanation

Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two different metals come into contact, a process called galvanic corrosion can occur, especially in the presence of moisture. By using aluminum alloy washers, it creates a barrier between the steel bolt and the aluminum alloy part, reducing the likelihood of corrosion. This helps to maintain the integrity and longevity of the parts involved.

44. Which caliper is joined by strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

Simple calipers

Transfer calipers

Spring-joint calipers

Odd-leg caliper

Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This design allows for easy and precise adjustment of the caliper jaws. The spring hinge provides tension to keep the jaws closed, while the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the measurement. This type of caliper is commonly used in various industries for accurate measurements and is known for its durability and ease of use.

Explanation

Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This design allows for easy and precise adjustment of the caliper jaws. The spring hinge provides tension to keep the jaws closed, while the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the measurement. This type of caliper is commonly used in various industries for accurate measurements and is known for its durability and ease of use.

45. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

Exposed to moist air

Exposed to a chemical

Connected to another part

Fabricated or manufactured

The correct answer is "Fabricated or manufactured" because corrosion or deterioration of a metal part does not begin immediately upon exposure to moist air or a chemical. It typically occurs over time due to various factors such as the quality of the metal, the presence of corrosive agents, and environmental conditions. However, when a metal part is fabricated or manufactured, it may be exposed to processes or materials that can accelerate corrosion or deterioration, such as welding, heat treatment, or surface coatings. Therefore, the fabrication or manufacturing process can initiate the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Fabricated or manufactured" because corrosion or deterioration of a metal part does not begin immediately upon exposure to moist air or a chemical. It typically occurs over time due to various factors such as the quality of the metal, the presence of corrosive agents, and environmental conditions. However, when a metal part is fabricated or manufactured, it may be exposed to processes or materials that can accelerate corrosion or deterioration, such as welding, heat treatment, or surface coatings. Therefore, the fabrication or manufacturing process can initiate the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part.

46. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

Painted

Heat treated

Chemically treated

Exhausted or salvaged

Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part occurs when the metal reacts with its environment, typically through the process of oxidation. This process continues until the metal part is either exhausted, meaning it has completely corroded away, or salvaged, meaning it is repaired or restored to prevent further deterioration. Painting, heat treating, and chemically treating the metal part can help slow down or prevent corrosion, but they do not completely stop it. Therefore, the correct answer is that corrosion or deterioration continues until the part is exhausted or salvaged.

Explanation

Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part occurs when the metal reacts with its environment, typically through the process of oxidation. This process continues until the metal part is either exhausted, meaning it has completely corroded away, or salvaged, meaning it is repaired or restored to prevent further deterioration. Painting, heat treating, and chemically treating the metal part can help slow down or prevent corrosion, but they do not completely stop it. Therefore, the correct answer is that corrosion or deterioration continues until the part is exhausted or salvaged.

47. After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

Potassium hydroxide

Aluminum hyrdoxide

Sodium bicarbonate

Boric acid

Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. This is because sodium bicarbonate, also known as baking soda, is a mild alkaline substance that can effectively neutralize the acidic electrolyte. It reacts with the acid to form water, carbon dioxide, and a salt, thereby neutralizing the area. Potassium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, and boric acid are not commonly used for neutralizing electrolyte from lead-acid batteries.

Explanation

Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. This is because sodium bicarbonate, also known as baking soda, is a mild alkaline substance that can effectively neutralize the acidic electrolyte. It reacts with the acid to form water, carbon dioxide, and a salt, thereby neutralizing the area. Potassium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, and boric acid are not commonly used for neutralizing electrolyte from lead-acid batteries.

48. All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

PDC.

AAC.

PACC.

ERRC.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

49. When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series

3

4

5

6

When using the double-twist safetying method to secure widely spaced bolts, the maximum number of bolts that can be wired in a series is 3. This method involves twisting a wire around two adjacent bolts to prevent them from loosening. Since the bolts are widely spaced, it may not be possible to wire more than 3 bolts in a series due to the distance between them.

Explanation

When using the double-twist safetying method to secure widely spaced bolts, the maximum number of bolts that can be wired in a series is 3. This method involves twisting a wire around two adjacent bolts to prevent them from loosening. Since the bolts are widely spaced, it may not be possible to wire more than 3 bolts in a series due to the distance between them.

50. Which caliper has the words "in" and "out" stamped on the frame?

Slide caliper

Simple caliper

Transfer caliper

Spring-joint caliper

The slide caliper has the words "in" and "out" stamped on the frame. This is because the slide caliper is designed to measure the distance between two points, and the "in" and "out" markings indicate the direction in which the sliding jaw should be moved to take measurements.

Explanation

The slide caliper has the words "in" and "out" stamped on the frame. This is because the slide caliper is designed to measure the distance between two points, and the "in" and "out" markings indicate the direction in which the sliding jaw should be moved to take measurements.

51. When should you accomplish and initial evaluation in your training program?

Within 60 days of arrival

Upon duty postion assignment

When someone changes duty positions

30 days after in-processing new personnel

An initial evaluation in a training program should be accomplished within 60 days of arrival. This allows enough time for the individual to settle in and get familiar with their new environment before undergoing an evaluation. It also ensures that the evaluation is conducted early enough to identify any areas that may need improvement or further training.

Explanation

An initial evaluation in a training program should be accomplished within 60 days of arrival. This allows enough time for the individual to settle in and get familiar with their new environment before undergoing an evaluation. It also ensures that the evaluation is conducted early enough to identify any areas that may need improvement or further training.

52. Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC

CFETP, Part I

AFJQS

Command JQS

CFETP, Part II

CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a particular Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). Part II of the CFETP specifically provides a list of training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, the correct answer is CFETP, Part II.

