Safety Management Trivia Quiz!

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  • 1/124 Questions

    The estimated precent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2
    • 4
    • 6
    • 8
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About This Quiz

Safety management is an important quiz for people to understand when it comes to businesses. This course gives employers the chance to safeguard their employees from harm and minimize the risk of them happening. The quiz below is designed to test it out. Give it a try and get to see just how much you know about it from your training.

Safety Management Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What Safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The initial safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen. This phase is the first step in introducing new airmen to safety protocols and procedures. It helps them understand the importance of safety and instills good safety habits from the beginning of their careers. By providing comprehensive training during the initial phase, new airmen are equipped with the knowledge and skills necessary to prioritize safety throughout their time in the air force.

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  • 3. 

    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if conventrations are greater than

    • -2.0%

    • -1.0%

    • .1%

    • 1.0%

    Correct Answer
    A. .1%
    Explanation
    In MSDSs (Material Safety Data Sheets), a chemical is identified as a carcinogen if its concentrations are greater than 0.1%. This indicates that the chemical has the potential to cause cancer in individuals exposed to it. It is important to identify and label carcinogens accurately in order to ensure proper handling and safety precautions are taken when working with these substances.

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  • 4. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • The USAF

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA because the Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The EPA is responsible for regulating and enforcing laws related to the management and disposal of hazardous waste in the United States. They establish guidelines and standards to ensure the safe handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment.

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  • 5. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

    • Cool with high pressure compressed air

    • Cool with forced air from a blower

    • Spray with cold water

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This is because allowing the assembly to cool naturally in the surrounding air is a safer method compared to using high pressure compressed air, forced air from a blower, or spraying with cold water. Using compressed air or water can potentially cause damage to the assembly or other components, while allowing it to cool in the ambient air ensures a gradual and controlled cooling process.

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  • 6. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing safety devices associated with these explosives?

    • Crew chief

    • Flight Engineer

    • Weapons Personnel

    • Only senior personnel on special orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons Personnel
    Explanation
    Weapons Personnel are responsible for removing safety devices associated with live ammunition when launching an aircraft. They have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm explosives safely. The crew chief is responsible for overall maintenance and operation of the aircraft, while the flight engineer is responsible for monitoring and maintaining the aircraft's systems during flight. Senior personnel on special orders may have specific responsibilities, but it is the Weapons Personnel who are specifically trained for handling explosives in this context.

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  • 7. 

    Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar you must

    • Install Shorting plugs and clips

    • Install safing mechanical safety devices

    • Remove ammunition and explosives

    • Position all fire control switches to safe or off

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove ammunition and explosives
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove ammunition and explosives. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the hangar and its surroundings. By removing these hazardous materials, the risk of accidental detonation or ignition is minimized. It is a standard procedure to remove ammunition and explosives before bringing the aircraft into the hangar to prevent any potential accidents or incidents that could cause harm or damage.

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  • 8. 

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Everyone

    • Wing Commander

    • Immediate Supervisor

    • Logistics and operations group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention is the responsibility of everyone in an organization. It is not limited to a specific role or position. Each individual, regardless of their rank or position, should actively participate in preventing FOD by following proper procedures, maintaining cleanliness, and being vigilant in identifying and reporting any potential FOD hazards. This collective effort ensures a safe and efficient working environment, reducing the risk of damage to equipment and potential accidents.

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  • 9. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • Red markings

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    The green markings on the gauge of a fire extinguisher indicate the safe operating range of pressure. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure inside the fire extinguisher is at an appropriate level for effective use. This is important because if the pressure is too low, the extinguisher may not work properly, and if it is too high, there is a risk of the extinguisher rupturing or malfunctioning. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the gauge needle is within the green markings to ensure the fire extinguisher is ready for use in case of an emergency.

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  • 10. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or Vehicle operator

    • Supervisor or brake operator

    • Supervisor or wing walkers

    • Supervisor only

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only." During an aircraft tow, the supervisor is the only authorized person to give the "all clear to move" order. This is because the supervisor has the overall responsibility for ensuring the safety of the operation and has the authority to make decisions regarding the movement of the aircraft. Other individuals mentioned in the options may have specific roles and responsibilities during the tow, but only the supervisor has the authority to give the final authorization to move the aircraft.

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  • 11. 