Explanation

CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for a particular Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC). Part II of the CFETP specifically provides a list of training courses available for that AFSC. Therefore, the correct answer is CFETP, Part II.

53. The FL-1D floodlight consists of two

100 watt lamp fixtures

1,000 watt lamp fixtures

10,000 watt lamp fixtures

100,000 watt lamp fixtures

The FL-1D floodlight consists of two 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. This means that each floodlight has two lamp fixtures, and each fixture has a wattage of 1,000 watts. Therefore, the total wattage for the floodlight is 2,000 watts (2 fixtures x 1,000 watts per fixture).

Explanation

The FL-1D floodlight consists of two 1,000 watt lamp fixtures. This means that each floodlight has two lamp fixtures, and each fixture has a wattage of 1,000 watts. Therefore, the total wattage for the floodlight is 2,000 watts (2 fixtures x 1,000 watts per fixture).

54. What are the two stresses that a fastner takes when tighened?

Extension and flexion

Tension and torsion

Torque and friction

Push and pull

When a fastener is tightened, it experiences two main stresses: tension and torsion. Tension refers to the force that stretches or elongates the fastener, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force applied to the fastener. These stresses are important to consider when tightening a fastener, as they can affect its strength and integrity.

Explanation

When a fastener is tightened, it experiences two main stresses: tension and torsion. Tension refers to the force that stretches or elongates the fastener, while torsion refers to the twisting or rotational force applied to the fastener. These stresses are important to consider when tightening a fastener, as they can affect its strength and integrity.

55. What type of corrosion can be recongnized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

Pitting

Galvanic

Exofoliation

Crevice/concentration cell

Exfoliation corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal surface is exposed to a corrosive environment, causing the grains of the metal to lift up or swell. This can happen when a metal alloy has different chemical compositions in different areas, leading to varying levels of susceptibility to corrosion. Over time, the corrosive environment causes the weaker areas to corrode more rapidly, resulting in the lifting up or swelling of the metal grains. Therefore, exfoliation corrosion is the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

Exfoliation corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal surface is exposed to a corrosive environment, causing the grains of the metal to lift up or swell. This can happen when a metal alloy has different chemical compositions in different areas, leading to varying levels of susceptibility to corrosion. Over time, the corrosive environment causes the weaker areas to corrode more rapidly, resulting in the lifting up or swelling of the metal grains. Therefore, exfoliation corrosion is the correct answer for this question.

56. Objectives od the MDD system include

Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data

Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and make it easily accessible for review or retrieval when needed. This ensures that the system is able to effectively manage and utilize the base-level data for various purposes.

Explanation

The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and make it easily accessible for review or retrieval when needed. This ensures that the system is able to effectively manage and utilize the base-level data for various purposes.

57. Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

Dizziness

Emotional irritability

A feeling of emptiness

Impaired mental concentration

A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily affects the auditory system and can cause symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. A feeling of emptiness is more commonly associated with emotional or psychological states rather than physical fatigue caused by noise.

Explanation

A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily affects the auditory system and can cause symptoms such as dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration. A feeling of emptiness is more commonly associated with emotional or psychological states rather than physical fatigue caused by noise.

58. What AFTO 781 series form is used as a cource document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

781A

781F

781H

781J

The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

Explanation

The AFTO 781F form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil.

59. The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder?

Before the first flight of the day

Before each thruflight inspection

After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing

After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number

The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to document aircraft maintenance actions and events. It is typically removed from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly updated and completed before it is removed from the binder. Removing the form before the event number is entered could result in incomplete or inaccurate documentation. Therefore, it is important to remove the form after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

Explanation

The AFTO 781 form is a maintenance form used to document aircraft maintenance actions and events. It is typically removed from the forms binder after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing. This ensures that the form is properly updated and completed before it is removed from the binder. Removing the form before the event number is entered could result in incomplete or inaccurate documentation. Therefore, it is important to remove the form after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

60. Engine over-tempature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

781G

781J

781M

781P

The AFTO 781J is the correct answer because it is the specific form used to record engine over-temperature conditions. The other forms listed (781G, 781M, 781P) are used for different purposes and not specifically for recording engine over-temperature conditions.

Explanation

The AFTO 781J is the correct answer because it is the specific form used to record engine over-temperature conditions. The other forms listed (781G, 781M, 781P) are used for different purposes and not specifically for recording engine over-temperature conditions.

61. GOX high pressure cylinders are painted

White with a green band near the bottom

Green with a white band near the bottom

White with a green band near the top

Green with a white band near the top

The GOX high pressure cylinders are painted green with a white band near the top.

Explanation

The GOX high pressure cylinders are painted green with a white band near the top.

62. The MB-4 Coleman incorporates

Two wheel steering, two wheel drive

Two wheel steering, four wheel drive

Four wheel steering, two wheel drive

Four wheel steering, four wheel drive

The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four wheel steering, which means that all four wheels are able to turn and steer the vehicle. This allows for better maneuverability and tight turning radius. Additionally, the vehicle also has four wheel drive, which means that power is distributed to all four wheels for better traction and off-road capabilities. This combination of four wheel steering and four wheel drive makes the MB-4 Coleman highly versatile and suitable for various terrains and driving conditions.

Explanation

The MB-4 Coleman incorporates four wheel steering, which means that all four wheels are able to turn and steer the vehicle. This allows for better maneuverability and tight turning radius. Additionally, the vehicle also has four wheel drive, which means that power is distributed to all four wheels for better traction and off-road capabilities. This combination of four wheel steering and four wheel drive makes the MB-4 Coleman highly versatile and suitable for various terrains and driving conditions.

63. To Transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD form

126

1149

2691

2692

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

64. Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?

AF 2005.

AF Form 2413.

AF IMT 1297.

DD Form 1348-6.