    What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

    • Departmental, intermediate, and field

    • Organizational, field, and intermediate

    • Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

    • Departmental, organizational, and depot

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
    Explanation
    The Air Force's maintenance capabilities are categorized into three levels: organizational, intermediate, and depot. Organizational maintenance refers to the basic level of maintenance performed by the unit or organization that operates the equipment. Intermediate maintenance involves more complex repairs and is typically performed by specialized maintenance units. Depot maintenance is the highest level and involves extensive repairs and overhauls that are conducted at centralized repair facilities. Therefore, the correct order of increasing capability is organizational, intermediate, and depot.

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  • 12. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Unscheduled

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    • Protective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance is the type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready and available when needed. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and minor repairs to prevent breakdowns or failures. By proactively addressing potential issues, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime, increase equipment reliability, and extend its lifespan. This type of maintenance is essential for industries and organizations that rely heavily on their equipment to maintain productivity and efficiency.

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  • 13. 

    The TBA provides AIr Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to distance leraning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses air force-wide

    • Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues
    Explanation
    The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statues. The TBA platform allows Air Force personnel to have access to information regarding their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that they can easily see and track their own progress and accomplishments in terms of their technical skills and training. This visibility is important for career development and ensuring that personnel are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.

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  • 14. 

    When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

    • AGE Personnel only

    • The highest ranking person on the shift

    • Qualified operators only

    • Any person

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified operators only
    Explanation
    The gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer used for servicing aircraft should only be operated by qualified operators. This ensures that the person operating the trailer has the necessary knowledge, skills, and training to handle the equipment safely and effectively. It is important to have qualified operators to prevent any accidents or damage to the aircraft or equipment.

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  • 15. 

    Normally, what type of material is used in the contstruction of a pressure seal?

    • Soft rubber

    • Phenolic Mix

    • Non-Magnetic

    • Thermosetting plastic

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft rubber
    Explanation
    Soft rubber is commonly used in the construction of a pressure seal. Soft rubber is a flexible and compressible material that can create a tight and secure seal when under pressure. It is also resistant to leakage and can withstand high temperatures and various chemicals. Therefore, it is an ideal material choice for pressure seals in applications such as pipes, valves, and hydraulic systems.

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  • 16. 

    What parts of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit

    • Metal shells

    • Connector halves

    • Dielectric contacts

    • Pin-and-socket contacts

    Correct Answer
    A. Pin-and-socket contacts
    Explanation
    Pin-and-socket contacts complete the electrical circuit in a cannon plug. These contacts consist of pins and sockets that connect to corresponding pins and sockets in another connector. When the cannon plug is inserted, the pins and sockets make contact, allowing the flow of electrical current between the two connectors. This completes the circuit and enables the transfer of electrical signals or power. The metal shells and connector halves provide structural support and protection for the contacts but do not directly complete the electrical circuit.

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  • 17. 

    Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisiting action being applied?

    • Indicating type

    • Breakaway type

    • Screwdriver type

    • Internal wrenching type

    Correct Answer
    A. Indicating type
    Explanation
    An indicating type torque wrench is designed to display the amount of torque or twisting action being applied. It typically features a dial or digital display that shows the torque value in real-time as the wrench is being used. This allows the user to accurately measure and control the amount of torque being applied to a fastener or component.

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  • 18. 

    Which torque wrench is desgined to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached

    • Indicating type

    • Breakaway type

    • Screwdriver type

    • Internal wrenching type

    Correct Answer
    A. Breakaway type
    Explanation
    A breakaway type torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached. This type of torque wrench is commonly used in applications where over-tightening can cause damage or failure. When the desired torque is reached, the wrench will break or slip, indicating that the correct torque has been applied. This feature ensures that the fastener is not overtightened, providing accurate and consistent torque application.

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  • 19. 

    When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, the

    • Manual range mode is indicated

    • Touch-hold mode is in use

    • Ohms function is selected

    • Meter is zeroing itself

    Correct Answer
    A. Touch-hold mode is in use
    Explanation
    The correct answer is touch-hold mode is in use. When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, it indicates that the touch-hold mode is in use. In this mode, the multimeter captures and holds the reading on the display, allowing the user to view it even after removing the probes from the circuit being measured. This is useful when measuring values in hard-to-reach or dangerous areas where it may not be safe or convenient to keep the probes connected while reading the value.

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  • 20. 

    Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

    • Multimeter

    • Depth gauge

    • Feeler gauge

    • Torque wrench

    Correct Answer
    A. Feeler gauge
    Explanation
    A feeler gauge is a tool used to measure the gap between two parts. It consists of a set of thin metal strips of varying thicknesses. These strips can be inserted into the gap between two parts to determine the distance between them. By selecting the appropriate strip, the user can accurately measure the gap and ensure proper fitment or alignment of the parts. This makes the feeler gauge the correct tool for measuring the gap between two parts.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

    • Base commanders.

    • Squadron commanders.

    • Supervisors at all levels.

    • Squadron QA section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors at all levels.
    Explanation
    Supervisors at all levels are responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced. This means that every supervisor, regardless of their position or rank, has the responsibility to enforce and maintain proper supply practices within their respective areas. By doing so, they contribute to the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain, ensuring that resources are properly managed and allocated. This responsibility extends to all levels of supervision, from frontline supervisors to higher-level managers, as they play a crucial role in upholding supply discipline throughout the organization.

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  • 22. 

    What is the precentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

    • 50

    • 70

    • 90

    • 98

    Correct Answer
    A. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98. This indicates that a high percentage of accidents are caused by both unsafe acts and physical hazards. It suggests that a large majority of accidents can be prevented by addressing these factors and implementing appropriate safety measures.

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  • 23. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs, Manuals, and CDCs

    • Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

    • TOs, handbook, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. These directives are used when performing maintenance procedures. Manuals provide detailed instructions and guidelines for specific tasks. TOs (Technical Orders) are official documents that provide specific instructions for maintenance, operation, and repair of equipment. Handbooks provide additional reference material and guidance for maintenance procedures. Together, these directives ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out accurately and efficiently.

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  • 24. 

    The first step in developing an effective FOD precention program is to

    • Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly

    • Follow MAJCOM guidelines

    • Identify all possible sources of FOD

    • Educate all personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify all possible sources of FOD
    Explanation
    In order to develop an effective FOD (Foreign Object Debris) prevention program, it is crucial to identify all possible sources of FOD. This step involves thoroughly examining the work environment, equipment, and processes to identify any potential sources of debris that could pose a risk. By identifying these sources, appropriate measures can be implemented to prevent FOD incidents, such as implementing proper storage and handling procedures, conducting regular inspections, and ensuring that all personnel are aware of the potential sources and how to mitigate them.

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  • 25. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • Wing vice commander

    • Group commander

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

    • Wing commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This individual is responsible for overseeing maintenance operations and has the authority to clear a red X, indicating that a lost tool cannot be located. The wing vice commander, group commander, and wing commander may have higher authority within the organization, but they may not have the specific knowledge or responsibility for maintenance operations to make a decision about a lost tool.

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  • 26. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office

    • The operations commander

    • The flight safety officer

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA stands for Quality Assurance. In most units, the QA department is responsible for investigating dropped objects. QA is responsible for ensuring that processes and procedures are followed correctly to maintain quality and safety standards. Investigating dropped objects falls under their jurisdiction as it involves identifying the cause of the incident, implementing corrective measures, and preventing similar incidents in the future. The FOD prevention office, operations commander, and flight safety officer may have roles related to safety and prevention, but the specific task of investigating dropped objects is typically assigned to the QA department.

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  • 27. 

    Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

    • Base supply soordinator

    • Critical item liaison

    • Equipment liaison

    • Item managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Item managers
    Explanation
    Item managers are responsible for determining which items in the MDS specific -6 TO (Technical Order) need historical reporting. They have the knowledge and expertise regarding the items and their usage, and they are in the best position to assess the importance and relevance of historical reporting for each item. Item managers are typically responsible for the overall management and oversight of specific items or groups of items, including their procurement, inventory, and reporting requirements. Therefore, they play a crucial role in determining the need for historical reporting in the MDS specific -6 TO.

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  • 28. 

    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

    • Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • Helping evaluate the training of new personnel for training

    • Helping with forcasting and scheduling personnel for training

    Correct Answer
    A. Helping with forcasting and scheduling personnel for training
    Explanation
    The training management subsystem helps with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training. This means that it assists in predicting and planning the needs for training personnel, as well as organizing and arranging their schedules accordingly. By doing so, the system ensures that the right individuals are assigned to the appropriate training programs at the right time, optimizing the effectiveness and efficiency of the training process.

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  • 29. 

    What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 because the question asks for the total number of Air Force TO catalogs, and the only option provided is 1. Therefore, there is only one Air Force TO catalog.

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  • 30. 