AF IMT 1297 is the correct answer because it is the form used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods. The other options, AF 2005, AF Form 2413, and DD Form 1348-6, are not used for this purpose.

Explanation

AF IMT 1297 is the correct answer because it is the form used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods. The other options, AF 2005, AF Form 2413, and DD Form 1348-6, are not used for this purpose.

65. What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner

5 mph

10 mph

15 mph

20 mph

The maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner is 20 mph. This means that the air conditioner can be safely towed at speeds up to 20 mph without causing any damage or compromising its functionality.

Explanation

The maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner is 20 mph. This means that the air conditioner can be safely towed at speeds up to 20 mph without causing any damage or compromising its functionality.

66. What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?

A/M32A-95

A/M32A-86

A/M32A-60

AF/M-32R-3

The A/M32A-60 is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, as well as pneumatic power, for ground maintenance.

Explanation

The A/M32A-60 is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, as well as pneumatic power, for ground maintenance.

67. How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A -1 hydraulic test stand designated

Primary and secondary

Primary and alternate

Number 1 and Number 2

Left and Right

The hydraulic systems on the MK-3A -1 hydraulic test stand are designated as Number 1 and Number 2. This indicates that there are two separate hydraulic systems on the test stand, each identified by a different number.

Explanation

The hydraulic systems on the MK-3A -1 hydraulic test stand are designated as Number 1 and Number 2. This indicates that there are two separate hydraulic systems on the test stand, each identified by a different number.

68. Left handed threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

Knurl beside the fork

Groove by the cable eye

Knurl besde the pin eye

Groove on the end of the barrel

Left handed threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove is a distinguishing feature that indicates the presence of left handed threads, which are threaded in the opposite direction compared to traditional right handed threads. The groove serves as a visual indicator for users to easily identify the type of thread on the turnbuckle.

Explanation

Left handed threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the groove on the end of the barrel. This groove is a distinguishing feature that indicates the presence of left handed threads, which are threaded in the opposite direction compared to traditional right handed threads. The groove serves as a visual indicator for users to easily identify the type of thread on the turnbuckle.

69. A push-pill rod end engagement is checked by

Using a depth gage to check end play

Ensuring that no lateral movement exists

Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing

Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal

Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal is used to check a push-pill rod end engagement. This is because safety wire helps to secure and lock the terminal in place, ensuring that it does not move or disengage during operation. By inserting the safety wire, any potential lateral movement or play in the rod end engagement can be detected and prevented, ensuring the safety and stability of the connection.

Explanation

Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal is used to check a push-pill rod end engagement. This is because safety wire helps to secure and lock the terminal in place, ensuring that it does not move or disengage during operation. By inserting the safety wire, any potential lateral movement or play in the rod end engagement can be detected and prevented, ensuring the safety and stability of the connection.

70. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a

10 inch length of wire

12 inch length of wire

24 inch length of wire

36 inch lenght of wire

The 24 inch length of wire is the correct answer because it allows for the maximum number of bolts to be secured in series. With a longer length of wire, more bolts can be connected in a series, ensuring their safety.

Explanation

The 24 inch length of wire is the correct answer because it allows for the maximum number of bolts to be secured in series. With a longer length of wire, more bolts can be connected in a series, ensuring their safety.

71. What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?

Mission requirements

Aircraft dimensions

Structure strength

Aircraft weight

Aircraft weight is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity. The weight of the aircraft directly affects the performance and capabilities of the aircraft. For example, the engine requirements need to be determined based on the weight of the aircraft to ensure sufficient power for takeoff and climb. The wing area and landing gear requirements are also influenced by the weight of the aircraft to ensure safe and efficient operations. Additionally, the payload capacity of the aircraft is determined by its weight, as it needs to be able to carry a certain amount of cargo or passengers without exceeding its maximum weight limits.

Explanation

Aircraft weight is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity. The weight of the aircraft directly affects the performance and capabilities of the aircraft. For example, the engine requirements need to be determined based on the weight of the aircraft to ensure sufficient power for takeoff and climb. The wing area and landing gear requirements are also influenced by the weight of the aircraft to ensure safe and efficient operations. Additionally, the payload capacity of the aircraft is determined by its weight, as it needs to be able to carry a certain amount of cargo or passengers without exceeding its maximum weight limits.

72. What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?

Stress

Intergranular

Oxygen concentration cell

Metal ion concentration cell

Stress corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal is exposed to both a corrosive environment and mechanical stress. It results in the formation of corroded cracks in the metal, which is consistent with the given answer. This type of corrosion is often caused by factors such as tensile stress, residual stress, or applied stress, and can lead to catastrophic failure if not addressed.

Explanation

Stress corrosion is a type of corrosion that occurs when a metal is exposed to both a corrosive environment and mechanical stress. It results in the formation of corroded cracks in the metal, which is consistent with the given answer. This type of corrosion is often caused by factors such as tensile stress, residual stress, or applied stress, and can lead to catastrophic failure if not addressed.

73. What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?

39

49

59

69

The correct answer is 49. This suggests that the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC is 49.

Explanation

The correct answer is 49. This suggests that the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC is 49.

74. Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency, which if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?

Waiver

Urgent

Routine

Emergency

The correct answer is "Urgent." This report type requires action on a TO deficiency that, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency. It suggests that immediate attention and corrective measures are necessary to prevent any negative impact on operational efficiency.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Urgent." This report type requires action on a TO deficiency that, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency. It suggests that immediate attention and corrective measures are necessary to prevent any negative impact on operational efficiency.

75. What type of steering system on the MB-4 eagle tow vehicle provides for two wheel steer, four wheel coordinated steer, and four wheel oblique steering

Mechanical

Pneumatic

Hydraulic

Electrical

The correct answer is Hydraulic. Hydraulic steering systems are able to provide two wheel steer, four wheel coordinated steer, and four wheel oblique steering. This is because hydraulic systems use fluid pressure to transmit force, allowing for precise control and coordination of the vehicle's steering. Mechanical, pneumatic, and electrical steering systems do not have the same capabilities as hydraulic systems in terms of steering options.

Explanation

The correct answer is Hydraulic. Hydraulic steering systems are able to provide two wheel steer, four wheel coordinated steer, and four wheel oblique steering. This is because hydraulic systems use fluid pressure to transmit force, allowing for precise control and coordination of the vehicle's steering. Mechanical, pneumatic, and electrical steering systems do not have the same capabilities as hydraulic systems in terms of steering options.

76. The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aricraft tubing is no deeper than

10 percent of wall thickeness

15 percent of wall thickness

20 percent of wall thickness

25 percent of wall thickness

The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than 15 percent of the wall thickness. This means that any nicks or scratches on the tubing should not exceed 15 percent of the thickness of the tubing's wall. This is important because deeper nicks or scratches can compromise the structural integrity of the tubing and potentially lead to failure or damage during flight. Therefore, it is essential to adhere to this limit to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

Explanation

The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than 15 percent of the wall thickness. This means that any nicks or scratches on the tubing should not exceed 15 percent of the thickness of the tubing's wall. This is important because deeper nicks or scratches can compromise the structural integrity of the tubing and potentially lead to failure or damage during flight. Therefore, it is essential to adhere to this limit to ensure the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

77. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?

In progress

PR

TH

EOR

The inspection that is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems is known as the EOR (Engine-Off Run-up) inspection. This inspection is conducted to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that the aircraft is ready for takeoff. During the EOR inspection, the engines are shut down and various operational checks are performed, such as testing the flight controls, brakes, and other systems. This inspection is crucial to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft before it takes off.

Explanation

The inspection that is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems is known as the EOR (Engine-Off Run-up) inspection. This inspection is conducted to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that the aircraft is ready for takeoff. During the EOR inspection, the engines are shut down and various operational checks are performed, such as testing the flight controls, brakes, and other systems. This inspection is crucial to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft before it takes off.

78. Which of these is a Scissor-type maintenance stand?

B-1

B-2

B-4

C-1

The correct answer is B-4. A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance to provide elevated access to different parts of the aircraft. It is designed with a scissor-like mechanism that allows it to be easily adjusted to different heights. B-4 is the only option listed that indicates a scissor-type maintenance stand. B-1, B-2, and C-1 do not specify the type of maintenance stand they represent.

Explanation

The correct answer is B-4. A scissor-type maintenance stand is a type of equipment used in aircraft maintenance to provide elevated access to different parts of the aircraft. It is designed with a scissor-like mechanism that allows it to be easily adjusted to different heights. B-4 is the only option listed that indicates a scissor-type maintenance stand. B-1, B-2, and C-1 do not specify the type of maintenance stand they represent.

79. On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer is

10 MPH

15 MPH

20 MPH

25 MPH

The maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH.

Explanation

The maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer on straightaways is 20 MPH.

80. The GAS is normally sent out

90 days after graduation

6 months after graduation

Within 10 work days after graduation

Within 10 calendar days after graduation

The correct answer is "90 days after graduation." This means that the GAS (presumably referring to some document or form) is typically sent out to individuals 90 days after they have graduated. This could be a standard procedure for providing graduates with important information or updates after they have completed their studies.

Explanation

The correct answer is "90 days after graduation." This means that the GAS (presumably referring to some document or form) is typically sent out to individuals 90 days after they have graduated. This could be a standard procedure for providing graduates with important information or updates after they have completed their studies.

81. The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?

19 gallons

27 gallons

30 gallons

60 gallons

The MJ-2A reservoir holds 27 gallons of fluid.

Explanation

The MJ-2A reservoir holds 27 gallons of fluid.

82. What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?

15 to 20 inches

20 to 25 inches

25 to 30 inches

30 to 35 inches

The correct interval for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing is 15 to 20 inches. This means that the cushion clips should be spaced apart at a distance of 15 to 20 inches from each other along the tubing.

Explanation

The correct interval for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing is 15 to 20 inches. This means that the cushion clips should be spaced apart at a distance of 15 to 20 inches from each other along the tubing.

83. Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?

Phase

Special

Calendar

Acceptance

Acceptance inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents. Acceptance inspection is a process where historical documents are reviewed and verified to ensure that all necessary information and components are present. It is a crucial step to ensure the accuracy and reliability of historical records. By conducting acceptance inspections, organizations can ensure that all historical documents are complete and can be used for reference or research purposes without any missing or incomplete information.

Explanation

Acceptance inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents. Acceptance inspection is a process where historical documents are reviewed and verified to ensure that all necessary information and components are present. It is a crucial step to ensure the accuracy and reliability of historical records. By conducting acceptance inspections, organizations can ensure that all historical documents are complete and can be used for reference or research purposes without any missing or incomplete information.

84. Which TO should be consilted for detailed information about weight and balance?

1-21-101

1-1-691

1-1B-50

1-1-5

The correct answer is 1-1B-50. This document provides detailed information about weight and balance.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1-1B-50. This document provides detailed information about weight and balance.

85. Bench stock levels are established to provide a

15-day usage.

30-day usage.

60-day usage.

90-day usage.

Bench stock levels are established to provide a buffer of inventory that can be readily accessed to meet immediate needs. A 30-day usage level ensures that there is enough stock available to cover a month's worth of requirements. This allows for flexibility and reduces the risk of stockouts or delays in production or service delivery. A 30-day usage level strikes a balance between having enough inventory on hand and minimizing carrying costs associated with excessive stock levels.