    What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

    • Tail

    • Axle

    • Nose

    • Fixed-Height

    Correct Answer
    A. Axle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Axle. When changing a tire on an aircraft, an axle jack is typically used. This type of jack is designed to lift the aircraft by its axle, allowing for easy removal and replacement of the tire. The axle jack provides stability and support to safely lift the aircraft off the ground, making it the most suitable option for this task.

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  • 31. 

    How are special bolts identified?

    • By zinc plated nickel and steel covering

    • By galvanized plated steel covering

    • The bolt head is marked with a triangle

    • The bolt head is marked with the letter S

    Correct Answer
    A. The bolt head is marked with the letter S
    Explanation
    Special bolts are identified by marking the bolt head with the letter S. This marking serves as a visual indicator that the bolt is unique or has specific characteristics that differentiate it from regular bolts. The letter S helps to easily identify and distinguish special bolts from others, making it easier for users to select and use the appropriate bolts for specific applications.

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  • 32. 

    Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

    • Maximum setting at least four times

    • Maximum setting at least six times

    • Lowest setting at least four times

    • Lowest setting at least six times

    Correct Answer
    A. Maximum setting at least six times
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the maximum setting at least six times. This is because cycling the torque wrench multiple times helps to ensure that it is calibrated correctly and functioning properly. By doing this at the maximum setting, it ensures that the wrench is capable of handling the highest torque levels it may encounter. Cycling it six times provides a more thorough calibration and reduces the chances of any errors or inaccuracies in torque measurement.

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  • 33. 

    Use the range button on the fluke multimeter to

    • Check the AC voltages only

    • Check the DC voltages only

    • Initiate the tough-hold mode

    • Move the decimal point

    Correct Answer
    A. Move the decimal point
    Explanation
    The range button on the Fluke multimeter allows the user to adjust the measurement range of the device. By pressing this button, the decimal point on the display can be moved to the appropriate position based on the magnitude of the voltage being measured. This ensures accurate readings by allowing the user to clearly see the measurement value without any confusion or misinterpretation.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completeing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

    • Directiory

    • Pamphlet

    • Instruction

    • Supplement

    Correct Answer
    A. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form. Pamphlets are usually informational materials that provide general information or instructions on a specific topic. They can provide guidance on how to fill out forms correctly, but they do not have the authority to enforce the information provided on the form. Therefore, a pamphlet is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is porperly documented?

    • AGE personnel

    • Aircrew personnel

    • Shift Supervisor

    • Everyone

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 134 is a maintenance document used to record the completion of maintenance actions. It is important that this form is properly documented to ensure accurate maintenance records. Since the form is related to maintenance, it is the responsibility of everyone involved in the maintenance process, including AGE personnel, aircrew personnel, and the shift supervisor, to ensure that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented.

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  • 36. 

    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates

    • Pin

    • Plain

    • Primary

    • Pratt and Whitney

    Correct Answer
    A. Pin
    Explanation
    In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates "Pin". The letter P is commonly used to represent a pin in electrical connectors. Therefore, in this code, the letter P indicates that the connector has a pin configuration.

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  • 37. 

    Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

    • EMERGENCY

    • DIAGNOSE

    • TRIAGE

    • STAT

    Correct Answer
    A. TRIAGE
    Explanation
    Triage is the correct answer because it is a medical concept that forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy. Triage is the process of determining the priority of patients' treatments based on the severity of their condition. It helps medical professionals quickly assess and prioritize patients in emergency situations, ensuring that those with the most urgent needs receive immediate care. Triage is an essential component of emergency medicine and plays a crucial role in efficiently allocating resources and saving lives.

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  • 38. 

    What Affects radiation hazards?

    • Strenght of emission, Time of day, and Input power

    • Strenght of emission, Time of Exposure, and Weather

    • Input power, weather and number of personnel in the area

    • Time of exposure. amount of training and number of operation units

    Correct Answer
    A. Strenght of emission, Time of Exposure, and Weather
    Explanation
    The strength of emission refers to the intensity of radiation being emitted. Higher levels of emission can result in greater radiation hazards. Time of exposure refers to the duration of time that individuals are exposed to radiation. Longer exposure times can increase the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards. Certain weather conditions, such as rain or fog, can cause radiation to disperse more quickly, reducing the risk of exposure. Conversely, calm weather conditions can allow radiation to linger in the area, increasing the risk of hazards.