Explanation

Bench stock levels are established to provide a buffer of inventory that can be readily accessed to meet immediate needs. A 30-day usage level ensures that there is enough stock available to cover a month's worth of requirements. This allows for flexibility and reduces the risk of stockouts or delays in production or service delivery. A 30-day usage level strikes a balance between having enough inventory on hand and minimizing carrying costs associated with excessive stock levels.

86. Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?

A stud

Clevis

Eyebolt

Hexhead

A clevis is often used as pins in control systems because of its ability to rotate and pivot, allowing for flexibility in movement. It is not used in areas where tension is present because it is not designed to withstand high levels of force. On the other hand, a stud is used in areas where tension is present as it is specifically designed to handle high levels of tension. The eyebolt and hexhead are also commonly used in areas where tension is present as they are able to withstand and distribute force effectively.

Explanation

A clevis is often used as pins in control systems because of its ability to rotate and pivot, allowing for flexibility in movement. It is not used in areas where tension is present because it is not designed to withstand high levels of force. On the other hand, a stud is used in areas where tension is present as it is specifically designed to handle high levels of tension. The eyebolt and hexhead are also commonly used in areas where tension is present as they are able to withstand and distribute force effectively.

87. Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?

Phase

Special

Calendar

Acceptance

When an aircraft is idle for an extended period of time, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is based on the passage of time rather than the number of flight hours or cycles. It ensures that the aircraft remains in airworthy condition and identifies any potential issues that may have arisen during the idle period. This is important to maintain the safety and reliability of the aircraft before it is put back into service.

Explanation

When an aircraft is idle for an extended period of time, a calendar inspection is required. This type of inspection is based on the passage of time rather than the number of flight hours or cycles. It ensures that the aircraft remains in airworthy condition and identifies any potential issues that may have arisen during the idle period. This is important to maintain the safety and reliability of the aircraft before it is put back into service.

88. Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

B-1

B-2

B-4

B-5

The correct answer is B-2. The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

Explanation

The correct answer is B-2. The B-2 maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet.

89. The TH inspection is normally performed

Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period

After flights when a turn around sortie or continuation flight is shceduled

Immediately prior to a BPO

After the last flight of a specified flying period

The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection takes place after the aircraft has completed its flight and is preparing for another flight without a significant delay. This ensures that any potential issues or damages incurred during the previous flight are identified and addressed before the aircraft takes off again.

Explanation

The TH inspection is performed after flights when a turn around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled. This means that the inspection takes place after the aircraft has completed its flight and is preparing for another flight without a significant delay. This ensures that any potential issues or damages incurred during the previous flight are identified and addressed before the aircraft takes off again.

90. What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?

0.5 Inch

1.0 Inch

1.5 inch

2.0 Inch

The longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil is 1.0 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects that are up to 1.0 inch in size.

Explanation

The longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil is 1.0 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects that are up to 1.0 inch in size.

91. What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals

AFI 23-106

AFI 11-218

TO 00-25-172

TO 00-25-212

AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This reference provides guidance and standardization for the use of hand signals in various Air Force operations. It ensures that personnel across different countries and organizations can effectively communicate using universally recognized hand signals, promoting safety and efficiency in military operations.

Explanation

AFI 11-218 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that covers internationally accepted hand signals. This reference provides guidance and standardization for the use of hand signals in various Air Force operations. It ensures that personnel across different countries and organizations can effectively communicate using universally recognized hand signals, promoting safety and efficiency in military operations.

92. What TCTO is indentified by a series of Red diagonals alternately spaced with Red Xs around the border of the first page?

Record

Urgent action

Routine action

Immediate action

The TCTO identified by a series of Red diagonals alternately spaced with Red Xs around the border of the first page is "Urgent action". This indicates that immediate attention and action are required in order to address the issue or problem mentioned in the TCTO. The red diagonals and Xs serve as visual indicators to highlight the urgency and importance of the action needed.

Explanation

The TCTO identified by a series of Red diagonals alternately spaced with Red Xs around the border of the first page is "Urgent action". This indicates that immediate attention and action are required in order to address the issue or problem mentioned in the TCTO. The red diagonals and Xs serve as visual indicators to highlight the urgency and importance of the action needed.

93. Which To outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?

00-1-01

00-5-1

00-20 series

00-25 series

The correct answer is 00-5-1. The AFTO Form 22 is used for maintenance and inspection records. The 00-5-1 series outlines the procedures for entries on this form.

Explanation

The correct answer is 00-5-1. The AFTO Form 22 is used for maintenance and inspection records. The 00-5-1 series outlines the procedures for entries on this form.

94. Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed

30 Days

60 Days

90 Days

120 Days

Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This is because hazardous materials can pose significant risks to human health and the environment if not handled properly. By limiting the storage period to 90 days, it ensures that the materials are not stored for an extended period, reducing the potential for accidents, leaks, or other incidents. This time frame also allows for efficient management and disposal of the hazardous materials within a reasonable timeframe, minimizing the overall risk associated with their storage.

Explanation

Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days. This is because hazardous materials can pose significant risks to human health and the environment if not handled properly. By limiting the storage period to 90 days, it ensures that the materials are not stored for an extended period, reducing the potential for accidents, leaks, or other incidents. This time frame also allows for efficient management and disposal of the hazardous materials within a reasonable timeframe, minimizing the overall risk associated with their storage.

95. What is the mazimum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

7,000

8,000

9,000

10,000

The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

Explanation

The maximum load that the model 4000 engine trailer can support is 8,000 pounds.

96. Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in High Tension applications?

A Stud

An eyebolt

A hexhead

An internal wrenching type

An internal wrenching type bolt has a recessed head and is used in high tension applications. This type of bolt has a hexagonal or square socket in its head, allowing for the use of a wrench or an Allen key to tighten or loosen it. The recessed head design provides better security and prevents the bolt from being easily tampered with or removed. This makes it ideal for applications where high tension and security are required, such as in machinery, aerospace, or automotive industries.

Explanation

An internal wrenching type bolt has a recessed head and is used in high tension applications. This type of bolt has a hexagonal or square socket in its head, allowing for the use of a wrench or an Allen key to tighten or loosen it. The recessed head design provides better security and prevents the bolt from being easily tampered with or removed. This makes it ideal for applications where high tension and security are required, such as in machinery, aerospace, or automotive industries.

97. Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?

Phased

Periodic

Isochronal

Programmed depot maintenance

Programmed depot maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive inspection and maintenance of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements specified in the technical order inspection. This type of maintenance is typically performed at designated depots and includes a thorough examination of the equipment to ensure its proper functioning and to identify any potential issues that may require repair or replacement.

Explanation

Programmed depot maintenance is the correct answer because it involves a comprehensive inspection and maintenance of areas, components, and systems that goes beyond the requirements specified in the technical order inspection. This type of maintenance is typically performed at designated depots and includes a thorough examination of the equipment to ensure its proper functioning and to identify any potential issues that may require repair or replacement.

98. What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?

15 MPH

20 MPH

25 MPH

55 MPH

The maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman is 20 MPH. This means that the vehicle is designed to operate at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to ensure safety and proper functioning of the vehicle.

Explanation

The maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman is 20 MPH. This means that the vehicle is designed to operate at a maximum speed of 20 miles per hour. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to ensure safety and proper functioning of the vehicle.

99. Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?

Snap rings

Spiral retaining rings

Beveled retaining rings

Axially assembled retaining ring

Spiral retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the groove. Unlike snap rings, which have a gap, spiral retaining rings are continuous and provide uniform radial pressure around the groove. This allows for a secure and reliable hold, making them ideal for applications that require high rotational speeds or heavy loads. Beveled retaining rings and axially assembled retaining rings do not provide 360-degree contact and may not offer the same level of security and stability.

Explanation

Spiral retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the groove. Unlike snap rings, which have a gap, spiral retaining rings are continuous and provide uniform radial pressure around the groove. This allows for a secure and reliable hold, making them ideal for applications that require high rotational speeds or heavy loads. Beveled retaining rings and axially assembled retaining rings do not provide 360-degree contact and may not offer the same level of security and stability.

100. What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high pressure nitrogen?

3,000 psig

3,500 psig

4,400 psig

5,200 psig

The maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high pressure nitrogen is 4,400 psig.

Explanation

The maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high pressure nitrogen is 4,400 psig.

101. Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a

15 ft radius

20 ft radius

25 ft radius

50 ft radius

The correct answer is 20 ft radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is important to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if not handled properly. Staying outside this radius reduces the risk of potential accidents or exposure to nitrogen.

Explanation

The correct answer is 20 ft radius. This means that individuals who are not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should stay at least 20 feet away from the area. This distance is important to ensure their safety as nitrogen can be hazardous if not handled properly. Staying outside this radius reduces the risk of potential accidents or exposure to nitrogen.

102. Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in

Sequence charts

Inspection workcards

-06 Work unit code manuals

-6 technical order inspection manuals

The correct answer is Inspection workcards. Inspection workcards are a set of documents that outline the minimum aircraft inspection requirements. These workcards provide detailed instructions and guidelines for conducting inspections on various components and systems of the aircraft. They ensure that all necessary inspections are carried out in a systematic and standardized manner, helping to maintain the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer is Inspection workcards. Inspection workcards are a set of documents that outline the minimum aircraft inspection requirements. These workcards provide detailed instructions and guidelines for conducting inspections on various components and systems of the aircraft. They ensure that all necessary inspections are carried out in a systematic and standardized manner, helping to maintain the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft.

103. What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?

A diesel Engine

An electric Motor

A gasoline engine

A hydraulic motor

The MK-3A-1 is driven by an electric motor. This means that the motor uses electricity to generate mechanical power, which is then used to drive the MK-3A-1. This type of motor is commonly used in various applications where electrical power is readily available and provides a reliable and efficient source of propulsion.

Explanation

The MK-3A-1 is driven by an electric motor. This means that the motor uses electricity to generate mechanical power, which is then used to drive the MK-3A-1. This type of motor is commonly used in various applications where electrical power is readily available and provides a reliable and efficient source of propulsion.

104. Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and

DD Form 1348-6.

AFTO Form 349.

AFTO Form 350.

DD Form 1131.

The correct answer is AFTO Form 350. AFTO Form 350 is used for the internal control of reparable items within maintenance. It is a document that tracks the status and location of reparable items, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and managed. The other forms listed (DD Form 1348-6, AFTO Form 349, and DD Form 1131) are not specifically designed for the internal control of reparable items.

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO Form 350. AFTO Form 350 is used for the internal control of reparable items within maintenance. It is a document that tracks the status and location of reparable items, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and managed. The other forms listed (DD Form 1348-6, AFTO Form 349, and DD Form 1131) are not specifically designed for the internal control of reparable items.

105. Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?

Slide caliper

Center caliper

Spring-joint caliper

Odd-leg caliper

The odd-leg caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders. It is a type of caliper that has one fixed leg and one adjustable leg, allowing it to measure the distance between two points accurately. This makes it suitable for determining the center of a shaft or locating the shoulders of a component. The other options mentioned, such as slide caliper, center caliper, and spring-joint caliper, are not specifically designed for this purpose.