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  • 39. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

    • 15

    • 45

    • 65

    • 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 45
    Explanation
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees. This is because the sound waves produced by the engine propagate in a cone-like shape, with the apex of the cone being at the rear of the engine. As a result, the noise is most intense in the direction perpendicular to the axis of the engine, which is at a 45-degree angle from the rear.

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  • 40. 

    All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT(form)

    • 55

    • 457

    • 623

    • 1297

    Correct Answer
    A. 55
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 55 because AF IMT 55 is the form used to document all composite material-related safety training. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and documented properly. It helps in maintaining a record of the training provided and ensures compliance with safety regulations.

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  • 41. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The reference library does not need to maintain publication currency because it primarily consists of books, journals, and other resources that provide background information and serve as a reference for specific topics. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational libraries which require up-to-date information to ensure safety and compliance, the reference library focuses on providing historical and foundational knowledge that does not change frequently. Therefore, it does not need to constantly update its publications to maintain currency.

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  • 42. 

    The A/M32A-86 generator set’s T-R produces

    • 25.5 VDC

    • 27.5 VDC

    • 28.5 VDC

    • 30.5 VDC

    Correct Answer
    A. 28.5 VDC
    Explanation
    The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces a voltage of 28.5 VDC.

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  • 43. 

    Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications?

    • Reduce shearing

    • Prevent vibrations

    • Prevent corrosion

    • Reduce shimming

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent corrosion
    Explanation
    Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications to prevent corrosion. When two different metals come into contact, a process called galvanic corrosion can occur, especially in the presence of moisture. By using aluminum alloy washers, it creates a barrier between the steel bolt and the aluminum alloy part, reducing the likelihood of corrosion. This helps to maintain the integrity and longevity of the parts involved.

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  • 44. 

    Which caliper is joined by strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

    • Simple calipers

    • Transfer calipers

    • Spring-joint calipers

    • Odd-leg caliper

    Correct Answer
    A. Spring-joint calipers
    Explanation
    Spring-joint calipers are joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut. This design allows for easy and precise adjustment of the caliper jaws. The spring hinge provides tension to keep the jaws closed, while the screw and adjustment nut allow for fine-tuning of the measurement. This type of caliper is commonly used in various industries for accurate measurements and is known for its durability and ease of use.

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  • 45. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

    • Exposed to moist air

    • Exposed to a chemical

    • Connected to another part

    • Fabricated or manufactured

    Correct Answer
    A. Fabricated or manufactured
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fabricated or manufactured" because corrosion or deterioration of a metal part does not begin immediately upon exposure to moist air or a chemical. It typically occurs over time due to various factors such as the quality of the metal, the presence of corrosive agents, and environmental conditions. However, when a metal part is fabricated or manufactured, it may be exposed to processes or materials that can accelerate corrosion or deterioration, such as welding, heat treatment, or surface coatings. Therefore, the fabrication or manufacturing process can initiate the corrosion or deterioration of a metal part.

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  • 46. 

    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

    • Painted

    • Heat treated

    • Chemically treated

    • Exhausted or salvaged

    Correct Answer
    A. Exhausted or salvaged
    Explanation
    Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part occurs when the metal reacts with its environment, typically through the process of oxidation. This process continues until the metal part is either exhausted, meaning it has completely corroded away, or salvaged, meaning it is repaired or restored to prevent further deterioration. Painting, heat treating, and chemically treating the metal part can help slow down or prevent corrosion, but they do not completely stop it. Therefore, the correct answer is that corrosion or deterioration continues until the part is exhausted or salvaged.

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  • 47. 

    After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

    • Potassium hydroxide

    • Aluminum hyrdoxide

    • Sodium bicarbonate

    • Boric acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium bicarbonate
    Explanation
    Sodium bicarbonate is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery. This is because sodium bicarbonate, also known as baking soda, is a mild alkaline substance that can effectively neutralize the acidic electrolyte. It reacts with the acid to form water, carbon dioxide, and a salt, thereby neutralizing the area. Potassium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, and boric acid are not commonly used for neutralizing electrolyte from lead-acid batteries.

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  • 48. 

    All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

    • PDC.

    • AAC.

    • PACC.

    • ERRC.

    Correct Answer
    A. ERRC.
  • 49. 

    When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    When using the double-twist safetying method to secure widely spaced bolts, the maximum number of bolts that can be wired in a series is 3. This method involves twisting a wire around two adjacent bolts to prevent them from loosening. Since the bolts are widely spaced, it may not be possible to wire more than 3 bolts in a series due to the distance between them.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 26, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Specs1
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