Explanation

The odd-leg caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders. It is a type of caliper that has one fixed leg and one adjustable leg, allowing it to measure the distance between two points accurately. This makes it suitable for determining the center of a shaft or locating the shoulders of a component. The other options mentioned, such as slide caliper, center caliper, and spring-joint caliper, are not specifically designed for this purpose.

106. Which type of friciton is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?

Static

Tension

Dynamic

Rotational

Static friction is the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving. When an object is at rest or not moving, static friction acts in the opposite direction of the applied force, preventing the object from sliding or moving. Once the applied force overcomes the static friction, the object starts moving, and dynamic friction comes into play. Tension refers to the force transmitted through a string or a rope, while rotational friction is the resistance encountered when an object rolls or slides along a surface.

Explanation

Static friction is the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving. When an object is at rest or not moving, static friction acts in the opposite direction of the applied force, preventing the object from sliding or moving. Once the applied force overcomes the static friction, the object starts moving, and dynamic friction comes into play. Tension refers to the force transmitted through a string or a rope, while rotational friction is the resistance encountered when an object rolls or slides along a surface.

107. Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

Operations

The aircrew

Supervision

The ground crew

The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that the aircrew, which includes the pilots and other crew members on the aircraft, are in charge of conducting the preflight check before takeoff. This check is important to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that the aircraft is safe for flight. It is a standard procedure that is carried out by the aircrew to minimize any potential risks or issues during the flight.

Explanation

The aircrew is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check. This means that the aircrew, which includes the pilots and other crew members on the aircraft, are in charge of conducting the preflight check before takeoff. This check is important to ensure that all systems are functioning properly and that the aircraft is safe for flight. It is a standard procedure that is carried out by the aircrew to minimize any potential risks or issues during the flight.

108. Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?

1-1A-8

25C2-3-372-11

32A1-4.219-45

35C2-3-372-11

The technical order that has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60 is 35C2-3-372-11.

Explanation

The technical order that has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60 is 35C2-3-372-11.

109. Which retaing rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially desinged for use with them?

Snap rings

Spiral retaining rings

Beveled retaining rings

Axially asembled retaining rings

Axially assembled retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them. This allows for easy installation and removal of the retaining rings using the appropriate tools. Snap rings, spiral retaining rings, and beveled retaining rings may not have the same design feature, making them less suitable for this purpose.

Explanation

Axially assembled retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them. This allows for easy installation and removal of the retaining rings using the appropriate tools. Snap rings, spiral retaining rings, and beveled retaining rings may not have the same design feature, making them less suitable for this purpose.

110. When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the

Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard of the engine being started

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

When serving as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

Explanation

When serving as fireguard, you position yourself at the nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started.

111. The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to

200 psi

350 psi

3,200 psi

3,500 psi

The correct answer is 3,200 psi. This means that the usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is from 0 psi to 3,200 psi.

Explanation

The correct answer is 3,200 psi. This means that the usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is from 0 psi to 3,200 psi.

112. What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information systems database?

Damaged and spare items

Expired and outdated items

Recurring and repeat replacement items

Select serially controlled and time change items

The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information systems database. This means that the system ensures that items that are tracked by serial numbers and require regular time-based maintenance are accurately recorded and updated in the database. This helps in keeping track of these specific items and ensuring that they are properly maintained and serviced as required.

Explanation

The configuration management subsystem ensures that select serially controlled and time change items are loaded properly into the maintenance information systems database. This means that the system ensures that items that are tracked by serial numbers and require regular time-based maintenance are accurately recorded and updated in the database. This helps in keeping track of these specific items and ensuring that they are properly maintained and serviced as required.

113. The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from

100 to 230

115 to 250

125 to 270

150 to 280

The correct answer is 150 to 280. This is because the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that can be set within this range.

Explanation

The correct answer is 150 to 280. This is because the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that can be set within this range.

114. Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for

200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt.

Engines that are overhauled by the depot are protected against any defects in workmanship for a period of 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt. This means that if any issues arise within this time frame due to the work done during the overhaul, the depot is responsible for rectifying them. This warranty period ensures that the engine receives proper attention and any potential problems are addressed within a reasonable timeframe after the overhaul.

Explanation

Engines that are overhauled by the depot are protected against any defects in workmanship for a period of 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt. This means that if any issues arise within this time frame due to the work done during the overhaul, the depot is responsible for rectifying them. This warranty period ensures that the engine receives proper attention and any potential problems are addressed within a reasonable timeframe after the overhaul.

115. Generally, Low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures?

200 psi and below

300 psi and below

500 psi and below

1,000 psi and below

Low-pressure hoses are typically used for pressures that are 300 psi and below. This means that these hoses are designed to handle pressures that are lower than or equal to 300 psi. They are not suitable for higher pressure applications and may not be able to withstand the force exerted by fluids or gases at higher pressures. Low-pressure hoses are commonly used in various industries for applications such as air and water supply, fluid transfer, and pneumatic systems where the pressure requirements are relatively low.

Explanation

Low-pressure hoses are typically used for pressures that are 300 psi and below. This means that these hoses are designed to handle pressures that are lower than or equal to 300 psi. They are not suitable for higher pressure applications and may not be able to withstand the force exerted by fluids or gases at higher pressures. Low-pressure hoses are commonly used in various industries for applications such as air and water supply, fluid transfer, and pneumatic systems where the pressure requirements are relatively low.

116. Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

Trouble

Remedy

Section II

Probable cause

The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that require an action to be taken and lists two possible responses. It is likely that this column offers solutions or steps to resolve a specific problem or issue mentioned in the manual. By following the instructions in the Remedy column, users can address the identified problem and choose one of the two suggested responses to effectively resolve the issue.

Explanation

The Remedy column in the TS manual provides instructions that require an action to be taken and lists two possible responses. It is likely that this column offers solutions or steps to resolve a specific problem or issue mentioned in the manual. By following the instructions in the Remedy column, users can address the identified problem and choose one of the two suggested responses to effectively resolve the issue.

117. Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?

1577-2 and 1577-3.

1576 and 1576-1.

1574 and 1574-1.

1575 and 1575-1.

DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 can be easily identified by their green margins and letters.

Explanation

DD forms 1577-2 and 1577-3 can be easily identified by their green margins and letters.

118. What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smoth surfaces?

5 MPH

10 MPH

15 MPH

20 MPH

The maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces is 20 MPH.

Explanation

The maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces is 20 MPH.

119. Which inspection is due on the accural of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of entire aerospace vehicle?

Phased

Periodic

Isochronal

Hourly Postflight

The correct answer is "Periodic." This inspection is due either after a set number of flying or operating hours or at the end of a specific calendar period as specified in the aircraft-specific technical order. It involves a comprehensive examination of the entire aerospace vehicle.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Periodic." This inspection is due either after a set number of flying or operating hours or at the end of a specific calendar period as specified in the aircraft-specific technical order. It involves a comprehensive examination of the entire aerospace vehicle.

120. Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in

TO 00-20-1

TO 1-1-3

TO 1-1A-8

TO 1-1-691

The correct answer is TO 1-1-691. This document specifies the alkaline and solvent cleaners that are authorized for use on our aircraft. It provides guidelines and regulations regarding the selection and use of these cleaners to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the cleaning process. By referring to TO 1-1-691, we can ensure that we are using the appropriate cleaners that meet the necessary standards for our aircraft maintenance.

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 1-1-691. This document specifies the alkaline and solvent cleaners that are authorized for use on our aircraft. It provides guidelines and regulations regarding the selection and use of these cleaners to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the cleaning process. By referring to TO 1-1-691, we can ensure that we are using the appropriate cleaners that meet the necessary standards for our aircraft maintenance.

121. The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the

MAJCOM Level

Wing level

Base level

Unit level

The correct answer is "unit level" because the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources at the unit level. This means that the system is designed to track and manage maintenance activities, resources, and assets at the individual unit level, such as a specific squadron or department within an organization. It allows managers to monitor and allocate resources effectively, ensuring efficient maintenance operations at the unit level.

Explanation

The correct answer is "unit level" because the IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) is a production-oriented, automated maintenance management system that provides managers with visibility and control of resources at the unit level. This means that the system is designed to track and manage maintenance activities, resources, and assets at the individual unit level, such as a specific squadron or department within an organization. It allows managers to monitor and allocate resources effectively, ensuring efficient maintenance operations at the unit level.

122. Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?

Phased

Periodic

Isochronal

Programmed depot maintenance

Isochronal inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections. This type of inspection ensures that aircraft and equipment are inspected and maintained at regular intervals to prevent any potential issues or failures. It helps to maintain the operational readiness of the aircraft and ensures that all necessary maintenance tasks are completed in a timely manner.

Explanation

Isochronal inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections. This type of inspection ensures that aircraft and equipment are inspected and maintained at regular intervals to prevent any potential issues or failures. It helps to maintain the operational readiness of the aircraft and ensures that all necessary maintenance tasks are completed in a timely manner.

123. The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from

47 to 150

47 to 200

57 to 150

57 to 200

The correct answer is 47 to 200. This means that the C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air within a temperature range of 47 to 200 degrees.

Explanation

The correct answer is 47 to 200. This means that the C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air within a temperature range of 47 to 200 degrees.

124. The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of

200 psi

300 psi

3,500 psi

3,600 psi

The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 psi.

Explanation

The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 psi.

Safety Management Trivia Quiz!

1. The estimated precent of accidents caused by nature is

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What Safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen?

3. A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if conventrations are greater than

4. Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

5. The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

6. When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing safety devices associated with these explosives?

7. Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar you must

8. Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

9. The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

10. During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

11. What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

12. What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

13. The TBA provides AIr Force personnel with global, real-time

14. When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

15. Normally, what type of material is used in the contstruction of a pressure seal?

16. What parts of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit

17. Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisiting action being applied?

18. Which torque wrench is desgined to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached

19. When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, the

20. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

21. Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

22. What is the precentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

23. Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

24. The first step in developing an effective FOD precention program is to

25. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

26. In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

27. Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

28. The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

29. What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

30. What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

31. How are special bolts identified?

32. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

33. Use the range button on the fluke multimeter to

34. Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completeing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

35. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is porperly documented?

36. In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates

37. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

38. What Affects radiation hazards?

39. The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

40. All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT(form)

41. Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

42. The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces

43. Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications?

44. Which caliper is joined by strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

45. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

46. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

47. After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

48. All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

49. When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series

50. Which caliper has the words "in" and "out" stamped on the frame?

51. When should you accomplish and initial evaluation in your training program?

52. Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC

53. The FL-1D floodlight consists of two

54. What are the two stresses that a fastner takes when tighened?

55. What type of corrosion can be recongnized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

56. Objectives od the MDD system include

57. Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

58. What AFTO 781 series form is used as a cource document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

59. The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder?

60. Engine over-tempature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

61. GOX high pressure cylinders are painted

62. The MB-4 Coleman incorporates

63. To Transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD form

64. Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?

65. What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner

66. What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?

67. How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A -1 hydraulic test stand designated

68. Left handed threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

69. A push-pill rod end engagement is checked by

70. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a

71. What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?

72. What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?

73. What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?

74. Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency, which if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?

75. What type of steering system on the MB-4 eagle tow vehicle provides for two wheel steer, four wheel coordinated steer, and four wheel oblique steering

76. The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aricraft tubing is no deeper than

77. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?